Sunday, December 16, 2012

SSC recruitment Constable (GD) in CAPFs and Rifleman Assam-Rifles 2013


Staff Selection Commission (SSC) invites application for the following  49080 posts  of Constables (GD) in BSF, CISF, CRPF and SSB :

Constable (General Duty - GD) / Rifleman (GD)  : 22000 posts approx. in various states and in various CAPFs,
Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2000,
Age : 18-23 years as on 01/01/2013,
Qualification : 10th pass or Matriculation or High School.

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS)  or SBI Challan or online payment through account with the State Bank of India.

How to Apply :   The application must be submitted only in the prescribed format online or on paper.

Online - Candidates can apply Online at http://ssconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php from 15/12/2012 to 09/01/2013 (Part-I) and up to 11/01/2013 for Part-II.

Offline - Application in prescribed format should be sent on or before 11/01/2013 (18/01/2013 for candidates from far-flung areas) and should be send to any of the 9 regional/sub-offices of SSC where candidates want to apply.  

Written Examination - on 12th May 2013.

For further details and application form, please view http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Final%20Notice%20for%20Const(GD)&%20Rifleman%20(GD),2013.pdf and offline application form is available at http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Application%20Form%20Constable%20(GD)(2013).pdf

SSC Karnataka-Kerala Region Notified 55 Vacancies


Staff Selection Commission, Karnataka-Kerala Region, issued notification for recruitment of staff to 55 posts in 4 Departments. Interested candidates can send their applications in the prescribed format by 28 December 2012.

Candidates applying for the posts mentioned in Sl. No 5 should send only one application. They should clearly indicate the preference for the departments in column No. 13 of the application using the post code, failing which their preference for posting will be considered as per the alphabetical order (i.e, A,B) in the Notification subject to eligibility
The Upper age limit is relax-able by 5 years for candidates belonging to SC / ST category and by 3 years for candidates belonging to OBC category.

Age limit, educational qualification etc would be reckoned as on 28 December 2012.

Application Fees: 
 An application fee of Rs.50 has to be paid through CRFS. These stamps are available at all departmental Post Offices of the country. Candidates’ must get the CRFS cancelled from the counter clerk of any post office including the post office of issue with the date stamp of post office in such a manner that the impression is clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of the date and the post office of issue at any subsequent stage. After getting the Recruitment fee stamps cancelled from the Post Office, candidates’ can submit the application.
[No fee for Woman candidates, Physically Handicapped, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and ExS.]
[Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.]
[Fee paid by cash, Bank Draft or Pay Order, IPO will NOT be accepted.]

Mode of Selection:
Final Selection would be done on the basis of candidates’ performance in the Proficiency Test and in the Interview / skill test.
Shortlisted / screened candidates will be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable / required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion. Candidates qualifying the proficiency test, if held, would be required to appear for Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates’ in the Proficiency Test, wherever applicable, and Interview / skill test.
Wherever a proficiency test is held, the Commission may, at its discretion, call for interview only such candidates who obtain a certain minimum marks in proficiency test.
SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid T.A. No T.A. will be paid for screening test / proficiency test, if they are held on a day other than that of Interview.

How To Apply: 
Duly filled in application, in the prescribed format, along with attested copies of all the required documents / certificates should be sent to “The Regional Director (KKR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st  Floor, ‘E’ Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore - 560 034” by post so as to reach the given address on or before the last date.
The envelope containing the application must be super scribed in bold letters as “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ………………………………………. ADVERTISED VIDE CATEGORY………………………………….. OF ADVT. NO. KKR-05/2012”.

The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The format can also be obtained from the Employment News / Rozgar Samachar dated 01 December 2012.

Candidates must submit separate applications and pay the fee separately for each category of post in case they wish to apply for more than one category of posts.
Candidates should also note that one envelope should contain application of one candidate only.

The Upper age limit is relax-able only for posts/vacancies reserved for categories like SC/ST/OBC. No such relaxation would be available for SC/ST/OBC candidates applying for UR posts/vacancies.
SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.

