SSC SECTION OFFICER (COMMERCIAL AUDIT) 2009 solved paper

PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
(c) Justin (d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite (b) Copper
(c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US (b) Norway
(c) India (d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change (b) Force
(c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision (b) Management
(c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
(c) Astra (d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France. (b) China.
(c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
(c) isomers (d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
(c) ship. (d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
Part II : AIRTHMETIC
76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
(c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135 (b) 90
(c) 60 (d) 140
83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200 (b) 961
(c) 744 (d) 612
86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years (b) 40 years
(c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
(a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 15
89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600 (b) 3600
(c) 6400 (d) 14400
90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215 (b) 220
(c) 225 (d) 235
91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
(a) 23 (b) 4 25
(c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
92. is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 2
93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
(a) 400 (b) 480
(c) 500 (d) 580
95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
(a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
(a) 25 (b) 13313
(c) 3313(d) 30
98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
(a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
(c) 1523(d) 151 3
99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
(a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
(a) 5320 (b) 4200
(c) 3150 (d) 2660
102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
(a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
(c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
(a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
(c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
(c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its corresponding base will have to be decreased by
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
(c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
(a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
(c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually take to run the same distance is
(a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
(c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500 m, A will beat C by
(a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
(c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
(a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
(c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs. 28. If the interest were compounded half yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
(a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
(c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 16
112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5 books. The selling price of 1 book is
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price of the mixed tea is
(a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
(c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of these numbers is 44, the largest number is
(a) 24 (b) 36
(c) 72 (d) 108
115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 50
116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
FINANCES IF XYX RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
(c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in 2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 6186 (b) 5876
(c) 6444 (d) 7667
119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
(a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
(c) 20.7 (d) 17
120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
(a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
(c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
(a) 76 (b) 94
(c) 184 (d) 364
122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
(a) 34 (b) 43
(c) 35 (d) 53
123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
(a) 911 (b) 1011
(c) 1211 (d) 109 110
125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
(a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
PART III : ENGLISH
Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in Answer-sheet.
126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue
129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial (b) under pressure
(c) in danger (d) challenged
130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
(c) in danger (d) challenged
Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
(c) Session (d) Somnambulist
132.
(a) Façade (b) Inept
(c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
133.
(a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
134.
(a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
135.
(a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR (d) SRQP
137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) QPRS (d) RSQP
138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP
(c) QRSP (d) QPSR
140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy (b) covey
(c) Troupe (d) Coterie
145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal (b) Deadly
(c) Serious (d) Dangerous
146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem (d) Soprano
147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology (b) Embryology
(c) Entomology (d) Biology
148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell (b) Spell
(c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.
Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone (b) delay
(c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the man."
(a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
(c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(d) No improvement.
161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
(c) have they? (d) No improvement.
162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against (b) with
(c) in (d) No improvement.
163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed (b) pricked
(c) pierced (d) No improvement.
164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate (b) correlate
(c) command (d) No improvement.
165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
166.
(a) rejection (b) growth
(c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
167.
(a) where (b) hence
(c) what (d) since
168.
(a) armies (b) agencies
(c) enemies (d) technologies
169.
(a) relations (b) prospects
(c) applications (d) agreements
170.
(a) absorption (b) development
(c) delineation (d) filtration
171.
(a) large (b) wide
(c) across (d) close
172.
(a) eluding (b) facing
(c) confounding (d) comprising
173.
(a) order (b) priority
(c) quality (d) gravity
174.
(a) in (b) on
(c) for (d) of
175.
(a) choices (b) costs
(c) feelings (d) possibilities
Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.
177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.
180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.
Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).
4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. (c)/ No error (d).
6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).
9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent
192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven
193. Slither
(a) Slide (b) Move
(c) Shake (d) Slip
194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading
195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise
Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary
197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible
198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked
199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure
200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
200. (b)

