SSC Data Entry Operator & LDC Exam

GENERAL AWARENESS

(Exam Held on:  27-11-2010)

1. The unit of ionic product of water (Kw) is:
(a) Mol2 let-1
(b) Mol2 let-2
(c) Mol-1 let-2
(d) Mol-1 let-1

2. What is the name of the Fort build by the English in Calcutta?
(a) Fort St. David
(b) Fort St. Andrew
(c) Fort William
(d) Fort Victoria

3. National Income include:
(a) Financial help to earthquake victims
(b) Pocket money of a child
(c) Winning of a lottery prize
(d) Construction of a new house

4. There is a need to keep larger area under forests for:
(a) absorption of carbon dioxide
(b) protecting wildlife
(c) raising precipitation
(d) geological balance

5. The Shipra path Police Station that has been adjudged the best in the word is in:
(a) New Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Mumbai

6. Who amongst the following was the Last Guru of the Sikhs?
(a) Guru Arjun Dev’
(b) Guru Teg Bahadur
(c) Guru Gobind Singh
(d) Guru Angad Dav

7. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after,
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

8. The situation on which total Revenues equals total cost, is known as:
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Equilibrium level of output
(c) Break even point
(d) Perfect competition

9. When two cubes of ice are pressed on each other, what is the cause of their being one ?
(a) Van Der Waals Force
(b) Dipole moment
(c) Hydrogen bond formation
(d) Covalent attraction

10. When milk is churned, the cream separates from it due to:
(a) Frictional force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Viscous forces

11. Moving electric charge produces:
(a) magnetic field
(b) sound waves
(c) light rays
(d) heat waves

12. The crop which occupies maximum cultivated area in India is:
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Gram
(d) Linseed

13. The S.I. unit of electric charge is:
(a) ampere
(b) coulomb
(c) e.s.u
(d) Kelvin

14. Demand curve of a firm under perfect competition is:
(a) horizontal to ox-axis
(b) negatively sloped
(c) positively sloped
(d) U-shaped

15. Who was the Chola king who brought Ganga from North to South?
(a) Raja Raja Chola
(b) Mahendra
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Parantaka

16. The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued in the event of:
(a) Loss of Property
(b) Refund of Excess Taxes
(c) Wrongful Police detention
(d) Violation of the freedom of speech

17. Light beam which is highly directional is called:
(a) eraser
(b) grazer
(c) maser
(d) laser

18. The most abundant constituent of atmospheric are is:
(a) carbon
(b) hydrogen
(c) oxygen
(d) nitrogen

19. Which is the administrative capital of Malayasia?
(a) Putrajaya
(b) Seremban
(c) Taiping
(d) Ipoh

20. Fiber diet in includes:
(a) glycogen
(b) proteins
(c) cellulose
(d) fats

21. Tuberculosis infection is by means of:
(a) Mycobacterium avonin
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(d) Streptococcus

22. How many ago-climatic zones are there in India as far as the official categorization of the Ministry of Agriculture is concerned?
(a) 123
(b) 126
(c) 127
(d) 122

23. The word’s wettest continent is:
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) South America

24. Dumping of solid waste in lowlying areas earth cover is called as:
(a) Sanitary landfilling
(b) Open dumping
(c) Compositing
(d) Incineration

25. Permissible noise level at Residential area during night time is:
(a) 45 dB (A)
(b) 55 dB (A)
(c) 75 dB (A)
(d) 80 dB (A)

26. The author of the Book Title ‘The Future of India’, is:
(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) Depak Chopra
(c) Amitav Ghosh
(d) N.K. Singh

27. The expenditure made on which of the following does not require budgetary approval enery year in India?
(a) Defence
(b) Natural calamities
(c) Consolidated fund
(d) Contingency fund

28. The Baisakhi Festival of the year 1999 is of great historical significance to Punjab because
(a) it commemorates the tercentenary of the foundation of Khalsa Panth
(b) it being the last such festival of the twentieth century
(c) of participation by a large number of Punjabis who are non resident Indians
(d) None of the above

