Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) : In these questions, select the related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given alternatives.
1. Taste : Tongue : : Walk : ?
(a) Pavement
(b) Crutch
(c) Legs
(d) Walking stick
Ans: ( c ) Legs
2. CHIMNEY : SMOKE : : ______ : ______
(a) Gun : Bullet
(b) House : Roof
(c) Clay : Ceramic
(d) Tea : Kettle
Ans: ( a ) Gun : Bullet
3. DCHG : LIKQP : : FEJI : ?
(a) MLSR
(b) NMRQ
(c) ONTS
(d) QPUT
Ans: ( None )
4. CAD : FDG : : XZW : ?
(a) IQJ
(b) CAD
(c) ZBY
(d) UWT
Ans: ( d ) UWT
5. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ?
(a) 342
(b) 343
(c) 248
(d) 125
Ans: ( a ) 342
6. 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?
(a) 2154
(b) 5487
(c) 3562
(d) 5784
Ans: ( d ) 5784
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : In these questions, select the response which is different from the other three responses.
7. (a) Telephone
(b) Tape-Recorder
(c) Transistor
(d) Telescope
Ans: ( d ) Telescope
8. (a) Glue
(b) Oil
(c) Paste
(d) Cement
Ans: ( b ) Oil
9. (a) XZUS
(b) OQLJ
(c) HJFE
(d) FHCA
Ans: ( c ) HJFE
10. (a) KNPS
(b) RUWZ
(c) MPRU
(d) PRSU
Ans: ( d ) PRSU
11. (a) 26 ? 62
(b) 36 ? 63
(c) 46 ? 64
(d) 56 ? 18
Ans: ( d ) 56 ? 18
12. (a) 6958
(b) 7948
(c) 6895
(d) 9783
Ans: ( d ) 9783
Directions (Qs. 13) : In this question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
13. m__nm__n__an__a__ma__
(a) amammn
(b) aammnn
(c) ammanm
(d) aamnan
Ans: ( b ) aammnn
Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) : In these questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14. A, c, f, j, ?, ?
(a) ou
(b) mo
(c) lp
(d) rv
Ans: ( a ) ou
15. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE
(a) NWJ
(b) MVI
(c) NVI
(d) MVJ
Ans: ( b ) MVI
16. 10, 22, 46, 94 ?
(a) 180
(b) 184
(c) 190
(d) 140
Ans: ( c ) 190
17. 110, 132, 156, ?, 210
(a) 162
(b) 172
(c) 182
(d) 192
Ans: ( c ) 182
Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) : In these questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?
18. (1) Book (2) Words
(3) Letters (4) Sentences
(5) Chapters (6) Pages
(a) 3 2 6 5 4 1
(b) 3 2 5 4 6 1
(c) 3 2 4 5 6 1
(d) 3 2 4 6 5 1
Ans: ( d ) 3 2 4 6 5 1
19. (1) Probation (2) Interview
(3) Selection (4) Appointment
(5) Advertisement (6) Application
(a) 5 6 4 2 3 1
(b) 5 6 3 2 4 1
(c) 5 6 2 3 4 1
(d) 6 5 4 2 3 1
Ans: ( c ) 5 6 2 3 4 1
20. If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 36
(d) 27
Ans: ( b ) 29
21. If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?, then how can ?REPORT? be written?
(a) NQMBNZ
(b) NQBMNZ
(c) NBQMNZ
(d) NQMNBZ
Ans: ( a ) NQMBNZ
22. In a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were written as XLNVZGLMXV. In the same code which of the following would be ?OK? ?
(a) LM
(b) LP
(c) KM
(d) KL
Ans: ( b ) LP
Directions (Qs. 23) : In this question, you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following symbols.