SSC Section Officers (Commercial Audit) Exam., 2009

SSC Section Officers (Commercial Audit) Exam., 2009 

English Solved paper

(Held On 14–6–2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by choosing the appropriate alternative.
1. That which would burn easily.
(A) Incendiary
(B) Incantatory
(C) Inflammable
(D) Incandescent
Ans : (C)
2. Place of gathering for public discussion.
(A) Platform
(B) Dias
(C) Stage
(D) Forum
Ans : (D)
3. An addition to the end of a letter.
(A) Post script
(B) Prelude
(C) Post natal
(D) Post mortem
Ans : (A)
4. Young cow that has not yet had a calf.
(A) Cowlet
(B) Colt
(C) Ewe
(D) Heifer
Ans : (D)
5. A mournful song (or poem) for the dead.
(A) Ballad
(B) Dirge
(C) Ode
(D) Lyric
Ans : (B)
6. The dead skin cast off by a snake.
(A) Bough
(B) Slough
(C) Peeling
(D) Borough
Ans : (B)
7. Science dealing with bird life.
(A) Zymology
(B) Ornithology
(C) Etymology
(D) Philology
Ans : (B)
8. One who is from 60 to 69 years old.
(A) Sexton
(B) Sexologist
(C) Sexagenarian
(D) Sextuplet
Ans : (C)
9. Someone who keeps bees.
(A) Apiarist
(B) Horticulturist
(C) Ornithologist
(D) Pathologist
Ans : (A)
10. Speaking one’s thoughts aloud to oneself.
(A) Apostrophise
(B) Memorise
(C) Soliloquize
(D) Solemnise
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and indicate your correct response.
11. (A) Unaccompanied
(B) Unaccustomed
(C) Unadopted
(D) Unaloyed
Ans : (D)
12. (A) Boutique
(B) Physique
(C) Opaque
(D) Obleeque
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Admitting
(B) Budgetting
(C) Preferring
(D) Travelling
Ans : (B)
14. (A) Torpedoes
(B) Mosquitoes
(C) Pianoes
(D) Tomatoes
Ans : (C)
15. (A) Malignity
(B) Malodorus
(C) Malfeasance
(D) Malevolent
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct alternative.
16. When the boy was put into a boarding school, he quickly fell into line without his usual tantrums and indisciplined behaviour.
(A) stood in a line
(B) turned straight
(C) failed to behave properly
(D) became orderly
Ans : (D)
17. By his virtuous life, he has made amends for his past actions.
(A) repented for
(B) compensated for
(C) forgotten about
(D) suffered for
Ans : (A)
18. He read for the bar.
(A) studied to become a barrister
(B) studied to become a barman
(C) studied to become a judge
(D) studied to become a courtier
Ans : (A)
19. In the field of social service, the Parsis bear the palm.
(A) are the leaders
(B) are the donors
(C) are pre-eminent
(D) are reformers
Ans : (C)
20. He is always trying to curry favour with his boss and does not even maintain his selfrespect.
(A) get obligation from
(B) pick up quarrel with
(C) flatter
(D) take undue advantage from
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21–30) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and indicate your correct response.
21. How are you going to have your car painted?
I am going to have it red painted.
(A) paint it red
(B) have it painted red
(C) paint red
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
22. He is one who gives money or helps others who has been instrumental in the upliftment of many poverty stricken people.
(A) a philosopher
(B) a philatelist
(C) a philanthropist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
23. The job wasn’t interesting, but on the contrary it was wellpaid.
(A) on the whole
(B) on the other side
(C) on the other hand
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
24. When those whom he had injured accused him of being a charlatan, he retorted curtly that he had never been a quack.
(A) libertine
(B) sycophant
(C) plagiarist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)
25. The postman comes twice a day, don’t he ?
(A) doesn’t he
(B) does he
(C) do he
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
26. My boy-friend won me at tennis.
(A) succeeded me
(B) outran me
(C) beat me
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
27. It was mere affection that stopped him from beating his son.
(A) great
(B) much
(C) filial
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
28. The British superiority all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.
(A) domicile
(B) residence
(C) dominion
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
29. Did you finish the work yet ?
(A) Had you finished
(B) Haven’t you finished
(C) Would you finish
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
30. I’ll tell you as soon as I’ll know.
(A) I would know
(B) I can know
(C) I know
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and indicate your correct alterntive.
31. This train carries goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(A) This train is carried by goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(B) The goods carry this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(C) Goods are carried by this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(D) The train carried the goods from Delhi to Bombay.
