Tuesday, July 31, 2012
Tuesday, July 17, 2012
Sunday, July 15, 2012
SSC (Eastern Region) has issued notification for the recruitment of Examiner, Wildlife Inspector and Fieldman. Eligible candidates may apply through prescribed application format on or before 27-08-2012. Particulars about age limit, educational qualification, no of posts and other are mentioned below:
SSCER Vacancy Details:
No of Posts: 05 Posts
Names of Posts:
1. Examiner: 03 posts
2. Wildlife Inspector: 01 post
3. Fieldman: 01 post
Candidate age must be between 18-25 years for Examiner post, below 30 years for Wildlife Inspector post and below 28 years for Fieldman post as on 27-08-2012.
Candidate must possess B.Sc Degree with honours in Chemistry Laboratory for Examiner post, Bachelor’s Degree in Science with Zoology as a subject & Diploma/Certificate in Wildlife Management awarded by the Wildlife Institute of India or equivalent for Wildlife Inspector post and Matriculation or equivalent for Fieldman post.
Rs 50/- for General candidates (No fee for SC-ST-PH-EXSM-Women candidates). Pay fee through CRFS (Central Recruitment Fee Stamps) available in post offices.
Candidates will be selected on the basis of Screening Test and Interview/Personality Test/Skill Test.
How to apply:
Eligible candidates may send their application in prescribed format, along with CRFs, recent passport size photograph pasted on application form, attested photo copies of all necessary certificates to the following address, Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Nizam Palace, Ist MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata-700020, on or before 27-08-2012
Last date for receipt of application: 27-08-2012 (For remote areas 03-09-2012), up to 5.00 PM.
For more particulars about age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, no. of posts, experience, application fee, how to apply, application format, selection procedure, last date for receipt of application and other particulars available at below given link.
Friday, July 13, 2012
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will be conducting Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2012 for recruitment to different posts like Data Entry operators, Lower Division clerks(LDC).
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2012 will conduct on 21-10-2012 and 28-10-2012.
Data Entry operators
Lower Division clerks(LDC)
Candidates must have 18 years and the max age limit is 27 years as on 01-08-2011 for General category applicants
5 years upper age relaxation for SC/ST Candidates
3 years relaxation in upper age for OBC Candodates
10 years for PWD Candidates
Education qualifications required:
Candidates must pass in 12th class or it’s equivalent from any recognized board
100 rupees is the application fee ,must pay at any state bank of India by downloading the challan form or you can also pay by using SBI net banking/SBI Online Banking/SBI Internet banking
Selection process is based on the performance in Written Exam and Skill test.
Important Dates to remember:
Starting Date for Online Registration: 14-07-2012
Last Date to Submission of Part I Application : 08-08-2012
Last Date to Submit Part II Application 10-08-2012
Last Date for Submission of Application (far flung areas): 17-08-2012
Written Examination date 2012: 21-10-2012 & 28-10-2012
Click here to download the advertisement/notification of ssc Combined Higher Secondary Level examination 2012
Tuesday, July 10, 2012
a) Doctor’s service
b) Teacher’s service
c) Mother’s service
d) Banker’s service
2. Which one of the following committee is associated with banking sector reforms in India?
a) L.C. Gupta
3. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?
a) Fixing margin requirements
b) Variable interest rates
c) Open Market Operations
d) Credit rationing
4. The 13th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period
a) 2010 – 2015
b) 2011 – 2016
c) 2012 – 2017
d) 2013 – 2018
5. The national income of a nation is the
a) Government’s annual income
b) Sum total of factor incomes
c) Surplus of public sector enterprises
d) Export minus imports
6. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of
proclamation of national emergency is the
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 43rd Amendment Act
c) 44th Amendment Act
d) 45th Amendment Act
7. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the
c) Law Minister
d) Prime Minster
8. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is
a) Educational and economic bacwardness of minority groups
b) Political conscicousness
c) Social inequalities
d) Imposing ban on communal organizations
9. A retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in
a) Supreme Court
b) Any Court in India
c) High Courts
d) Except the High Court where he retired
10. Which one of the following does not match?
a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955
b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act : 1971
c) Domestic Violence on Women Act : 1990
d) Cruelty against Women : 1995
11. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Canning
12. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in Second Battle of Tarain by
a) Mahmud Ghazni
b) Muhammad Ghori
c) Qutbuddin Aibak
13. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was
a) Mahadaji Sindhia
b) Tukoji Holkar
c) Naryan Roy
d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu
14. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?