29. The abnormal constituent of urine is
(a) urea
(b) creatinine
(c) albumin
(d) sodium

30. Value of out put and value added can be distinguished if we know:
(a) the value of intermediate consumption
(b) the value of net indirect taxes
(c) the value of the sales
(d) the value of consumption of fixed capital

31. The disease that is caused by virus is:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Malaria

32. The 3rd Commonwealth Youth Games were held at:
(a) Pune
(b) Karachi
(c) Dhaka
(d) London

33. The team ‘PC-XT’ refers to—.
(a) Personal Computer External Technology
(b) Personal Computer Extended Technology
(c) Personal Computer Expanded Technology
(d) Personal Computer Embedded Technology

34. Transfer payments include:
(a) Gifts received from a friend
(b) rent free accommodation by the employer
(c) net factor income from abroad
(d) employee’s contribution to social security

35. The marginal revenue of a monopolist is:
(a) more than price
(b) equal to price
(c) less than price
(d) less than marginal cost

36. The most important element of weather affecting agriculture in India is:
(a) Pemperive
(b) Humidity
(c) Wind
(d) Rainfall

37. What was Chandraputa II also known as?
(a) Samudra Gupta
(b) Skanda Gupta
(c) Vikramaditya
(d) Ranaa Gupta

38. October 2nd of every year has been declared by UNO as:
(a) International Non-violence day
(b) International heritage day
(c) International Moral Values day
(d) International anti-terrorism day

39. In plants water is absorbed by the root hairs by a process called:
(a) Transpiration
(b) Respiration
(c) Perspiration
(d) Osmosis

40. The element which is required by the plant in large quantity:
(a) Calcium
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Sulphur

41. Which of the following gods are worshipped in the sanctum of Badrinath and Kedarnath temples respectively?
(a) Visnu and Shiva
(b) Shiva and Vishnu
(c) Shiva and Parvati
(d) Vishnu and Brahma

42. Which one of the following ocean currents does not occur in Atlantic Ocean?
(a) Gulf stream
(b) Brazil current
(c) Peru current
(d) Canary current

43. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

44. Energy in reflected light:
(a) does not depends on the angle of incidence
(b) increases with the increase in angle
(c) decreases with the increase in angle of incidence
(d) becomes maximum for angle of incidence equal to 45o

45. Which gas is used for converting vegetable oils into saturated fats?
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2

46. Which one of the following gives energy to our body?
(a) Vitamins
(b) Water
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Proteins

47. Which of the following pairs has open type of circulatory system?
(a) Earthworm and Leech
(b) Man and Whale
(c) Cockroach and Silverfish
(d) Tadpole larva and Fish

48. Chemical name of bleaching powder is:
(a) Calcium chlorate
(b) Calcium hypochlorite
(c) Calcium chloro hypochlorite
(d) Calcium bi chloride

49. When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizen incorporated in the constitution?
(a) 1952
(b) 1976
(c) 1979
(d) 1981

50. Alcoholic (–OH) group can be identified by:
(a) Tollen’s Reagent Test
(b) Esterfication Test
(c) FeCl3 Test
(d) Ozonolysis Reaction

ANSWERS:

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (d) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (c)

SSC Data Entry Operator Exam Solved Paper 2010

1.One of the output devices your computer uses is the
(A) mouse
(B) keyboard
(C) monitor
(D) cord

2.All of these are examples of good posture EXCEPT:
(A) back straight
(B) eyes on monitor
(C) feet on the floor
(D) elbows on the table

3.When you store your work so you can come back to it later, you:
(A) click it
(B) save it
(C) type it
(D) print it

4.An example of an input device is:
(A) a speaker
(B) a mouse
(C) a monitor
(D) a printer

5.The computer screen is also called the:
(A) viewer
(B) TV
(C) monitor
(D) video output device

6. To close a program, you would:
(A) shut down the compute
(B) click the _ in the top right hand corner
(C) click the middle box in the top right hand corner
(D) click the X in the top right hand corner