Important Dates
Last Date for Receipt of Application:
 28 December 2012 (1700 hrs)
                                                     4 January 2013 (For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti District and Pangi Sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and those residing abroad.)

For Details Visit: http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in


For complete notification, click here


Tuesday, December 4, 2012

SSC Eastern Region Various Posts Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Eastern Region (ER), Kolkata, invites application for the following  posts  :

  1. Junior Technical Assistant :  06 posts (OBC-5, ST-1)
  2. Scientific Assistant (Physical - Civil) :  02 posts (R-1, OBC-1)
  3. Senior Zoological Assistant : 02 posts
  4. Taxidermist Gr.III : 01 post
Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 24/12/2012 (31/12/2012 for candidates from far-flung areas) to the   Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission, (Eastern Region),  234/4, A.J.C. Bose Road, Nizam Palace, 1st MSO Building,  8th Floor, Kolkata - 700020.

For further details and application form, please view http://www.sscer.org

SSC North Western Region Various Posts Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) North Western Region (NWR), Chandigarh, invite application for the following  posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

  1. Assistant Plant Protection Officer (Chemistry) : 34 posts (UR-17, OBC-9, Sc-5, ST-3), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800  grade pay Rs.4200
  2. Zoological Assistant-III  : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200
  3. Senior Technical Assistant (Chemical) : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800  grade pay Rs.4600
  4. Senior Technical Assistant: 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200
Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 28/12/2012 (04/01/2013 for candidates from far-flung areas) to  Office of the Deputy Regional Director (NWR), Staff Selection Commission, (North Western Region), Block No. 3, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh - 160017.

For further details and application form, please visit http://www.sscnwr.org

Tuesday, November 27, 2012

SSC Food Corporation of India (FCI) Recruitment Exam 2012 Assistant Grade – III Posts (General/ Accounts/ Technical/ Depot)

GENERAL AWARENESS
(Exam Held On: 11-11-2012)

1. Firms under perfectly competitive markets generally are
    a) Price makers
    b) Price givers
    c) Price takers
    d) Price fixers

2. Select the odd one in the following:
    a) Petroleum
    b) Coal
    c) Fuel wood
    d) Electricity

3. National Income is
    a) Net National Product – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
    b) Gross National Product – Direct Taxes
    c) Gross Domestic Product – Imports
    d) Net Domestic Product + Products

4. Which statement is true?
    a) Money is a good servant
    b) Money is a good servant but bad a bad master
   c) Money is a good master but a bad servant
    d) Money is a good master and a good servant

5. India has adopted ______________ as its economic system to bring about a socialistic
    pattern of society.
    a) Socialism
    b) Mixed economy
    c) Capitalism
    d) Political economy

6. Local government are the basis of
    a) Aristocracy
    b) Secularism
    c) Democracy
    d) Reservation

7. The final interpreter of the Indian Constitution is
    a) Central Cabinet
    b) President
    c) High Court
    d) Supreme Court

8. One of the following laws favours women’s interests:
    a) Equal Remuneration Act
    b) Protection of Civil Rights Act
    c) Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act
    d) None of the above

9. One of the following was once an associate State of the Union of India and later
    became a full fledged State:
    a) Jharkhand
    b) Chhattisgarh
    c) Arunanchal Pradesh
    d) Sikkim

10. President of India can be impeached by
      a) Specially constituted Tribunal
      b) Supreme Court
      c) Central Cabinet
      d) Parliament



Friday, November 23, 2012

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper


GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam held on 04-11-2012 (Evening Shift)


1. Light year is a unit of
    a) time
    b) distance
    c) light
    d) intensity of light

2. Radio telescope are better than optical telescope because
    a) They can detect faint galaxies which cannot be done by optical telescopes.
    b) They can even work even in cloudy conditions.
    c) They can work during the day and night.
    d) All the above

3. _______ programs are used to create numeric-based documents such as budgets.
    a) Word Processing
    b) Presentations
    c) Spread sheet
    d) Graphics

4. The process of elimintating logical errors is known as
    a) testing
    b) debugging
    c) maintenance
    d) evaluation

5. System of growing plants through water culture methods is known as
    a) Hydrotropism
    b) Hydrophobia
    c) Hydroponics
    d) Hydrophytes

6. A transformer is used to
    a) increase a.c. voltage
    b) increase d.c. voltage
    c) convert electrical energy to heat energy
    d) convert a.c. energy to d.c. energy

7. ‘Saponification’ is a process by which
    a) soap is prepared
    b) plastic is prepared
    c) sulphur is extracted
    d) protien is identified.