Ans : (C)
32. The news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections surprised him.
(A) He was surprised by the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(B) He was surprised with the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(C) He was surprised as a result of the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(D) He was surprised at the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
Ans : (D)
33. Finish the work in time.
(A) Let the work be finished in time.
(B) Let the work be finished in time by us.
(C) Let the work be finished by him in time.
(D) Let me finish the work in time.
Ans : (A)
34. God helps those who help themselves.
(A) Those who help themselves must be helped by God.
(B) Those who help themselves are helped by God.
(C) Let those who help themselves are helped by God.
(D) Let those who help themselves be helped by God.
Ans : (B)
35. Can you recite this poem ?
(A) This poem can be recited by you.
(B) You are requested to recite this poem.
(C) Would this poem be recited by you ?
(D) Can this poem be recited by you ?
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions first and the last parts of the sentence passage are following questions, numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/ passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/ passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and indicate your correct alternative.
36. 1. For thousands of millions of years the Moon has been going round the Earth.
P. However, some of them will still be going round the Earth thousands of years from now.
Q. These artificial satellites are very much smaller than the Moon.
R. Today, however, the Earth has many other satellites, all made by man.
S. During this time, the Moon has been the only satellite of the Earth.
6. Artificial satellites do not fall because they are going too fast to do so.
(A) P R S Q
(B) Q S R P
(C) S R P Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (D)
37. 1. Sir Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay were the first to reach the peak of Mount Everest in 1953.
P. While a Nepalese and a Japanese climber have done it three times, the Italian climber Reinhold Messner
has done it twice.
Q. Some 164 men and women mountaineers from 21 nations have made the ascent.
R. The mountain still continues to enthral.
S. Since then, there has been a succession of climbs.
6. Those wanting to climb Everest must file an application, with the Nepal Tourism Ministry.
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) S Q P R
(D) S P R Q
Ans : (C)
38. 1. There is a lot of luck in drilling for oil.
P. The samples of soil are examined for traces of oil.
Q. The drill may just miss the oil although it is near.
R. Sometimes, it may strike oil at a fairly high level.
S. When the drill goes down it brings up soil.
6. If they are disappointed at one place, the drillers go to another.
(A) Q P R S
(B) Q R S P
(C) P S R Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (C)
39. 1. India is a very old country with a great past.
P. Since August 1947, she had been in a position to pursue her own foreign policy.
Q. But it is a new country also, with new urges and new desires.
R. But even so, she could not forget the lesson of her great leader.
S. She was limited by the realities of the situation which she could not ignore or overcome.
6. She tried to adapt theory to reality.
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P S R
(C) S R P Q
(D) R S P Q
Ans : (B)
40. 1. Of all the living creatures on the earth, insects are the most plentiful.
P. In some countries, they are farmers greatest enemy.
Q. Locusts are perhaps the most dangerous of all, for they will eat almost any green plant and leave cultivated lands bare.
R. Some varieties are very useful to man, like bees from which we get honey and wax, and silkworms which supply us with silk.
S. Other varieties, however, are extremely harmful and do a great amount of damage, especially to crops.
6. Common flies, cockroaches, termites, mosquitoes and lice are some other insects harmful to man.
(A) P S R Q
(B) S R P Q
(C) R S Q P
(D) Q S R P
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to the letter (D).
41. Honesty always has and (A) / will always be (B) / a great virtue. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
42. It was irony (A) / that while he was trying to help his neighbours (B) / his own house was burnt to the ground. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