7. What does it mean to have a clean desktop?
(A) there are no programs open on the desktop
(B) there are no bits of paper on the floor
(C) everything is turned off
(D) you have thoroughly dusted your area

8.The main chip in the computer is the:
(A) ROM
(B) CPU
(C) NET
(D) RAM

9. AM stands for:
(A) Really Accessible Memory
(B) Real Access Memory
(C) Random Available Mode
(D) Random Access Memory

10. The instructions that tell the computer what to do and how to do it.
(A) hardware
(B) software
(C) processor
(D) data flow

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from th e Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterf all, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well plan ned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Ba ttle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

ANSWERS:

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)

SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Data Entry Operator exam Paper

Arithmetic (Numerical Aptitude)

Directions-(Q. 1-5) What should come in
place of the questi0n—mark (?) in the following
questions ?

1. [(58)² x (48)²] ÷ ? = 2152-96

(A) 60 (B) 2500
(C) 50 (D) 3600
(E) None of those

Answer.D

2. 7432 ÷ 92-9 x 18-5 = ?

(A) 1450 (B) 1600
(C) 1480 (D) 1560
(E) None of these

Answer.C

3. 99 x 21 – ³?? = 1968

(A) 1367631
(B) 111
(C) 1366731
(D) 1367
(E) None of these

Answer.E

4. 9634 x 3/8 ÷ ? = 28-902

(A) 115 (B) 95
(C) 110 (D) 120
(E) None of these

Answer.A

5. 19-99 x 9-9 + 99-9 = ?

(A) 129-79 (B) 297-801
(C) 1009 . (D) 296-91
(E) None of these

Answer.B

Directions—(Q. 6-10) What should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?

6. 354, 180, 64, 21, 10.2, ?

(A) 5.6 (B) 8.7
(C) 3.8 (D) 1.7
(E) None of these

Answer.B

7. 4.5, 18, 2.25, ?, 1.6875, 33.75

(A) 27 (B) 25.5 .
(C) 36 (D) 40. l
(E) None of these

Answer.A

8. 59.76, 58.66, 56.46, 52.06, 7, 25.66

(A) 48.08 (B) 46.53
(C) 43.46 (D) 43.26
(E) None of these

Answer.D

9. 36, 157, 301, 470, ?, 891 -

(A) 646 (B) 695 `
(C) 639 (D) 669
(E) None of these

Answer.E

10. 14, 70, 350, ?, 8750, 43750

(A) 1570 (B) 875
(C) 1750 _ (D) 785
(E) None of these

Answer.C

ll. The ratio of the number of students studying
in Schools A, B and C is 6 : 8 : 7 respectively.
If the number of students studying in each of
the schools is increased by 20%, 15% and
20% respectively, what will be the new ratio
of the number of students in Schools A, B and C.

(A) 18 : 23 : 21
(B) 12: 18 : 17
(C) 18 :21 : l7
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.A

2. On a test consisting of 75 questions carrying
one mark each Samir answered 75% of the
first 40 questions correctly. What approxi-
mate per cent of the other 35 questions does
he need to answer correctly to score 80% on
the entire test

(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 86 (D) 60
(E) 58

Answer.C

3. Out of these numbers the sum of the first and
the second number is 73 and the sum of
second and the third number is 77. The sum
of the third and thrice the first number is 104.
What is the third number

(A) 25
(B) 39
(C) 48
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these _

Answer.E

14. 50 people consume 350 kgs. of rice in 30
days. In how many days will 35 people
consume 50 kgs. of rice

(A) 2 days (B) 3 days
(C) 5 days (D) 7 days
(E) None of these

Answer.E

15. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the
total number of animal heads are 81 and total
number of animal legs are 234, how many
goats does’ Krishna have ?

(A) 45
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.C

Directions—(Q. 16-20) Study the following
data carefully and answer the questions given
below-

A survey conducted on 1800 villages shows
_ that 25% of the total villages have only adequate
water supply. 15% of the total number of villages
have proper supply of electricity only. 7% of the
total number of villages have only proper
education facilities. 12% of the total number of
villages have telecommunication services only.
16% of the total number of villages have proper
health care services only. 6% of the total number
of villages have adequate water as well as supply
of electricity. 8% of the total number of villages
have adequate supply of water, supply of elec-
tricity as well as health care services. 5% of the
total number of villages have proper supply of
electricity, telecommunication services as well as
health care services and 6% of the total number of
villages have all the facilities.