a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Daynand Saraswati
15. Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Dandi March
2. Simon Commission
3. Poona Pact
4. Gandhi Irwin Pact
a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 4, 3
c) 4, 3, 1, 2 d) 4, 3, 2, 1
16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Darjeeling – West Bengal
b) Mount Abu – Rajasthan
c) Kodaikanal – Tamilnadu
d) Simla – Uttar Pradesh
17. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on
a) January 30th
b) December 22nd
c) September 22nd
d) July 4th
18. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary Main River
1. Chambal : Yamuna
2. Sone : Narmada
3. Manas : Brahmputra
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
19. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is
20. The total population divided by available land area is reffered to as
a) Population density
b) Nutritional density
c) Agricultural density
d) Industrial density
21. Green glands are associated with
22. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of
a) Active transport
c) Diffusion and active transport
23. Heart is devoid of
a) Cardiac muscle
b) Involuntary muscle
c) Voluntary muscle
d) Smooth muscle
24. The soil salinty is measured by
a) Conductivity meter
25. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
26. Chickenpox is caused by
a) DNA virus
b) Variola virus
d) Vibrio cholera
27. Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with
a) Iron shield
b) Rubber shield
c) Brass shield
d) Glass shield
28. Find the odd one.
d) Slaked Lime
29. Which of the following is pseudo-force?
a) Centrepetal force
b) Centrifugal reaction force
c) Centrifugal force
d) Strong nuclear force
30. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of
a) Archimede’s principle
b) Torricellean law
c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
d) Pascal’s Law
31. Of the following, which is the fastest?
32. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is
33. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named
34. The base used as an antacid is
a) Calcium hydroxide
b) Barium hydroxide
c) Magnesium hydroxide
d) Silver hydroxide
35. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is
b) applying grease
36. Denatured alcohol
a) is a form of alcohol
b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances
c) contains coloured impurities
d) is sweet to tatse
37. Phenolics as pollutants can be remeoved from waste water by use of
a) Ion exchange resin technique
b) Electrolyte decomposition technique
c) Reverse osmosis method
d) Polymeric adsorbents
38. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on
a) micro-organisms and fishes
b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons
c) fishes and reptiles
d) Producers and consumers
39. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called
a) Transition wave
c) Transverse wave
d) Sonic boom
40. The main factor which determines the balance of nature is
a) human activities
b) Rabit and habitat
c) environmental conditions
d) availability of food
41. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because
a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is visible from a distance.
b) scattering in yellow light is less than red
c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light
d) none of the above reasons
42. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”
a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
b) Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu
c) Jyoti Bosu of West Bengal
d) Late N.T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh
43. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied in the 2012 London Olympics in
400 meters race is
a) Oscar Pistorius
b) Walter Rallis
c) Raymond Irchovich
d) Gerald Hangovin
44. Which one of the following film-actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts
and Culture by the Bedford University, London?
a) Shahrukh Khan
b) Amir Khan
c) Saif Ali Khan
d) Anil Kapoor
45. The city of Prayag was named Allahbad – the city of Allah by
d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
46. Spot the odd one from the following:
47. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?
a) Prachi Misra
b) Vanya Misra
c) Rochella Maria
d) Sandhya Agarwal
48. Which one of the following statements is not correct about India’s population as per
the 2011 census?
a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%
b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate
c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate
d) Men outnumber women in growth literates
49. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty?
a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
b) Sri Abhijit Sen
c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
d) Prof. A. M. Patha
50. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact, not a garden?
a) Vrindavan Garden of Mysore
b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. A 50. C
a) Home Minister
b) Prime Minister of India
c) President of India
d) Vice-President of India
2. Most important responsibility of a Welfare State is
a) to check exploitation
b) to check eneroachments on Fundamental Rights
c) to preserve private property
d) to promote the religion of people
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and Bhutan.