23. If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ?¸?
means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then15 ? 3 + 10 x 5 ¸ 5 =
(a) 52
(b) 48
(c) 22
(d) 5
Ans: ( b ) 48
Directions (Qs. 25) : From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
25. Given word : ADMINISTRATION
(a) STATION
(b) TRADITION
(c) MINISTER
(d) RATION
Ans: ( c ) MINISTER
Numerical Aptitude
1. The next number of the sequence 51, 52, 56, 65…… is?
a. 75 b. 78 c. 79 d. 81
Ans. d
2. a’s salary is 25% more than b’s salary. B’s salary is how much less than a’s salary?
a.20 % b. 24% c. 25% d. 30%
Ans. A
3. the single discount, which is equivalent to successive discounts of 25% and 10% is
a. 35 b. 32 c. 33 d. 32.5
Ans. D
4. if 2A=3B=4C Then A:B:C is
a. 2:3:4
b. 4:3:2
c. 6:4:3
d. non of above
Ans. c
5. 114.01 + 222.01 + ? = 400
1. 63.98
2. 43.78
3. 736.02
4. -53.98
6. The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm (use p = 22 / 7). The diameter of the circle is
1. 7 cm
2. 14 cm
3. 33 cm
4. 37 cm
7. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number should be
1. 12
2. 72
3. 96
4. Data inadequate
8. The average of seven results is 5; the average of first three is 3, and that of the last three is 7. The fourth result is
1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
9. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The area of the field is
1. 20000 sq m
2. 25000 sq m
3. 18000 sq m
4. 19000 sq m
10. The area of a rectangular field is 144 sq m. If the length is increased by 5 m, its area increases by 40 sq m. The length of the field is
1. 12 m
2. 14.4 m
3. 16 m
4. 18 m
11. A, B and C are partners and make a profit of Rs. 4800 which is distributed among them in the ratio 6:5:4. The difference of the amounts A and C received is
1. Rs. 640
2. Rs. 1290
3. Rs. 1280
4. Rs. 1600
12. A, B, & C enter into a partnership with investments in the ratio 3:4:9. If at the end of the year, B’s share of profit is Rs. 6175, what is the total profit?
1. Rs. 24300
2. Rs. 24600
3. Rs. 24700
4. Rs. 24100
13. X and Y enter into a partnership. X contributes Rs. 8000 and Y contributes Rs. 10000. At the end of six months they introduce Z, who contributes Rs. 6000. After the lapse of three years, they find that the firm has made a profit of Rs. 9660. Find the share of each.(in Rs.)
1. X-3240, Y-4200, Z-2200
2. X-3360, Y-4400, Z-2100
3. X-3360, Y-4200, Z-2100
4. 3260, Y-4000, Z-2200
14. Umedh Singh and Zorawar Singh invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2:3. If Umedh Singh invested Rs. 24, the amount invested by Zorawar Singh was
1. Rs. 36
2. Rs. 16
3. Rs. 30
4. Rs. 48
15. Abdul and Aamir invest respectively Rs. 30000 and Rs. 40000 in a business. Abdul receives Rs. 100 per month out of the profit for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year Abdul totally receives Rs. 3900, what does Aamir receive?
1. Rs. 3500
2. Rs. 3600
3. Rs. 3900
4. Rs. 4200
16. 7 women and 6 men can do what 4 men and 11 women can do in the same time. 19 women can do the same job in how much time?
1. Same
2. Half
3. One-third
4. Two-third
17. If A can walk a certain distance in 40 days when he takes rest 9 hours each day; how much long will he take to walk the same distance twice as fast and rest twice as long each day?
1. 50 days
2. 45 days
3. 38 days
4. 16 days
18. If 20 men or 25 women or 30 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days by working 10 hours a day, then how many men with 10 women and 18 boys can do 3 ¼ times the same work in 26 days by working 8 hours daily?
1. 35 men
2. 30 men
3. 40 men
4. 48 men
19. Some persons can do a job in 12 days. Two times the number of those persons will do half of that job in
1. 6 days
2. 4 days
3. 12 days
4. 3 days
20. 400 men working 9 hrs a day complete ¼ th of the work in 10 days. The number of additional men, working 8 hrs a day, required to done the remaining work in 20 days is
1. 675
2. 275
3. 250
4. 225
21. 25% of 240 will be how much more than 33.33% of 180?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 6
4. Nil
22. 350% of a number is what percent of 250% of that number?