8. Heat of a reaction does not depend on
    a) temperature of the reaction.
    b) the path by which final product is obtained.
    c) physical states of the reactants and products.
    d) whether the reaction is carried out at constant pressure or at constant volume.

9. The presence of ‘Entamoeba histolytica’ in drinking water is an indication of
    a) bacterial outbreak
    b) polluted water
    c) clean water
    d) decay of organic matter

10. Disadvantage of using DDT as pesticide is
      a) it becomes ineffective after sometime.
      b) not easily degraded in nature.
      c) less effective than others.
      d) its high cost.


Friday, November 16, 2012

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper




GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam Held On: 04-11-2012 (Morning Shift)

1. Who are the price-takers under Perfect Competition?
    a) buyers
    b) industry
    c) government
    d) firms
2. Open market operation refers to:
    a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
    b) borrowing by scheduled banks to industry and trade
    c) purchase and sale of government  securities
    d) deposit mobilisation
3. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of agricultural labour is zero
    is known as:
    a) Structural unemployment
    b) Seasonal unemployment
    c) Cyclical unemployment
    d) Disguised unemployment
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian Economy?
    a) low per capita income
    b) primacy of agriculture
    c) balance between heavy industry and wage goods.
    d) population pressure
5. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of the State Policy are
    like a “Cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
    a) K.T. Shah
    b) K.M. Munshi
    c) B.R. Ambedkar
    d) Austin
6. Term ‘Federal’ has been used in the Indian Constituion in:
    a) Preamble
    b) Part III
    c) Article 368
    d) Nowhere in the Constitution
7. Which of the following is associated with panchayati Raj?
    a) Shah Commission
    b) Nanavati Commission
    c) Balwant Rai Committee
    d) Liberhan Commission
8. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes distribution of seats in Rajya Sabha?
    a) 3rd schedule
    b) 4th schedule
    c) 5th schedule
    d) 6th schedule
9. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
    a) Inter-State rivers
    b) Trade Unions
    c) Citizenship
    d) Local Government
10. Which Amendment of the Constituion deals with Political defections?
      a) 44th
      b) 50th
      c) 52nd
      d) 60th


SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper

GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam held on: 21-10-2012 (Evening Shift)

1. The Kharif crops are harvested in:
    a) June – July
    b) October – November
    c) May – June
    d) March – April
2. Which of the following cost curve is never “U” shapped?
    a) Average cost curve
    b) Marginal cost curve
    c) Average variable cost curve
    d) Average fixed cost curve
3. Hydro-electric power is a:
    a) renewable-natural resource
    b) non-renewable-natural resource
    c) a mixture of renewable and non-renewable natural resource
    d) neither renewable nor non-renewable resource
4. National Income is also called as:
    a) NNP at Market Price
    b) GNP at Factor Cost
    c) GNP at Market Price
    d) NNP at Factor Cost
5. The Members and Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, are
    appointed by the:
    a) Prime Minister of India
    b) President of India
    c) Chief Justice of India
    d) Parliament of India
6. At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals
    was not included in the Preamble?
    a) Equality
    b) Justice
    c) Socialist
    d) Liberty
7. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of:
    a) The President
    b) The Parliament
    c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
    d) The Comptroller and Auditor General
8. Which of the following is not a Union Territory?
    a) Lakshadweep
    b) Pondicherry
    c) Nagaland
    d) Daman and Diu
9. India was granted freedom during the British Prime Minister:
    a) William Pitt
    b) Clement Attlee
    c) Winston Churchill
    d) Ramsay MacDonald
10. In which of the following list does the subject ‘planning’ figure?
     a) Union List
     b) State List
     c) Concurrent List
     d) Residuary List


SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper



GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam Held On: 21-10-2012 (Morning Shift)

1. The basic characteristic of a capitalistic economy is
    a) full employment
    b) the private ownership of the means of production
    c) absence of monopoly
    d) large-scale production in primary industries
2. Which of the following taxes is not a direct tax?
    a) Gift tax
    b) Wealth tax
    c) Sales tax
    d) Estate duty
3. UNDP prepares
    a) Index Number of Price Level
    b) Physical Quality Index
    c) Human Development Index
    d) Standard of Living Index
4. Fiscal policy refers to
    a) Sale and purchase of securities by RBI
    b) Government taxes, expenditure and borrowings
    c) Government borrowings from abroad
    d) Sharing of its revenue by Central Government with States
5. Public opinion gets an authoritative expression in a democracy through
    a) Newspapers
    b) Parliament
    c) Pressure groups
    d) Public meetings
6. Which one of the following is not a determining factor of a country’s foreign policy?
    a) National interests
    b) Interdependence
    c) Cultural conditions
    d) Religious conditions
7. Who will act as the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee?
    a) The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha                    
    b) The Leader of the House
    c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    d) The Vice-President of India
8. Who was chosen unanimously as the President of India?
    a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
    b) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
    c) K.R. Narayanan
    d) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
9. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constitutent Assembly on
    a) 17th October, 1949
    b) 14th November, 1949
    c) 26th November, 1949
    d) 26th January, 1949
10. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
     a) Parliament
     b) Supreme Court
     c) High Court
     d) Election Commission


Wednesday, November 14, 2012

SSC EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is—
(A) Sleet
(B) Smog
(C) Snow-line
(D) Fog
Ans : (A)

2. ‘Operation Flood’ was launched in 1970 to—
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
Ans : (B)

3. Photogrammetry is—
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geometrical problems
(D) Use of photography in surveying and mapping
Ans : (D)

4. The spice State of India is—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans : (D)

5. Jog Falls is found across the river—
(A) Cauvery
(B) Kabini
(C) Krishna
(D) Sharavati
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following sea ports of India is the main outlet for export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

7. The International Date Line passes through the—
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snowfall
(C) Fog
(D) Hail
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following is a Great Circle ?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)

10. Tides in the sea have stored in them—
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the above
Ans : (D)


Sunday, November 11, 2012

SSC Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Recruitment



Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Regional Offices of the Commission have advertised recruitment to Group ‘C’ posts of Multi Tasking Staff for which Matriculation or equivalent is the minimum qualification in various Central Government Ministries / Departments / Offices, in different States / Union Territories:

Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff  in various States and UTs, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1800, Age : 18-25 years as on 01/01/2013, Qualification : Matriculation or equivalent.

Fee Payable : Rs.100/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

 Date of Examinations : 10/03/2013 & 17/03/2013

How to Apply : .  Application in the prescribed format should be sent on or before07/12/2012 (14/12/2012 for candidates from far-flung areas) to various regional offices of the SSC where candidate wants to apply.  Candidates may apply online at SSC website only up to 05/12/2012 for part-I registration and 07/12/2012 for Part-II registration. 

For further details and application form, please viewhttp://www.sscner.org.in/MTS%20ADV.htm

SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS


The  written examination will consist of (Paper-I)   objective type paper  and (Paper-II)  descriptive type as shown below :

Paper-I:
             
    Part
Subject
Maximum
Mark
Total Duration /
Timing for General candidates 
Total Duration/
Timing for Visually Handicapped/   Cerebral Palsy  candidates 
        A

General  Intelligence
 &    Reasoning
      ( 25questions)    
25
   
2 Hours
10.00 A.M. to  12.00  Noon        
           or
  
 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM

2 Hours 40 mins
10.00 A.M. to 12.40 PM        
         
           or
  
 2:00 PM to 4:40 PM
       B

Numerical Aptitude
( 25 questions)
25
     C
General English
( 50 questions)
50
    D
General Awareness
(50 questions)
50