16, How many villages in all have adequate water
supply ?

(A) 702
(B) 450
(C) 594
(D) 810
(E) None of these

Answer.D

17. How many villages in all have adequate
supply of water as well as electricity ?

(A) 360 (B) 108
(C) 720 (D) 972
(E) None of these

Answer.A

18. How many villages in all do not have proper
supply of electricity ?

(A) 720 (B) 850
(C) 920 (D) 1080
(E) None of these

Answer.D

19. How many villages have only proper
education facilities ? _

(A) 108 (B) 126
(C) 234 (D) 216
(E) None of these

Answer.B

20. How many villages have all the facilities ?

(A) 90 (B) 126
(C) 144 (D) 106
(E) None of these

Answer.E

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the following
table carefully and answer the questions given _;
below. l
Quantity of Rice produced by
various states over the years
(Quantity in Tonnes)

Years
States 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
A 1500 1480 1620 1700 1540 1650
B 1250 1190 1400 1450 1320 1380
C 1160 1190 1310 1300 1340 1360
D 1520 1500 1480 1590 1630 1580
E 1440 1350 1430 1280 1380 1400
F 1600 1620 1510 1610 1580 1590

21. In which state has the production of rice
increased over the years continuant

(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
(E) None of these

Answer.E

22. In which year was the production of rice the
highest in all the states together

(A) 2007 (B) 2002
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
(E) None of these

Answer.A

23. Which state produced the lowest quantity of
rice over the years ?

(A) E (B) D
(C) C (D) A
(E) None of these

Answer.C

24. What is the respective ratio of the average
quantity of rice produced by State D to the
average quantity of rice produced by State F
over the years ?

(A) 69 : 79 (B) 310:317
(C) 138: 155 (D) 276: 317
(E) None of these

Answer.B

25. Rice produced by State C in the year 2005 is
approximately what per cent of the rice
produced by State A in the same year ‘?

(A) 82 (B) 72
(C) 88 (D) 76
(E) 69

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of Literates in various cities over the years

M-Males, F-Females
Years 2001 2002 2004

Cities M F M F M F M F M F
U 15000 25000 18550 20000 18590 25000 25000 25500 28000 28800
V 12500 9200 14680 10520 16000 11000 16850 13680 16920 14360
W 18660 17380 18950 18000 18980 19000 19500 19250 19580 19600
X 14200 14350 14820 14500 15250 15000 15390 15250 16000 16200
Y 9700 8320 9990 8540 9870 8820 10200 10000 10520 10300

31. What is the total number of male literates in
City W over the years

(A) 97650 (B) 95670
(C) 99280 (D) 96570
(E) None of these

Answer.B

32. What is the total number of literates across
the cities in the year 2005

(A) 180280 (B) 182000
(C) 18805.0 (D) 180500
(E) None of these

Answer.A

33. What is the difference between the total
number of female literates across the cities in
the year 2002 and the year 2004 ?

(A) 11850 (B) 12000
(C) 11500 (D) 12800
(E) None of these

Answer.E

34. What is the respective ratio of literates of City
X in the year 2001 to the literates of the same
city in the year 2003 ‘?

(A) 581 : 624
(B) 64 : 75
(C) 571 : 605
(D) 84: 131
(E) None of these

Answer.C

35. What is the average number of female
literates across the cities in the year 2005 ?

(A) 18725 (B) 15872 •
(C) 17582 (D) 17852
(E) None of these

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following
Pie—Graph carefully and answer the questions
given below.

A survey conducted on 5800
villages staying in various villages and having
various favourite fruits

Favourite Fruits
Guava 14%
Apple 12%
Grapes 11%
Mango 28%
Banana 20%
Custard apple 15%

People staying in various villages

A 22%
B 21%
C 32%
D 25%

36. Mango is the favorite fruit of 50% of the
people from Village C. People having their
favourite fruit as mango from Villages C form
approximately what per cent of the people
having their favourite fruit as mango from all
the villages together ?