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
c) Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar
a) 2, 3 b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2
4. Arrange the following Presidents in chronological order as to who came first and who came later:
1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
2. Zakir Hussain
3. Justice Hidayatullah
4. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
a) 2, 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4, 1
c) 3, 2, 1, 4
d) 2, 3, 1, 4
5. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of
a) goods produced for the market only
b) goods produced for the market and self consumption
c) stock of goods and services
d) all final goods and services produced in a year
6. Which one of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve?
b) Monopolistic compitition
c) Perfect compitition
7. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) XI Plan - (2007 - 2012)
b) VI Plan - (1980 - 1985)
c) I Plan - (1951 - 1956)
d) III Plan - (1966 - 1971)
8. Which of the following instituions deals with credit to Agriculture and Rural Development?
9. As per the results of 2011 Population Census, which of the following groups occupies the
three top places in respect of literacy?
a) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram
b) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura
c) Kerala, Goa, West Bengal
d) Chandigarh, Goa, Kerala
10. District Judges in a State are appointed by the
b) Chief Justice of High Court
c) Advocate-General of the State
d) Council of Ministers of the State
11. Which one of the following is called the ‘Crossroads to Pacific’?
12. Which of the following is an act of man that distrubs the ecological balance?
b) Social forestry
13. Which one is not correctly matched?
a) Glasgow - Great Britain
b) Pittsburg - U.S.A
c) Longcoy - Russia
d) Rhine - Germany
14.How many States in India are coastal?
15. International boundary between India and Pakistan is demaracted by
a) Redcliffe Line
b) Maginot Line
c) McMahon Line
d) Durand Line
16. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plant kingdom?
17. Find the odd one out.
d) Guinea worm
18. National Institute of Nutrition is a research institute located in the State of
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttra Pradesh
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Himachal Pradesh
19. Which one of the following events are chronologically correct?
a) Quit India Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
b) Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan – Quit India Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
d) The Cabinet Mission Plan – Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement
20. Who founded the Vikramasila University?
21. Which of the following was not known during the Rigvedic period?
a) Varna system (Caste)
b) Marriage system
c) Joint family system
22. Match the following:
A. Pallavas 1. Dantidurg
B. Chalukyus 2. Vishnuvardhan
C. Rashtrakutas 3. Simhavishnu
D. Hoysalas 4. Pulakisin I
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 4 1 2
23. Abul Fazl wrote
24. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time?
a) Half duplex
b) Full duplex
c) Super duplex
25. What does the acronym ISDN stands for?
a) Intelligent Services Digital Network
b) Integrated Services Data Network
c) Indian Standard Digital Network
d) Integrated Services Digital Network
26. Darkening property of photochromatic glass is due to presence of
a) silver nitrate
b) silver chloride
c) silver bromide
d) silver oxide
27. Supersonic aircrafts discharge the following substances into the stratosphere:
28. Chemical nature of laughing gas is:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Hydrogen chloride
29. The difference between isotopes of an element is due to the presence of a different number of
30. The increasing abundance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects
a) Oxygen fertilization effect
b) Cabon dioxide fertilization effect
c) Global warming
d) Depletion of Ozone layer in the stratosphere
31. A tree’s age can be found by
a) counting the number of branches
b) no means
c) measuring its height
d) counting the number of annual rings
32. The left aortic arch is observed in
33. Tendon connects
a) bone to muscle
b) muscle to muscle
c) bone to bone
d) muscle to bone
34. Mercury is generally used in thermometers because it has a
a) high conductivity
b) high specific heat
c) high fludity
d) high density
35. To an observer on the lunar surface during day time, the sky will appear to be
c) Light Yellow
36. Which of the following quantities is measure of ‘inertia’?
37. The intensity of a wave
1. follows Inverse Square Law.