1. 40%
2. 44%
3. 140%
4. 71%
23. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width decreased by 20%, the area of the rectangle will
1. Decrease by 4%
2. Increase by 4%
3. Decrease by 1%
4. Not change at all
24. A shopkeeper increases the price of a commodity by 25% and again increases it by 20%. The net percent increase is
1. 45%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 47%
25. The cost of a pant is 60% of the cost of a coat and 300% of the cost of a shirt. If all three cost Rs. 2160, the cost of the shirt will be
1. Rs. 290
2. Rs. 280
3. Rs. 360
4. Rs. 240
General Knowledge (G.K)
1. Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south America?
a. Ecuador
b. Peru
c. Uruguay
d. Bolivia
Ans : d
2. Canary Islands belongs to
a. Norway
b. Spain
c. New Zealand
d. Portugal
Ans : b
3. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Saturn
d. Neptune
Ans : c
4. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
a. Pluto
b. Jupiter
c. Venus
d. Mercury
Ans : c
5. A difference of 1 degree in longitude at the Equator is equivalent to nearly
a. 101 km
b. 111 km
c. 121 km
d. 125 km
Ans : b
6. The earliest known Indian script is
a. Mori
b. Devanagari
c. Brahmi
d. Kharosti
Ans : c
7. How many times the preamble was amended
a. once
b. twice
c. thrice
d. four times
Ans : a
8. The term socialist was added in the Preamble by the…amendment
a. 40th
b. 42nd
c. 44th
d. 49th
Ans : b
9. The state with the lowest population in India is
a. Goa
b. Tripura
c. Mizoram
d. Sikkim
Ans : d
10. Which person or organisation received the Nobel Prize three times so far?
a. Medame Curie
b. Linus Pauling
c. Alexender Flemming
d. International Committee of the Redcross
Ans : d
11. The Finance Commission is appointed for every… year
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Ans : c
12. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth?
a. 1st plan
b. 2nd plan
c. 3rd plan
d. 4th plan
Ans : c
13. Who is the founder of the Capital city of Agra?
a. Akbar
b. Babar
c. Sikinder Lodi
d. Mubarak Shah Sayyad
Ans: c
14. The first tide generated electricity project was established at
a. Vizhinjam, Kerala
b. Mangalore, Karnataka
c. Paradeep, Orissa
d. Vishakapattanam
Ans : a
15. National Institute of Oceanography is located in :
a. Calcutta
b. Chennai
c. Mangalore
d. Panaji
Ans : d
16. The 2004 Olympics were held in :
a. Bangkok
b. Rome
c. Athens
d. Nagasaki
Ans : c
17. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War ?
a. Gen. V. P. Malik
b. Gen. S. K. Sinha
c. K. Subramanyam
d. K. C. Panth
Ans : c
18. The C. K. Nayudu Trophy is related to the sport of
a. cricket
b. Hockey
c. Football
d. Chess
Ans : a
19. New York is situated on the river
a. Hudson
b. Thames
c. Danube
d. Tigris
Ans : a
20. “The Woman of the Millennium” selected by the British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) is
a. Margaret Thacher
b. Hillary Clinton
c. Chandrika Kumaratunga
d. Indira Gandhi
Ans : d
21. The General Assembly of United Nations meets
a. Once a year
b. twice a year
c. thrice a year
d. Once in five years
Ans : a
22. The “Common Wealth Games 2002? will be held in
a. Toranto
b. Manchester
c. Tokyo
d. Canberra
Ans : b
23. All India Radio commenced operations in
a. 1926
b. 1936
c. 1945
d. 1947
Ans : b
24. The “Killer Instinct” is written by
a. Sulakshan Mohan
b. M.K.Santanam
c. O.P.Sabharwal
d. Subash Jain
Ans : c
25. The Secretary-General of UN is appointed by the
a. Security Council
b. Trusteeship Council
c. General Assembly
d. World Bank
Ans : c
26. Postal Voting is other wise called:
a. external voting
b. secret voting
c. plural voting
d. proxy voting
Ans : d
27. The Common Wealth of Independent states (CIS) consists of….republica?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
