Showing posts with label STENOGRAPHERS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label STENOGRAPHERS. Show all posts

Tuesday, July 11, 2017

Staff Selection Commission Stenographer Grade C & D Exam 2017

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has announced a notification to conduct Stenographer Grade C & D Examination-2017 for the recruitment of Stenographer vacancies. 

Name of the Post: Stenographer

Educational Qualification: Candidates should have passed 12th Standard or equivalent from a recognized Board or University.

Age Limit: Candidates age should be 18-27 years as on 01-08-2017. 

How to Apply: Eligible candidates may apply online through the website.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected based on computer based written exam & skill test.

Last Date to Apply Online: 15.07.2017.
Date for Payment of Fee: 18.07.2017
Date of Computer Based Examination: 04.09.2017 - 07.09.2017.

For Detailed Notification Click Here

For Online Application Click Here

Sunday, August 9, 2015

SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ and ‘D’) Examination 2012 General Awareness Solved Paper

1. The present monetary system in India is managed by– 
(A) Nationalised Banks (B) The State Bank of India 
(C) The Central Finance Ministry (D) The Reserve Bank of India 

(Ans : D)

2. What is a Multinational Company? 
(A) A joint venture among more than two countries 
(B) A company set up with foreign capital 
(C) A company having operations in many countries. 
(D) A company holding a monopoly over the sale of a certain commodity in several countries. (Ans : C)

3. Explicit + Implicit Costs = 
(A) Private Costs (B) Accounting Costs (C) Economic Costs (D) Social Costs 

(Ans : C)

4. Which of the following is not relevant to Human Resource Development ? 
(A) Education (B) Women and Child Development 
(C) Caste System (D) Youth Affairs and Sports 

(Ans : C)

5. A Trade Cycle consists of– 
(A) Three Phases (B) Four Phases (C) Five Phases (D) Six Phases 

(Ans : B)

6. The Khilafat Movement was organised to protest against– 
(A) religious interference by the British (B) Russian Revolution 
(C) dismemberment of Turkey (D) suppression of Pathans 

(Ans : C)

7. Planning Commission was established in the year– 
(A) 1980 (B) 1970 (C) 1950 (D) 1960 

(Ans : C)

8. India witnessed single party domination till– 
(A) 1962 (B) 1967 (C) 1971 (D) 1977 

(Ans : B)

9. Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution ? 
(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy 
(C) Preamble (D) Panchayats 

(Ans : C)

10. Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on– 
(A) 15th August 1947 (B) 26th November 1949 
(C) 26th January 1950 (D) 30th January 1948 

(Ans : B)

11. The rustless Iron Pillar at Mehrauli (Delhi) was erected by the– 
(A) Mauryas (B) Kushans (C) Guptas (D) Satavahanas 

(Ans : C)

12. The famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ has been taken from– 
(A) Rigveda (B) Samaveda (C) Yajurveda (D) Atharvaveda 

(Ans : A)

13. The Rajput King who was defeated by Babur in the battle of Khanwa was– 
(A) Udai Singh (B) Rana Pratap Singh (C) Rana Sanga (D) Rudra Deva 

(Ans : C)

14. Who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission ? 
(A) Sri Ramakrishna (B) Swami Shraddhananda 
(C) Keshab Chandra (D) Swami Vivekananda 

(Ans : D)

15. Who led the Mutiny at Kanpur ? 
(A) Begum Hazrat Mahal (B) Nana Sahib 
(C) Tantia Tope (D) Rani Laxmibai 

(Ans : B)

16. Which ‘Water Body’ separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands ? 
(A) Andaman Sea (B) Bay of Bengal 
(C) Ten Degree Channel (D) Eleventh Degree Channel 

(Ans : C)

17. State Highways are maintained by– 
(A) Individual States (B) Central Government 
(C) Central and State Governments jointly (D) Private parties selected by the State Governments 
(Ans : A)

18. The first port developed after Independence was– 
(A) Nhava Sheva (B) Kandla 
(C) New Mangalore (D) Mumbai
(Ans : B)

19. The neighbouring country of India which has the smallest area is– 
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Bhutan (D) Nepal 
(Ans : C)

20. Kaziranga Wild Life Sanctuary is in the State of– 
(A) Bihar (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Assam (D) Kerala 

(Ans : C)

21. Resin is extracted from– 
(A) Papaya (B) Pine (C) Rubber (D) Banyan 

(Ans : B)

22. A common plant found in tropical rainforest is– 
(A) Pine (B) Eucalyptus (C) Orchid (D) Fir 

(Ans : C)

23. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for clotting of blood ? 
(A) K (B) C (C) A (D) B 

(Ans : A)

24. Influenza virus contains– 
(A) RNA only (B) DNA only 
(C) Both RNA and DNA in equal proportion. (D) DNA with very small proportion of RNA. 
(Ans : A)

25. Lung fish is a link between– 
(A) Amphibia and Birds (B) Reptiles and Birds 
(C) Amphibia and Reptiles (D) Reptiles and Mammals 

(Ans : C)

26. Green gland is the excretory organ of– 
(A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach (C) Prawn (D) House-fly 

(Ans : C)

27. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of water– 
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains the same (D) depends on the volume of vapour formed 
(Ans : B)

28. In the treatment of skin disease the radio isotope used is– 
(A) Radio phosphorous (B) Radio iodine (C) Radio lead (D) Radio cobalt 
(Ans : A)

29. Rainbow has: (Choose incorrect statement)– 
(A) red light as its outer-most colour towards sky 
(B) red light as its inner-most colour towards earth 
(C) violet light as its inner-most colour towards earth 
(D) its curvature bent towards earth 

(Ans : B)

30. A cyclist in circular motion should lean– 
(A) Forward (B) Backward (C) Sideways towards the centre (D) Sideway away from the centre 
(Ans : C)

31. The monitor of a computer is– 
(A) an input device (B) an output device (C) a storage device (D) a processing device 

(Ans : B)

32. ……….. is a collection of wires through which data is transmitted from one part of a computer to another part– 
(A) Port (B) Channel (C) Bus (D) Add on card 

(Ans : C)

33. Amalgam is an alloy in which the base metal is– 
(A) Copper (B) Zinc (C) Aluminium (D) Mercury 

(Ans : D)

34. The physical method commonly used to purify sea water is– 
(A) Evaporation (B) Sedimentation (C) Filtration (D) Distillation 

(Ans : A)

35. The chemical name of ‘oil of vitriol’ is– 
(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Nitric acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Hydrochloric acid 

(Ans : C)

36. Cathode rays are– 
(A) Electromagnetic waves (B) Radiations 
(C) Stream of α-particles (D) Stream of electrons 

(Ans : D)

37. The National Park ‘Valley of Flowers’ lies in the State of– 
(A) Kerala (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Uttarakhand (D) Jammu and Kashmir 

(Ans : C)

38. Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by– 
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Methyl isocyanite (D) Cyanide 

(Ans : C)

39. The example of a secondary pollutant is– 
(A) CFC (Chloro fluoro carbon) (B) PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate) 
(C) CH4 (Methane) (D) Cl2 (Chlorine) 

(Ans : B)

40. In big cities, air pollution is mainly due to– 
(A) burning of fossil fuel (B) thermal power plant (C) sewage (D) suspended particles 

(Ans : A)

41. The term ‘Let’ is associated with– 
(A) Badminton (B) Chess (C) Hockey (D) Football 

(Ans : A)

42. The oral polio vaccine was discovered by– 
(A) Alexander Flemming (B) Jonas Salk (C) Edmond Fischer (D) Joseph E. Murray 

(Ans : B)

43. Who among the following Nobel Laureates for their relentless struggle for peace, was awarded 2010 Nobel Prize? 
(A) Barack H. Obama (B) Liu Xiaobo (C) Martti Ahtisaari (D) Shirin Ebadi 

(Ans : B)

44. The Umiam Hydel Project dam is located a few kilometres north of– 
(A) Guwahati (B) Shillong (C) Kohima (D) Imphal 

(Ans : B)

45. The expenses of the Government of India are the highest on account of subsidy on– 
(A) Fertilisers(B) Oil (C) LPG (D) Food 

(Ans : D)

46. In accordance with the directions of RBI, banking facilities are required to be provided at all places having population of more than 2000 by the end of– 
(A) March 2015 (B) March 2014 (C) March 2013 (D) March 2012 

(Ans : C)

47. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC), an autonomous self-governing body, was created within the State of– 
(A) Nagaland (B) Meghalaya (C) Assam (D) Mizoram 

(Ans : C)

48. ‘Simla Pact’ between India and Pakistan was signed in the year– 
(A) 1965 (B) 1971 (C) 1972 (D) 2001 

(Ans : C)

49. In which of the following States are Garo and Khasi tribes found ? 
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Nagaland (C) Meghalaya (D) Mizoram 

(Ans : C)

50. Manipur has common boundaries with the group of States of– 
(A) Nagaland, Assam and Mizoram (B) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura 
(C) Meghalaya, Mizorarn and Tripura (D) Nagaland, Mizoram and Meghalaya 

(Ans : A) 

Saturday, August 8, 2015

SSC Grade C & D Stenographer Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission will hold on Sunday, the 27th December 2015,
an All India Open Competitive Examination for recruitment to the posts of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ ( Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted ) and Stenographer Grade ‘D’(Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted).