Paper-II:

Subject
Maximum
Marks
Total Duration /
Timing for General candidates 
Total Duration/
Timing for Visually Handicapped/ Cerebral Palsy  candidates 
Short Essay/Letter in  English and Vernacular language
50
30 minutes


 45 minutes











NOTE-I :  Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only.    The questions will be set both in English & Hindi, except Part III. The Commission reserves the right to set the questions additionally in regional languages subject to technical feasibility.
NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.  Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
NOTE-IIIPaper-II will be descriptive in which the candidate will be required to write short essay/letter in English andone language included in the 8th schedule of the Constitution.
NOTE-IV: Paper-II will only be of qualifying nature and is intended to test elementary language skills in view of recategorization of the post as Group-C and in view of job requirements.
NOTE-V: Paper-II will be held only for such candidates who meet the cut-off prescribed by the Commission in Paper-I for different categories. The date and time of the Paper will be communicated to shortlisted candidates in due course.  Commission reserves the right to set separate qualifying standard in any Part of Paper-I.

SYLLABUS :

Paper-I Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post.  Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably.  Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard

 General Intelligence:     It would include questions of non-verbal type.  The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc.  The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

English Language : Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.  

Numerical Aptitude:  This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.

General Awareness:  Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society.  Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person.  The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

Tuesday, November 6, 2012

SSC FCI Grade-II Exam 2012 Paper-I Solved Paper

     

SSC FCI Assistant Grade-3 Exam 2012 Paper

     

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Paper

     

Revised Negative Marking Scheme by SSC for FCI Assistant Grade III Exam

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) notified for Combined Recruitment to Category III in the FCI 2013. SSC will conduct a written examination for the posts, on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government, on 11 November 2012.
Initially it was decided, for every answer wrongly replied, 0.25 would be deducted in regard to all multiple choice questions. However, now it has been notified that instead of  the earlier mentioned mark 0.50 marks would be deducted .

Monday, October 29, 2012

SSC CORRECT KEYS


•  Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Re-exam. 2012 - Correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY1
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY2


•  Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police, 2012 - correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY


•  Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 - correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY1
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY2
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY3


•  Re-examination for Steno. Grade C&D Exam.,2012 held on 26.8.2012- keys regarding - reg.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY

•  Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police, 2012 - correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY


•  Stenographer Grade 'C' & 'D' Exam. 2012 - Correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY


•  Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 - correct keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY1
CLICK HERE TO VIEW THE KEY2


•  Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF
Examination, 2012 held on 27.05.2012
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY

•  RE-EXAMINATION FOR THE RECRUITMENT OF SEPOY IN NCB EXAM. 2012 -keys regarding.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY


•  RECRUITMENT OF CONSTABLES (GD) IN CAPFS AND RIFLEMAN (GD) IN
ASSAM RIFLES, 2012- KEYS USED BY THE COMMISSION IN THE DIFFERENT
TEST FORMS- reg.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY


•  COMBINED RECRUITMENT FOR ASSTT. GRADE III IN GENERAL/
TECHNICAL AND ACCOUNTANT CADRES) IN THE FCI,2012- CORRECT KEYS REG
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY(PAPER-II-MORNING SESSION-GENERAL)
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY(PAPER-II-MORNING-VH)
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY(PAPER-III-EVENING)


•  Junior Engineers (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and
Contract) Exam., 2012- Correct keys reg.
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY


•  Common Screening Test for recruitment of Sub-Inspector(Fire) in CISF
Examination, 2012 and various selection posts held on 26.02.2012-regarding
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY


•  Combined Recruitment for Asstt. Grade III in General /Technical and
Accountant Cadres) in the FCI, 2012- keys used by the Commission for the
different question paper/Test Forms Booklets
CLICK HERE TO VIEW KEY

•  Key For FCI Examination-2012 (AG-II/ Hindi Typist) held on 22 January 2012
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• Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator(in Subordinate Offices)and
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Monday, October 22, 2012

SSC DELHI EXAM GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members


3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)