Ans : c
28. Which of the following harbours is considered as the world’s finest natural harbour?
a. Sydney harbour
b. Toronto harbour
c. New Jersy harbour
d. Singapore harbour
Ans : a
29. Who invented Radar?
a. Henrey Backquerel
b. Max Planck
c. Robert Watson Watt
d. Humphrey Davy
Ans : c
30. Sandal Wood trees are mostly found in…
a. Trophical Evergreen Forests
b. Tropical most Decidous
c. Alpine forests
d. Trophical Thorn Forests
Ans : d
31. The first country to legalise medically assisted suicide is
a. Switzerland
b. New Zealand
c. USA
d. Netherlands
Ans : d
32. The tomb of Babur is at
a. Kabul
b. Lahore
c. Multan
d. Larkhana
Ans : a
33. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
a. the speaker
b. the president
c. chairman of Rajyasabha
d. none of these
Ans : a
34. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
a. Greeks
b. Shakas
c. persians
d. Kushans
Ans : a
35. The Simon Commission was appointed in
a. 1927
b. 1928
c. 1929
d. 1930
Ans : c
36. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ?
a. 1972
b. 1973
c. 1974
d. 1975
Ans : d
37. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
a. Rajaraja Chola
b. Mahendra Varman
c. Narsimha Varman
d. Narsimha Chola
Ans : c
38. The 189th member of United Nations is
a. Palau
b. Tuvalu
c. Soloman Islands
d. Nauru
Ans : b
39. When was Burma separated from India
a. 1947
b. 1942
c. 1937
c. 1932
Ans : c
40. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
a. Poland
b. Denmark
c. Finland
d. Norway
Ans : c
41. OVL implies:
(1) Oil discovery organ of ONGC
(2) A new species of virus
(3) A term used in One Day Cricket
(4) A new banking company
Ans :
42. Which of the following involves chemical change?
(1) Rusting of iron
(2) Burning of wood -
(3) Reduction of wood
(4) All the three
Ans : d
43. Which of the following cave paintings is the oldest?
(1) Bhimbetka
(2) Ellora
(3) Ajanta
(4) Chittnnavasal
Ans : c
44. Leprosy has been eliminated from India, as:
(1) There was no cae of leprosy in 2005
(2) World Health Organization (WHO) has declared so
(3) The current rate of Incidence has been reduced by 1 out of 10,000
(4) All the patients have been identified for treatment
Ans : c
45. The major producer of cardamom in India is
(1) Kerala
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Karnataka
(4)Assam
Ans : a
46. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy?
(1) INS Virat
(2) INS Sindhurakshk
(3) INS Rajali
(4) INS Vikrãnt
Ans : b
47. Which of the following Indian classical dances derived its name from the name of place of its origin?
(1) Manipuri
(2) Kathkali
(3) Odissi
(4) Kuchipudi
Ans :
48. Who among the following has been created record in aviation history for the longest uninterrupted flight?
(1)JRDTata
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Vijay pat Singhania
(4) Steve Fosset
Ans : c
49. Which of the following countries is not a member of G — 8?
(1) Russia
(2) Britain
(3) Spain
(4) Canada
Ans : c
50. Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) Srlmao Bhandarnayake
(3) Margaret Thatcher
(4) Benzlr Bhutto
Ans : b
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Various Competitive Examinations
Staff Selection Commission conducts the following competitive examinations every year.
1) For candidates having qualification of only Matriculation, they are eligible to apply for the Combined Matric Level Examination. In the same examination, those who are having Stenography speed of 80 WPM can apply for Stenographer also. Combined Matric Level Examination for posts of LDCs and Stenographers is conducted in 3 stages. The preliminary examination is of objective type is conducted to shortlist candidates for next examination i.e. Main Examination and the candidates who qualify in the main examination are to appear in a typewriting test/stenographer test for final selection.
There are various examinations for graduates such as, Tax Assistant, Combined Graduate Level, Sub-Inspectors in CPOs, Section Officer(Audit). However, the graduates in Commerce, in addition to the above, can also apply for Section Officer(Commercial) examination. The graduates in Economics/Statistics/ Maths. can apply for Statistical Investigator also in addition to all the above examination except Section Officer(Commercial). The Engineering graduates are in addition to above, are eligible to appear the Junior Engineer exam. conducted by the Commission. For the candidates having degree in Hindi, are eligible apply for Junior Hindi Translators also.
The details of various examinations are as follows :
2) Combined Graduate Examination for posts of Inspector in Income Tax/Central Excise/Department of Post, Sub-Inspector in CBI, Assistant, Divisional Accountant, Auditor, Junior Accountant, UDC etc.