(A) 48 (B) 53
(C) 61 (D) 57
(E) 45

Answer.D

37. 20% of the people from Village D have
banana is their favourite fruit and 12% of the
people from the same village have guava as
their favourite fruit. How many people from
that village like other fruits

(A) 764 B ) 896
(C) 874 (D) 96%
(E) None of these

Answer.E

38. How many people in all have custard apple as
their favourite fruit

(A) 850 (B) 864
(C) 870 (D) 812
(E) None of these

Answer.C

39. 50% of the people from Village B have
banana as their favourite fruit. How many A
people from other villages have the same
favourite fruit

(A) 1160 (B) 551
(C) 1020 (D) 609
(E) None of these

Answer.B

40. What is the total number of people having
their favourite fruit as apple and grapes to-
gether

(A) 1334 (B) 1286
(C) 1300 (D) 1420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

41. In how many different ways can the letters
of the word ‘GAMBLE’ be arranged

(A) 720 (B) 840
(C) 360 (D) 420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

42. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
200% and the denominator of the fraction is
increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is $6
What is the original fraction

(A) 5/12 (B) 4/7840
(C) 3/4 (D) 7/11
(E) None of these

Answer.C

43. Pratibha covers a distance of 24 kms at the
speed of 8 kms/hr, and a distance of 18 kms at
the speed of 9 kms/hr. Further she covers a
distance of 12 kms at the speed of 3 kms/hr.
What is her average speed in covering the
whole distance

(A) 8 kms/hr. (B) 5.5 kms/hr.
(C) 3 kms/hr. (D) 6kms/hr.
(E) None of these

Answer.D

44. The mean of the marks obtained by 100 E
students is 60. If the marks obtained by one of `
the students was incorrectiy caiemated as 75,
whereas the actual marks obtained by him
were 65, what is the correct mean of the
marks obtained by the students

(A) 59
(B) 58-50
(C) 50
(D) Cannot be determined ‘
(E) None of these

Answer.E

45. The difference between a two•digit number
and the number obtained by interchanging the
two digits of the numbers is 36. What is the
difference between the two digits of the
number

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.B

Directions•(Q
What approximate
value should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).

46. 388 + 0.8 + 0.7 = ?

(A) 681 (B) 654
(C) 693 (D) 670
(E) 700

Answer.C

47. ?729 x ?338= ?

(A) 470 (B) 482
(C) 521 (D) 530
(E) 496

Answer.E

48. 1875 ÷ 35 x 3242 ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 3525 (B) 3618
(C) 3641 (D) 3591
(E) 3636

Answer.B

49.³?41132 =?

(A) 35 (B) 42
(C) 22 (D) 29
(E) 45

Answer.A

50. 15.28 x 12.36+ 41.17 x 21 – 34 = ?

(A) 1125 (B) 1098
(C) 1132 (D) 1032
(E) 1067

Answer.E

SSC Data Entry Operator Solved Paper

Computer General Knowledge

Q-1 The bank use……………. Device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner

Q-2 ………………can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC

Q-3 Under which case will intranet be aneffective networking tool/s?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralisad organization

Q-4 When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred

Q-5 A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these

Q-6 Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression

Q-7 A program coded in programming language is____________ .
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these

Q-8 “Platform” in computer world means___________ .
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Q-9 Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Lris\ Retinal scan
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning

Q-10 what is incorrect about software?
(a) It can mamipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched

Q-11 Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost

Q-12 which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatiyely send and receive data ?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing

Q-13 What is NOT a fature of networking ?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking

Q-14 Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these

Q-15 A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q-16 Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these

Q-17 A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device

Q-18 Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above

Q-19 An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these

Q-20 A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of a Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Cann’t say

Q-21 To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above

Q-22 Which can not assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these

Q-23 Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies

Q-24 Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these

Q-25 Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these

Answer
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)