2. is proportional to its amplitude.
3. is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
a) Only 2 is true
b) 1 and 3 are true
c) 1 and 2 are true
d) 2 and 3 are true
38. In which of the following States, is the child sex-ratio the lowest as per the 2011 census?
39. Kaziranga Natrional Park is situated in:
40. Who is the author of the book ‘If Cricket is Religion, Sachin is God’?
a) Vijai Santhanam
b) Shyam Balasubramaniam
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
41. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sunder Lal Bahuguna?
a) He started the ‘Chipko Movement’ to create the awareness of deforestation.
b) He was elected to Lok Sabha from Uttarkashi in Uttarakhand
c) He is an eminent environmentalist.
d) He was awarded Padama Bhushan in 2009
42. The three countries, in serial order, who won the highest number of gold medals in the Beijing
Olympics Games are:
a) China, Germany, Australia
b) China, Germany, USA
c) China, USA, Russia
d) China, USA, Germany
43. The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is
a) Sister Alphonsa
b) Sister Nirmala
c) Sister Disouza
d) Sister Madorana
44. Which of the following fules causes minimum environmental pollution?
45. Minimata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution
in water by
46. Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of
a) 3.0 ppm
b) 9.0 ppm
c) 0.2 ppm
d) 0.3 ppm
47. The first President to sail in a submarine in India was
a) V.V. Giri
b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
c) K. R. Narayanan
d) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
48. Cooking vessels have wooden or bakelite handles because
a) the handle must be strong
b) the handle should be attractive
c) wood and bakelite are bad conductors of heat
d) None of the above
49. ‘Deshbandhu’ is the title of
a) B.C. Pal
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) C.R. Das
50. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
a) Abhinav Bindra – Rifle Shooting
b) Sania Mirza – Badminton
c) Jeev Milkha Singh – Golf
d) Irfan Pathan – Cricket
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. B
Monday, July 2, 2012
Various Competitive Examinations
Staff Selection Commission conducts the following competitive examinations every year.
1) For candidates having qualification of only Matriculation, they are eligible to apply for the Combined Matric Level Examination. In the same examination, those who are having Stenography speed of 80 WPM can apply for Stenographer also. Combined Matric Level Examination for posts of LDCs and Stenographers is conducted in 3 stages. The preliminary examination is of objective type is conducted to shortlist candidates for next examination i.e. Main Examination and the candidates who qualify in the main examination are to appear in a typewriting test/stenographer test for final selection.
There are various examinations for graduates such as, Tax Assistant, Combined Graduate Level, Sub-Inspectors in CPOs, Section Officer(Audit). However, the graduates in Commerce, in addition to the above, can also apply for Section Officer(Commercial) examination. The graduates in Economics/Statistics/ Maths. can apply for Statistical Investigator also in addition to all the above examination except Section Officer(Commercial). The Engineering graduates are in addition to above, are eligible to appear the Junior Engineer exam. conducted by the Commission. For the candidates having degree in Hindi, are eligible apply for Junior Hindi Translators also.
The details of various examinations are as follows :
2) Combined Graduate Examination for posts of Inspector in Income Tax/Central Excise/Department of Post, Sub-Inspector in CBI, Assistant, Divisional Accountant, Auditor, Junior Accountant, UDC etc.
This examination is also conducted in 3 stages i.e. preliminary, Main and Interview for mostly group ‘B’ non-gazetted posts. However, for posts of Auditors, UDC, Jr. Accountants, no interview is conducted and candidates are selected on the basis of their performance in the main examination.
