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Monday, October 25, 2010

SSC Combined Graduate Level Preliminary (Prelim) Exam General Awareness Solved Paper

SSC Combined Graduate Level Preliminary (Prelim) Exam

(Held on 04/02/2007)

General Awareness

1. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by

(a) Madame Curie

(b) J.J.Thomson

(c) Roentgen

(d) Becquerel

2. Einstein’s mass energy relation is given by the expression

(a)

E 1 2 =mv

(b) E =mc2

(c)

E =mgh

(d) None of the above

3. Defect of colour blindness can be remedied by the use of

(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens

(c) Cylindrical lens (d) None of the above

4. What is a zoom lens?

(a) It is a lens having fixed focal length

(b) It is a lens having variable focal length

(c) It is a lens used in radio telescopes

(d) None of the above

5. Which one of the following is known as Marsh gas?

(a) CO

(b) CH4

(c) CO2 (d) H2

6. Chemically, lime water is

(a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Sodium carbonate

(c) Sodium hydroxide

(d) Calcium carbonate

7. Chemically, bleaching powder is

(a) Calcium hypochlorite

(b) Calcium hydroxide

(c) Sodium hydroxide

(d) Calcium sulphate

8. A gas used as a disinfectant in drinking water is

(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen

(c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine

9. Which one of the following is associated with Darwinism?

(a) Law of Use and Abuse

(b) Mutation

(c) Theory of Germplasm

(d) Natural Selection

10. Radioactivity is measured by

(a) Geiger-Mullar counter (b) Polarimeter

(c) Calorimeter (d) Colorimeter

11. The study of worms which cause parasitic infestations in man is called

(a) Helminthological (b) Herpetology

(c) Ichthyology (d) Malacology

12. The double helical structure of DNA was discovered by

(a) Watson and Crick

(b) Watson and Khurana

(c) Crick and Khurana

(d) Watson and Morgan

13. The vector for elephantiasis is

(a) Culex mosquito larva

(b) Female mosquito

(c) Infected culex mosquito

(d) Female anopheles mosquito

14. Deficiency of iron leads to

(a) Anorexia (b) Anaemia

(c) Polycythemia (d) Leucopenia

15. Which one of the following is the largest terrestrial wild animal?

(a) Indian elephant

(b) African elephant

(c) Giraffe

(d) White tiger

16. Enterobiasis is caused by

(a) Hook worm

(b) Filaria worm

(c) Pin worm

(d) Round worm

17. Who formulated the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) M.G.Ranade

(c) R.C.Dutt (d) B.C.Pal

18. The silver coins of the Gupta period were known as

(a) Dinar

(b) Rupyaka

(c) Satamana

(d) Karshapana

19. Who was the first European to designate ‘Aryans’ as a race?

(a) Sir William Jones

(b) H.H.Wilson

(c) Max Muller

(d) General Cunningham

20. Match the Sufi Saints with the Silsilas with which they were associated. Answer the

questions on the basis of codes provided below-

List -I

1. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya 2. Bahauddin Zakariya

3. Mian Mir 4. Ahmad Sirhindi

List-II

(a) Qadiri

(b) Suhrawardi

(c) Chistiya

(d) Naqshbandi

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 2 1

(B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 1 2 3 4

21. Name the State where density of population is the lowest

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Mizoram

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

22. Which State of India has recorded the highest rate of population growth in the last census

(2001)?

(a) Gujarat (b) Manipur

(c) Nagaland (d) Haryana

23. What is the correct rank roder of towns on the basis of population (2001) size?

(a) Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Bangalore, Chennai

(b) Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore

(c) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad

(d) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad

24. Identify the Indian State which has the lowest sex ratio

(a) Haryana

(b) Punjab

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

25. New firms are barred from entering the market in

(a) Perfect competition (b) Oligopoly

(c) Monopolistic competition (d) Monopoly

26. Who says that propensity to consume is stable in the short run?

(a) Keynes

(b) Hicks

(c) Arrow

(d) Stiglitz

27. In India, according to 2001 census, the general literacy rate is

(a) 65.38%

(b) 52.21%

(c) 43.57%

(d) 34.45%

28. India’s largest commercial bank is

(a) Central Bank of India

(b) State Bank of India

(c) Indian Oversea Bank

(d) Bank of India

29.

Which one of the following is not among the key objectives of the 10th Plan?

(a) Reduction of poverty ratio

(b) Drinking water for all villages by 2012

(c) Reduction in infant mortality rates

(d) Reduction in imports

30. Fiscal Policy is related to

(a) Money supply in the economy

(b) Regulation of the banking system

(c) Planning for economic development

(d) Government’s Revenue and Expenditure

31. Foreign exchange rate means the rate at which the currency of one country can be

traded for

(a) The currency of any other country in the foreign exchange market

(b) US dollar, which is the strongest currency in any foreign exchange market

(c) A fixed basket of currencies consisting of Dollar, Yen, Euro and Pound

(d) The currency of any other country as determined by the International Monetary Fund

32. The supply of a commodity does not depend directly upon

(a) Cost of production

(b) Price of the commodity

(c) Technology of production

(d) Demand for the commodity

33.