Number of Posts: 1064

Eligibility criteria for SSC Stenographer Recruitment 2015
Education Qualification: Candidate should have passed 12th Standard or Equivalent from a recognized Board or University.

Age Limit: 
As on 01st August 2015, candidates age should be above 18 years and not more than 27 years (born after 02-08-1988 and not later than 01-08-1997).

Pay Scale: 
Stenographer Grade C in Pay Band 2 plus Grade Pay as admissible and Stenographer Grade D in Pay Band 1.

Selection Criteria: Selection of the applicants will be done through a competitive written examination. Qualified applicants in the written examination will be called for Skill Test/ Typing Test and Stenography Test.

Application Fee: 
Payment of Application fee is exempted for all women candidates and SC/ ST with Disability and Ex-Servicemen Eligible for reservation, as per Government orders. The Candidates Submitting application offline (paper mode) should pay the fee of Rs. 100/- by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) Only. SSC Stenographer Grade C D Notification 2015 Apply Online

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can submit their application through online mode only before last date.

Important Dates:
Last date to apply online form 07th September, 2015

Date of Exam: 27-12-2015
Important Links:Official Notification for Click Here

Official Website for Click Here 

Monday, September 30, 2013

SSC Combined All India Open Examination for Stenographer (Grade ‘C’&‘D’) Posts

Staff Selection Commission hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ and Grade ‘D’.
Stenographer (Grade ‘C’&‘D’):
Qualifications: 12th Standard or equivalent from a recognised board or university.

Scheme of Examination: The examination will be consist of a written examination and skill test in stenography.

Written Examination:
  • Part I: Subject: General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 questions), Maximum Marks: 50
  • Part II: Subject: General Awareness (50 questions), Maximum Marks: 50
  • Part III: Subject: English Language and Comprehension (100 questions), Maximum Marks: 100
  • Total Duration / Timing for General candidates: 2 Hours
  • Total Duration / Timing for Visually Handicapped candidates: 2 Hours 40mins.
Age Limit (As on 01/08/2013): 10-27 years

Fee: Rs. 100/-. Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to SC, ST, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online or offline.
  • Online: Candidates can apply online only
  • Offline: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the Commission as indicated in the notifications.
Important Dates:
  • Last date for Part-I registration on 24/10/2013
  • Last date for Part-II registration 26/10/2013
  • Date of examination 29/12/2013
For more details Click here

Thursday, July 14, 2011

SSC Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011

SSC inviting online applications for Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011

Qualification: Passed 12th standard or equivalent from a recognized board or university.
Age Limit: 18 to 27 years as on 1.8.2011.
Selection: Written Examination (Objective) / Skill Test in Stenography.
Application Fee: Rs.100
Date of Written Examination: 16th October, 2011, (Sunday).
Candidates are required to Apply Online through SSC Online website: between 16.7.2011 to 10.8.2011.
Candidates may also send their applications through Offline mode along with all required certificates to the respective address before 12.8.2011.
Last Date of Online Applications: 10th August, 2011
Last Date of Offline Applications: 12th August, 2011

Click Here for More Details

Thursday, June 2, 2011


Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.

1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible

12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need

13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion

14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless

15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent

16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide

17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor

18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand

19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent

20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite

22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste

23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination

24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity

25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose

26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity

27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient

28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly

29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative

30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise

32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious

33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate

34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway

35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport

36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary

37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation

38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither

39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible

40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos

42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly

43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with

44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest

45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for

46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected

47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think

48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate

49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back

50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.

51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism

52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature

53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent

54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable

55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier

Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us

57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop

58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?

59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him

60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt

Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement

62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement

63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement

64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement

65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement

Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—

66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman

67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.

68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.

69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey

70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.

Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.

71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off

72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many

73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with

74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have

75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was

76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over

77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done

78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged

79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with

80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it

Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.

81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents

82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun

83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man

84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books

85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above

Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.

In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.

86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus

87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed

88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate

89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period

90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety

Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.

91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried

92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead

93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass

94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet

95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food

96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come

97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from

98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans

99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait

100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but


1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)