3) Sub-Inspector in CPO (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP,SSB) Examination – Only one written examination is conducted for this examination, followed by a physical, medical test and interview. There is some relaxation in height for the candidates belonging to North-Eastern Region.
4) Section Officer(Audit) & Section Officer(Commercial) Examination – These examinations also consist of only one written examination followed by a interview. The posts of Section Officers are mainly exists in Accountant General offices located all over the country.
5) Junior Engineers Examination – It consist of only one written examination followed by an interview for posts of Junior Engineers in CPWD.
6) Tax Assistant Examination – This examination is conducted for selection of candidates for posts of Tax Assistant in Central Excise/Income Tax department. It consist of a written paper followed by a skill test in computer typing.
7) Junior Hindi Translator Examination – One written test followed by an interview is the selection criteria for this post.
8) Selection Posts – In addition to the above, some specialized posts like Chemist, Computer typist, Research Assistant, Hindi Translator etc. in central government offices located in north eastern region are conducted by SSC(NER), Guwahati. For those posts, generally no written test is conducted. The short-listed candidates are selected on the basis of an interview only. For getting shortlisted for any selection post, the candidate should enclose all experience certificates/extra curricular certificates though the same are not asked for.
Advertisement of examinations :
All the advertisements of competitive examinations even an advertisement for a single post are published in the Employment News. However, there was a complaint about non-availability of Employment News in some areas. In order to facilitate the candidates of North Eastern Region, Short notices of the advertisements are sent for publication in all leading local newspapers and also sent to all the local stations of All India Radio/Doordarshan for broadcast. Now-a-days, applications forms of various competitive examinations can also be downloaded from the website of the Staff Selection Commission-(http//www.ssc.nic.in).
Contents of the competitive examinations :
A simple graduate candidate can easily qualify in any SSC examination if he/she has the thorough knowledge of his own subject and keeps an eye on current affairs etc. Model questions of SSC examinations in the form of guide books are also available in the market. Also knowledge of present day happenings in the country as well as the world as available in the Newspapers are a must for cracking the examination.
How to apply :
Before filling up any application form of any examination, candidates should read the instructions given in the advertisement to avoid rejection of their application form. Since the data of all the candidates are entered and monitored in Computers, data once entered against a candidate, cannot be rectified or changed later on. Application Form can be typed/hand written but it should be same as published, signature should be put in all places wherever prescribed.
Evaluation of Answer Sheets :
Objective type questions that are required to be answered by tick marks/darkening are evaluated by Computer (Optical Mark Reader).Candidate should be careful in handling the OMR Answer Sheet. Making dirty the OMR sheet and any kind of fold may lead to non-evaluation of his answer sheet. Recently, a candidate who was selected for the post of Sub-Inspector in CISF against female quota was found to be male candidate later on. The candidate wrote the code no. 2 which means female instead of code no.1.Descriptive type questions are evaluated manually.
Interview of SSC are conducted in a candidates’ friendly atmosphere. To get through any interview, the candidate need not put any costly dress but should appear clean, smart and should be familiar about his own subject, native place, state of domicile, places of historical interest of the state etc. However, the interview board members are highly experienced/eminent personalities, confession in case of any doubtful/unconfirmed information will be appreciated by them instead of trying to mislead them.
Reservations of vacancies :
There are reservations of vacancies for SC/ST/OBC etc.as per government’s orders however; there is no reservation for any particular state. Vacancies are open to all and are filled up as per the merit of the candidates drawn on all India basis.
Common errors in submission of the application forms :-
During scrutiny of application forms, the following common errors are found committed by the candidates leading to cancellation of their candidature :-
a) Non pasting of photographs in proper place.
b) Not signing below the photograph and also in the declaration at the end.
c) Signing in capital letters instead of running hand.
d) Non affixing of CRFS.
e) Non cancellation of CRFS.
f) Non submission of requisite documents in support of Date of Birth, Caste/Tribe Certificate and Educational Qualification.
g) Non submission of application form before closing date.