At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not

included it the Preamble?

(a) Liberty

(b) Equality

(c) Socialist

(d) Justice

34. The tenure of the Rajya Sabha is -

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(c) Permanent

(d) 2 years

35. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of -

(a) United States of America

(b) Canada

(c) Ireland

(d) United Kingdom

36. Who is considered as the father of Idealism?

(a) Plato (b) Hegel

(c) Berkeley (d) Green

37. The disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President of India are

decided by the

(a) High Court

(b) Election Commission

(c) Supreme Court

(d) Parliament

38. Match List-I (Forms of Government) with List-II (Principles) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists -

Lists-I

(a) Presidential system

(b) Parliamentary system

(c) Federal system

(d) Unitary system

List-II

1. Division of power

2. Concentration of power

3. Close relationship between executive and legislature

4. Separation of powers

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 2 1 3

39. Which part of the Indian Constitution provides for establishing Indian as a Welfare State?

(a) The preamble of the Constitution

(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution)

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution)

(d) Schedule IV of the Indian Constitution

40. Which one of the these is not a keyword of Gandhian Government?

(a) Self-sufficiency

(b) Decentralized production

(c) Equitable distribution

(d) Centralised production

41.

Match List-I (Personalities) with List-II (Activities) and select the correct answer from the

codes given below the lists-

Lists-I

(a) Vinoo Mankad

(b) Sunil Mittal

(c) Uma Sharma

(d) V. Kurian

List-II

1. Kathak Dancing

2. Dairy Development

3. Cricket

4. Telecom Industry

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 2 1 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

42. The book ‘Midnight’s Children’ has been written by

(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Tasleema Nasreen

(c) Salman Rushdie (d) Kiran Desai

43. CTBT stands for

(a) Continued Test Ban Treaty

(b) Continued Test Based Treatments

(c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

(d) Commercial Test Based Tariff

44. The Tehri Hydro Power Complex is located in the State of

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

45. ‘CDMA’ – technology used in Mobile Phones stands for

(a) Computer Developed Management Application

(b) Code Division Multiple Application

(c) Code Division Multiple Access

(d) Code Division Mobile Application

46. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer from the codes

given below the lists

Lists-I

(a) My Presidential Years

(b) The Hindu View of Life

(c) Voice of Conscience

(d) Without Fear or Favour

List-II

1. S.Radhakrishnan

2. V.V.Giri

3. N.Sanjeeva Reddy

4. R.Venkataraman

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 1 2 3

47. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Organisations/Area of Work) and select the correct

answer from the codes given below the lists-

Lists-I

(a) Amrita Patel

(b) Indra Nooyi

(c) Sunita Narayan

(d) Nandan Nilekani

List-II

1. Information Technology

2. Environmental Science

3. PepsiCo

4. Dairy Development

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

48. Who has the written the book ‘Two Lives’?

(a) Salman Rushdie

(b) Arundhati Roy

(c) Vikram Seth

(d) Shiv Khera

49.

The Ad Line ‘Express Yourself’ is associated with which Brand/Company?

(a) BSNL

(b) Airtel

(c) Hutch

(d) MTNL

50. F.A.O. is the abbreviation of

(a) Fibre and Agricultural Organization

(b) Factory Acquisition Organziation

(c) Free Arbiration Organization

(d) Food and Agriculture Organisation

ANSWER KEYS

1.

(d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)

6.(a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10.(a)

11.

(a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b)

16.

(c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21.

(c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)

26.

(a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)

31.

(a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b)

36.

(b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)

41.

(c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c)

46.

(d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d)

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Various Competitive Examinations

Staff Selection Commission conducts the following competitive examinations every year.

1) For candidates having qualification of only Matriculation, they are eligible to apply for the Combined Matric Level Examination. In the same examination, those who are having Stenography speed of 80 WPM can apply for Stenographer also. Combined Matric Level Examination for posts of LDCs and Stenographers is conducted in 3 stages. The preliminary examination is of objective type is conducted to shortlist candidates for next examination i.e. Main Examination and the candidates who qualify in the main examination are to appear in a typewriting test/stenographer test for final selection.