This examination is also conducted in 3 stages i.e. preliminary, Main and Interview for mostly group ‘B’ non-gazetted posts. However, for posts of Auditors, UDC, Jr. Accountants, no interview is conducted and candidates are selected on the basis of their performance in the main examination.
3) Sub-Inspector in CPO (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP,SSB) Examination – Only one written examination is conducted for this examination, followed by a physical, medical test and interview. There is some relaxation in height for the candidates belonging to North-Eastern Region.
4) Section Officer(Audit) & Section Officer(Commercial) Examination – These examinations also consist of only one written examination followed by a interview. The posts of Section Officers are mainly exists in Accountant General offices located all over the country.
5) Junior Engineers Examination – It consist of only one written examination followed by an interview for posts of Junior Engineers in CPWD.
6) Tax Assistant Examination – This examination is conducted for selection of candidates for posts of Tax Assistant in Central Excise/Income Tax department. It consist of a written paper followed by a skill test in computer typing.
7) Junior Hindi Translator Examination – One written test followed by an interview is the selection criteria for this post.
8) Selection Posts – In addition to the above, some specialized posts like Chemist, Computer typist, Research Assistant, Hindi Translator etc. in central government offices located in north eastern region are conducted by SSC(NER), Guwahati. For those posts, generally no written test is conducted. The short-listed candidates are selected on the basis of an interview only. For getting shortlisted for any selection post, the candidate should enclose all experience certificates/extra curricular certificates though the same are not asked for.
Advertisement of examinations :
All the advertisements of competitive examinations even an advertisement for a single post are published in the Employment News. However, there was a complaint about non-availability of Employment News in some areas. In order to facilitate the candidates of North Eastern Region, Short notices of the advertisements are sent for publication in all leading local newspapers and also sent to all the local stations of All India Radio/Doordarshan for broadcast. Now-a-days, applications forms of various competitive examinations can also be downloaded from the website of the Staff Selection Commission-(http//www.ssc.nic.in).
Contents of the competitive examinations :
A simple graduate candidate can easily qualify in any SSC examination if he/she has the thorough knowledge of his own subject and keeps an eye on current affairs etc. Model questions of SSC examinations in the form of guide books are also available in the market. Also knowledge of present day happenings in the country as well as the world as available in the Newspapers are a must for cracking the examination.
How to apply :
Before filling up any application form of any examination, candidates should read the instructions given in the advertisement to avoid rejection of their application form. Since the data of all the candidates are entered and monitored in Computers, data once entered against a candidate, cannot be rectified or changed later on. Application Form can be typed/hand written but it should be same as published, signature should be put in all places wherever prescribed.
Evaluation of Answer Sheets :
Objective type questions that are required to be answered by tick marks/darkening are evaluated by Computer (Optical Mark Reader).Candidate should be careful in handling the OMR Answer Sheet. Making dirty the OMR sheet and any kind of fold may lead to non-evaluation of his answer sheet. Recently, a candidate who was selected for the post of Sub-Inspector in CISF against female quota was found to be male candidate later on. The candidate wrote the code no. 2 which means female instead of code no.1.Descriptive type questions are evaluated manually.
Interview :
Interview of SSC are conducted in a candidates’ friendly atmosphere. To get through any interview, the candidate need not put any costly dress but should appear clean, smart and should be familiar about his own subject, native place, state of domicile, places of historical interest of the state etc. However, the interview board members are highly experienced/eminent personalities, confession in case of any doubtful/unconfirmed information will be appreciated by them instead of trying to mislead them.
Reservations of vacancies :
There are reservations of vacancies for SC/ST/OBC etc.as per government’s orders however; there is no reservation for any particular state. Vacancies are open to all and are filled up as per the merit of the candidates drawn on all India basis.
Common errors in submission of the application forms :-
During scrutiny of application forms, the following common errors are found committed by the candidates leading to cancellation of their candidature :-
a) Non pasting of photographs in proper place.
b) Not signing below the photograph and also in the declaration at the end.
c) Signing in capital letters instead of running hand.
d) Non affixing of CRFS.
e) Non cancellation of CRFS.
f) Non submission of requisite documents in support of Date of Birth, Caste/Tribe Certificate and Educational Qualification.
g) Non submission of application form before closing date.
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