43. If we can work (A) / slow and steady (B) / we can finish by noon. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
44. Besides his children (A) / there were present (B) / his nephews and nieces. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
45. How do you manage to speak (A) / to her with (B) / so great patience. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
46. He not only cheated (A) / his friends, (B) / but also his parents. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
47. By this time next year (A) / Ramesh will take (B) / his university degree. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
48. I slept (A) / rather late (B) / last night. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
49. If I saved some money every month (A) / I would be able to buy a vehicle of my choice (B) / in no time. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
50. When I read his book (A) / I implied from it (B) / that he never understood women. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–55) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
51. IMPAIR
(A) Weaken
(B) Couple
(C) Double
(D) Repair
Ans : (A)
52. MOROSE
(A) Genial
(B) Gentle
(C) Gloomy
(D) Idle
Ans : (C)
53. INUNDATION
(A) Drought
(B) Imposition
(C) Flood
(D) Snowfall
Ans : (C)
54. PRISTINE
(A) Novel
(B) Strange
(C) Contemporary
(D) Original
Ans : (D)
55. EFFIGY
(A) Proxy
(B) Duplicate
(C) Dummy
(D) Replica
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one OPPOSITE in meaning to the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
56. AMELIORATE
(A) Decay
(B) Decline
(C) Worsen
(D) Destroy
Ans : (C)
57. VINDICTIVE
(A) Careless
(B) Forgiving
(C) Heedless
(D) Refined
Ans : (B)
58. CAMARADERIE
(A) Curiosity
(B) Ferocity
(C) Impetuosity
(D) Animosity
Ans : (D)
59. DEVOUR
(A) Vomit
(B) Reject
(C) Emit
(D) Eject
Ans : (A)
60. FALLIBLE
(A) Virtuous
(B) Honest
(C) Perfect
(D) Humble
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) In these questions, in the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 61 to 70. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct alternative.
The inevitable effect of mechanical production is uniformity, and although uniformity may lead to monotony, it need not lack beauty. In fact, modern improvement in popular …(61)… is mainly the result of better design …(62)… standardised, goods; and the average …(63)… is buying better design goods, because those goods are …(64)…, because the problem of taste has been …(65)… for him. Good taste is not always …(66)… and most people manage to get …(67)… without it. It is fortunate therefore, that so many of the …(68)… of life are now chosen for us by …(69)…. Even among luxuries, the margin for …(70)… taste is constantly being reduced.
61. (A) craft
(B) technology
(C) ideas
(D) taste
Ans : (D)
62. (A) on
(B) of
(C) in
(D) for
Ans : (B)
63. (A) shopper
(B) client
(C) man
(D) businessman
Ans : (A)
64. (A) gaudy
(B) accessible
(C) reliable
(D) durable
Ans : (A)
65. (A) tackled
(B) simplified
(C) resolved
(D) solved
Ans : (C)
66. (A) genuine
(B) laboured
(C) impulsive
(D) inborn
Ans : (D)
67. (A) ahead
(B) along
(C) through
(D) around
Ans : (C)
68. (A) amenities
(B) comforts
(C) luxuries
(D) necessities
Ans : (A)
69. (A) connoisseurs
(B) artists
(C) experts
(D) scientists
Ans : (A)
70. (A) local
(B) particular
(C) impersonal
(D) personal
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
Comprehension Passage
No one can seriously pretend to remain unaffected by advertisements. it is impossible to turn a blind eye to the solicitous overtures to buy this or that article that fill our streets, newspapers and magazines. Even in the sanctity of our living rooms, advertisers are waiting to pounce on their helpless victims as they tune into their favourite radio or television programmes. In time, no matter how hard we resist, clever little tunes and
catch-phrases seep into our subconscious minds and stay there. Though they seem so varied, all these advertisements have one thing in common; they make strong appeals to our emotions.
71. The word ‘sanctity’ means—
(A) sacredness
(B) privacy
(C) privilege
(D) security
Ans : (B)
72. Which one of the following lines best expresses the meaning of the first sentence in the passage ?
(A) All men are influenced by advertisements
(B) Most men are influenced by advertisements
(C) Some men are not influenced by advertisements
(D) Advertisements cannot influence everybody
Ans : (A)
73. To turn a blind eye — its opposite meaning is to—
(A) perceive
(B) view
(C) visualise
(D) sight
Ans : (A)
74. The ‘helpless victims’ are the—
(A) public
(B) spectators
(C) audience
(D) sellers
Ans : (A)
75. Advertisements are successful when we respond to them—
(A) Intellectually
(B) Blindly
(C) Helplessly
(D) Emotionally
Ans : (D)

SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Solved Paper

                                               General Awareness

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the 'Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E. H. Chamberlin
(b) P. A. Samuelson
(c) J. Robinson
(d) A. Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane
(b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of 'Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of 'AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education 'etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought to curb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Declaration
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
(d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

ANSWER KEYS

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4.(c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20 (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)

S.S.C. Section Officers (COMMERCIAL AUDIT) 2008

 General Awareness

1. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by—
(A) 26–0
(B) 24–1
(C) 22–0
(D) 20–0
Ans : (B)
2. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched ?
(A) 1985
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1991
Ans : (C)
3. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is—
(A) gravitational pull of the moon
(B) low pressure trough in the ocean
(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water
(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind
Ans : (B)
4. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with—
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)
5. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sexratio ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tamilnadu
Ans : (A)
6. Major fishing grounds are found in—
(A) Northern Hemisphere
(B) Southern Hemisphere
(C) Eastern Hemisphere
(D) Western Hemisphere
Ans : (A)
7. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1999
Ans : (A)
8. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat ?
(A) Sonalika
(B) Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona
(D) Girija
Ans : (B)
9. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 per cent
(B) 3 to 4 per cent
(C) 4 to 5 per cent
(D) 5 to 6 per cent
Ans : (B)
10. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahendra Chaudhary
(C) Nirod C. Chaudhary
(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson
Ans : (A)
11. Who gave the concept of ‘Total Revolution’ ?
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Lenin
Ans : (A)
12. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in—
(A) 1962
(B) 1971
(C) 1977
(D) 1980
Ans : (C)
13. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
14. Japan’s Parliament is known as—
(A) Diet
(B) Dail
(C) Yuan
(D) Shora
Ans : (A)
15. The convention that “once a speaker always a speaker” is followed in—
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
16. The headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at—
(A) New York
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) Rome
Ans : (D)
17. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year—
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)
18. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production : “The Ghost and The Darkness” is—
(A) Om Puri
(B) Naseeruddin Shah
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Anil Kapoor
Ans : (A)
19. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans : (C)
20. PSLV stands for—
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle
(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier
(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle
Ans : (A)
21. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with—
(A) Basketball
(B) Football
(C) Boxing
(D) Cricket
Ans : (C)
22. Who is the author of the novel ‘DEVDAS’ ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Munshi Premchand
Ans : (C)
23. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of—
(A) 10^–3 m
(B) 10^–6 m
(C) 10^–9 m
(D) 10^–12 m
Ans : (C)
24. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because—
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
Ans : (C)
25. Devaluation of currency leads to—
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
26. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of—
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds
Ans : (D)
27. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and Distribution system followed by Indian Government ?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of butter stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution
Ans : (C)
28. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (A)
29. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at—
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (A)
30. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by—
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
Ans : (A)
31. The currency of Thailand is—
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen
Ans : (A)
32. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of—
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget
Ans : (A)
33. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to October-November is called—
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season
Ans : (B)
34. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells—
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares
Ans : (A)
35. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establishment of a—
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions
Ans : (A)
36. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year—
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
Ans : (C)
37. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President
Ans : (A)
38. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of—
(A) Centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories’ problems
(D) Tribal areas
Ans : (A)
39. The Judges of the High Court hold office—
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire
Ans : (B)
40. The United Nations officially came into existence on—
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945
Ans : (C)
41. The English Crown is an example of—
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive
Ans : (C)
42. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to—
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (A)
43. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed—
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are
Ans : (C)
44. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called—
(A) Casting vote
(B) Sound vote
(C) Direct vote
(D) Indirect vote
Ans : (A)
45. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’ ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans : (C)
46. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati ?
(A) Plato’s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle’s Politics
(D) Aristotle’s Nicomachian Ethics
Ans : (A)
47. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is—
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
Ans : (C)
48. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
Ans : (A)
49. Indian Penal Code came into operation in—
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862
Ans : (D)