There are various examinations for graduates such as, Tax Assistant, Combined Graduate Level, Sub-Inspectors in CPOs, Section Officer(Audit). However, the graduates in Commerce, in addition to the above, can also apply for Section Officer(Commercial) examination. The graduates in Economics/Statistics/ Maths. can apply for Statistical Investigator also in addition to all the above examination except Section Officer(Commercial). The Engineering graduates are in addition to above, are eligible to appear the Junior Engineer exam. conducted by the Commission. For the candidates having degree in Hindi, are eligible apply for Junior Hindi Translators also.

The details of various examinations are as follows :

2) Combined Graduate Examination for posts of Inspector in Income Tax/Central Excise/Department of Post, Sub-Inspector in CBI, Assistant, Divisional Accountant, Auditor, Junior Accountant, UDC etc.

This examination is also conducted in 3 stages i.e. preliminary, Main and Interview for mostly group ‘B’ non-gazetted posts. However, for posts of Auditors, UDC, Jr. Accountants, no interview is conducted and candidates are selected on the basis of their performance in the main examination.

3) Sub-Inspector in CPO (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP,SSB) Examination – Only one written examination is conducted for this examination, followed by a physical, medical test and interview. There is some relaxation in height for the candidates belonging to North-Eastern Region.

4) Section Officer(Audit) & Section Officer(Commercial) Examination – These examinations also consist of only one written examination followed by a interview. The posts of Section Officers are mainly exists in Accountant General offices located all over the country.

5) Junior Engineers Examination – It consist of only one written examination followed by an interview for posts of Junior Engineers in CPWD.

6) Tax Assistant Examination – This examination is conducted for selection of candidates for posts of Tax Assistant in Central Excise/Income Tax department. It consist of a written paper followed by a skill test in computer typing.

7) Junior Hindi Translator Examination – One written test followed by an interview is the selection criteria for this post.

8) Selection Posts – In addition to the above, some specialized posts like Chemist, Computer typist, Research Assistant, Hindi Translator etc. in central government offices located in north eastern region are conducted by SSC(NER), Guwahati. For those posts, generally no written test is conducted. The short-listed candidates are selected on the basis of an interview only. For getting shortlisted for any selection post, the candidate should enclose all experience certificates/extra curricular certificates though the same are not asked for.

Advertisement of examinations :

All the advertisements of competitive examinations even an advertisement for a single post are published in the Employment News. However, there was a complaint about non-availability of Employment News in some areas. In order to facilitate the candidates of North Eastern Region, Short notices of the advertisements are sent for publication in all leading local newspapers and also sent to all the local stations of All India Radio/Doordarshan for broadcast. Now-a-days, applications forms of various competitive examinations can also be downloaded from the website of the Staff Selection Commission-(http//www.ssc.nic.in).

Contents of the competitive examinations :

A simple graduate candidate can easily qualify in any SSC examination if he/she has the thorough knowledge of his own subject and keeps an eye on current affairs etc. Model questions of SSC examinations in the form of guide books are also available in the market. Also knowledge of present day happenings in the country as well as the world as available in the Newspapers are a must for cracking the examination.

How to apply :

Before filling up any application form of any examination, candidates should read the instructions given in the advertisement to avoid rejection of their application form. Since the data of all the candidates are entered and monitored in Computers, data once entered against a candidate, cannot be rectified or changed later on. Application Form can be typed/hand written but it should be same as published, signature should be put in all places wherever prescribed.

Evaluation of Answer Sheets :

Objective type questions that are required to be answered by tick marks/darkening are evaluated by Computer (Optical Mark Reader).Candidate should be careful in handling the OMR Answer Sheet. Making dirty the OMR sheet and any kind of fold may lead to non-evaluation of his answer sheet. Recently, a candidate who was selected for the post of Sub-Inspector in CISF against female quota was found to be male candidate later on. The candidate wrote the code no. 2 which means female instead of code no.1.Descriptive type questions are evaluated manually.

Interview :

Interview of SSC are conducted in a candidates’ friendly atmosphere. To get through any interview, the candidate need not put any costly dress but should appear clean, smart and should be familiar about his own subject, native place, state of domicile, places of historical interest of the state etc. However, the interview board members are highly experienced/eminent personalities, confession in case of any doubtful/unconfirmed information will be appreciated by them instead of trying to mislead them.

Reservations of vacancies :

There are reservations of vacancies for SC/ST/OBC etc.as per government’s orders however; there is no reservation for any particular state. Vacancies are open to all and are filled up as per the merit of the candidates drawn on all India basis.

Common errors in submission of the application forms :-

During scrutiny of application forms, the following common errors are found committed by the candidates leading to cancellation of their candidature :-

a) Non pasting of photographs in proper place.

b) Not signing below the photograph and also in the declaration at the end.

c) Signing in capital letters instead of running hand.

d) Non affixing of CRFS.

e) Non cancellation of CRFS.

f) Non submission of requisite documents in support of Date of Birth, Caste/Tribe Certificate and Educational Qualification.

g) Non submission of application form before closing date.