50. The First Viceroy and Governor-General of British India was—
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
Ans : (D)
51. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year—
(A) 1905
(B) 1906
(C) 1907
(D) 1910
Ans : (C)
52. Bhulabhai Desai’s most memorable achievement was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A.) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of—
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)
53. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the—
(A) Cheras
(B) Parthians
(C) Pandyas
(D) Cholas
Ans : (B)
54. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was—
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Joa de Castro
(C) Francisco de Almedia
(D) Nuno da Cunha
Ans : (C)
55. When was the All India Women’s Conference founded ?
(A) 1924
(B) 1925
(C) 1926
(D) 1927
Ans : (D)
56. The Kuka movement started in mid-nineteenth century in—
(A) Western Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bengal
(D) Madhya Bharat
Ans : (A)
57. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle ?
(A) Annie Beasant
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Chittaranjan Das
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (B)
58. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of—
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Cabinet Mission
(D) Wavel Plan
Ans : (B)
59. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934 ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P.C. Joshi
(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)
60. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of—
(A) Pucca bricks
(B) Stone
(C) Wood
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)
61. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join ?
(A) Delhi–Amritsar
(B) Delhi–Mumbai
(C) Delhi–Kolkata
(D) Delhi–Ahmedabad
Ans : (C)
62. Watermelons grow best in—
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Laterite soil
Ans : (B)
63. In which state is the Maikala range situated ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (D)
64. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is—
(A) 35° N
(B) 36° N
(C) 37° N
(D) 39° N
Ans : (C)
65. River erosion is at its greatest where the river’s—
(A) depth is more
(B) breadth is more
(C) flow is fast
(D) gradient is more
Ans : (C)
66. Nallamala hills are located in the state of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (C)
67. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is—
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
Ans : (D)
68. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located ?
(A) Coral Sea
(B) Solomon Sea
(C) Bismarck Sea
(D) Arafura Sea
Ans : (A)
69. Where is the headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
70. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by—
(A) 5th June
(B) 15th June
(C) 1st July
(D) 15th July
Ans : (D)
71. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established ?
(A) Bhadravati
(B) Bhilai
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Burnpur
Ans : (C)
72. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Columbus—1492
(B) Vasco de Gama—1498
(C) Magellan—1520
(D) Balboa—1530
Ans : (D)
73. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis ?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Orange
(D) Yellow
Ans : (A)
74. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of—
(A) Reproduction
(B) Research
(C) Therapeutics
(D) Genetics
Ans : (B)
75. Pick out the viral disease among the following—
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Meningitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Nephritis
Ans : (A)
76. Dolly, the World’s First cloned animal was a—
(A) sheep
(B) cow
(C) goat
(D) pig
Ans : (A)
77. The large amount of sugar present in human blood is—
(A) sucrose
(B) glucose
(C) fructose
(D) lactose
Ans : (B)
78. Which one of the following is a viral disease in man ?
(A) Mumps
(B) Plague
(C) Cholera
(D) Syphilis
Ans : (A)
79. The major constituent of gobar gas is—
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Butane
(D) Isobutane
Ans : (B)
80. The expansion for AIDS is—
(A) Active Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
Ans : (C)
81. Bee keeping is known as—
(A) Sericulture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Aquaculture
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (B)
82. HYV refers to—
(A) Hybrid yielding variety
(B) Human yellow virus
(C) High yielding variety
(D) Human yellow vaccine
Ans : (C)
83. Pick the odd one out based on crop season—
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Cotton
Ans : (B)
84. The residue left after extracting juice from sugarbeet and sugarcane is called—
(A) molasses
(B) bagasse
(C) whey
(D) biomass
Ans : (B)
85. The isotope of uranium used in atomic reactors is—
(A) U²³⁵
(B) U²³⁶
(C) U²³⁷
(D) U²³²
Ans : (A)
86. In the process of magnetization of a bar—
(A) The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised
(B) Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised
(C) Only the ends of the bar get magnetised
(D) Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get magnetized
Ans : (A)
87. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface Tension
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Gravitational force
Ans : (B)
88. Which is the coldest among the following ?
(A) Mars
(B) Earth
(C) Pluto
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)
89. The weakest of all fundamental forces is—
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Electrostatic force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Nuclear force
Ans : (A)
90. Among the defects of eye, the shortsightedness is called—
(A) Coma
(B) Hypermetropia
(C) Myopia
(D) Astigmatism
Ans : (C)
91. Which one of the following is not a radioactive element ?
(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Radium
(D) Cadmium
Ans : (D)
92. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the change of—
(A) Temperature of air
(B) Pressure of air
(C) Moisture content in air
(D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound
Ans : (B)
93. The greenhouse effect is caused by the higher level of which gas in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
Ans : (B)
94. Candle is a mixture of—
(A) Paraffin wax and stearic acid
(B) Bees wax and stearic acid
(C) Higher fatty acids and stearic acid
(D) Bees wax and paraffin wax
Ans : (A)
95. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as—
(A) rectified spirit
(B) denatured spirit
(C) methylated alcohol
(D) power alcohol
Ans : (A)
96. Brass is an alloy of copper and—
(A) tin
(B) zinc
(C) iron
(D) nickel
Ans : (B)
97. Who discovered X-rays ?
(A) Goldstein
(B) Thomson
(C) Roentgen
(D) Wien
Ans : (C)
98. The density of a gas is maximum at—
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
(B) Low temperature, high pressure
(C) High temperature, low pressure
(D) High temperature, high pressure
Ans : (B)
99. The important ore of aluminium is—
(A) bauxite
(B) cryolite
(C) fluorspar
(D) haematite
Ans : (A)
100. Aqua regia is a 1 : 3 mixture, by volume, of—
(A) conc. nitric acid and conc. hydrochloric acid
(B) conc. hydrochloric acid and conc. nitric acid
(C) conc. nitric acid and conc. sulphuric acid
(D) conc. sulphuric acid and conc. nitric acid
Ans : (A)