SSC SECTION OFFICER (COMMERCIAL AUDIT) 2009 solved paper

PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
(c) Justin (d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite (b) Copper
(c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US (b) Norway
(c) India (d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change (b) Force
(c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision (b) Management
(c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
(c) Astra (d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France. (b) China.
(c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
(c) isomers (d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
(c) ship. (d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
Part II : AIRTHMETIC
76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
(c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135 (b) 90
(c) 60 (d) 140
83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200 (b) 961
(c) 744 (d) 612
86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years (b) 40 years
(c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
(a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 15
89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600 (b) 3600
(c) 6400 (d) 14400
90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215 (b) 220
(c) 225 (d) 235
91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
(a) 23 (b) 4 25
(c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
92. is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 2
93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
(a) 400 (b) 480
(c) 500 (d) 580
95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
(a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
(a) 25 (b) 13313
(c) 3313(d) 30
98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
(a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
(c) 1523(d) 151 3
99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
(a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
(a) 5320 (b) 4200
(c) 3150 (d) 2660
102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
(a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
(c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
(a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
(c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
(c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its corresponding base will have to be decreased by
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
(c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
(a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
(c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually take to run the same distance is
(a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
(c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500 m, A will beat C by
(a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
(c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
(a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
(c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs. 28. If the interest were compounded half yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
(a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
(c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 16
112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5 books. The selling price of 1 book is
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price of the mixed tea is
(a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
(c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of these numbers is 44, the largest number is
(a) 24 (b) 36
(c) 72 (d) 108
115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 50
116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
FINANCES IF XYX RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
(c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in 2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 6186 (b) 5876
(c) 6444 (d) 7667
119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
(a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
(c) 20.7 (d) 17
120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
(a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
(c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
(a) 76 (b) 94
(c) 184 (d) 364
122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
(a) 34 (b) 43
(c) 35 (d) 53
123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
(a) 911 (b) 1011
(c) 1211 (d) 109 110
125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
(a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
PART III : ENGLISH
Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in Answer-sheet.
126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue
129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial (b) under pressure
(c) in danger (d) challenged
130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
(c) in danger (d) challenged
Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
(c) Session (d) Somnambulist
132.
(a) Façade (b) Inept
(c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
133.
(a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
134.
(a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
135.
(a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR (d) SRQP
137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) QPRS (d) RSQP
138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP
(c) QRSP (d) QPSR
140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy (b) covey
(c) Troupe (d) Coterie
145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal (b) Deadly
(c) Serious (d) Dangerous
146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem (d) Soprano
147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology (b) Embryology
(c) Entomology (d) Biology
148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell (b) Spell
(c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.
Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone (b) delay
(c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the man."
(a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
(c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(d) No improvement.
161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
(c) have they? (d) No improvement.
162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against (b) with
(c) in (d) No improvement.
163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed (b) pricked
(c) pierced (d) No improvement.
164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate (b) correlate
(c) command (d) No improvement.
165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
166.
(a) rejection (b) growth
(c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
167.
(a) where (b) hence
(c) what (d) since
168.
(a) armies (b) agencies
(c) enemies (d) technologies
169.
(a) relations (b) prospects
(c) applications (d) agreements
170.
(a) absorption (b) development
(c) delineation (d) filtration
171.
(a) large (b) wide
(c) across (d) close
172.
(a) eluding (b) facing
(c) confounding (d) comprising
173.
(a) order (b) priority
(c) quality (d) gravity
174.
(a) in (b) on
(c) for (d) of
175.
(a) choices (b) costs
(c) feelings (d) possibilities
Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.
177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.
180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.
Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).
4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. (c)/ No error (d).
6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).
9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent
192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven
193. Slither
(a) Slide (b) Move
(c) Shake (d) Slip
194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading
195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise
Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary
197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible
198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked
199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure
200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
200. (b)

SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Data Entry Operator exam Paper

Arithmetic (Numerical Aptitude)

Directions-(Q. 1-5) What should come in
place of the questi0n—mark (?) in the following
questions ?

1. [(58)² x (48)²] ÷ ? = 2152-96

(A) 60 (B) 2500
(C) 50 (D) 3600
(E) None of those

Answer.D

2. 7432 ÷ 92-9 x 18-5 = ?

(A) 1450 (B) 1600
(C) 1480 (D) 1560
(E) None of these

Answer.C

3. 99 x 21 – ³?? = 1968

(A) 1367631
(B) 111
(C) 1366731
(D) 1367
(E) None of these

Answer.E

4. 9634 x 3/8 ÷ ? = 28-902

(A) 115 (B) 95
(C) 110 (D) 120
(E) None of these

Answer.A

5. 19-99 x 9-9 + 99-9 = ?

(A) 129-79 (B) 297-801
(C) 1009 . (D) 296-91
(E) None of these

Answer.B

Directions—(Q. 6-10) What should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?

6. 354, 180, 64, 21, 10.2, ?

(A) 5.6 (B) 8.7
(C) 3.8 (D) 1.7
(E) None of these

Answer.B

7. 4.5, 18, 2.25, ?, 1.6875, 33.75

(A) 27 (B) 25.5 .
(C) 36 (D) 40. l
(E) None of these

Answer.A

8. 59.76, 58.66, 56.46, 52.06, 7, 25.66

(A) 48.08 (B) 46.53
(C) 43.46 (D) 43.26
(E) None of these

Answer.D

9. 36, 157, 301, 470, ?, 891 -

(A) 646 (B) 695 `
(C) 639 (D) 669
(E) None of these

Answer.E

10. 14, 70, 350, ?, 8750, 43750

(A) 1570 (B) 875
(C) 1750 _ (D) 785
(E) None of these

Answer.C

ll. The ratio of the number of students studying
in Schools A, B and C is 6 : 8 : 7 respectively.
If the number of students studying in each of
the schools is increased by 20%, 15% and
20% respectively, what will be the new ratio
of the number of students in Schools A, B and C.

(A) 18 : 23 : 21
(B) 12: 18 : 17
(C) 18 :21 : l7
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.A

2. On a test consisting of 75 questions carrying
one mark each Samir answered 75% of the
first 40 questions correctly. What approxi-
mate per cent of the other 35 questions does
he need to answer correctly to score 80% on
the entire test

(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 86 (D) 60
(E) 58

Answer.C

3. Out of these numbers the sum of the first and
the second number is 73 and the sum of
second and the third number is 77. The sum
of the third and thrice the first number is 104.
What is the third number

(A) 25
(B) 39
(C) 48
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these _

Answer.E

14. 50 people consume 350 kgs. of rice in 30
days. In how many days will 35 people
consume 50 kgs. of rice

(A) 2 days (B) 3 days
(C) 5 days (D) 7 days
(E) None of these

Answer.E

15. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the
total number of animal heads are 81 and total
number of animal legs are 234, how many
goats does’ Krishna have ?

(A) 45
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.C

Directions—(Q. 16-20) Study the following
data carefully and answer the questions given
below-

A survey conducted on 1800 villages shows
_ that 25% of the total villages have only adequate
water supply. 15% of the total number of villages
have proper supply of electricity only. 7% of the
total number of villages have only proper
education facilities. 12% of the total number of
villages have telecommunication services only.
16% of the total number of villages have proper
health care services only. 6% of the total number
of villages have adequate water as well as supply
of electricity. 8% of the total number of villages
have adequate supply of water, supply of elec-
tricity as well as health care services. 5% of the
total number of villages have proper supply of
electricity, telecommunication services as well as
health care services and 6% of the total number of
villages have all the facilities.

16, How many villages in all have adequate water
supply ?

(A) 702
(B) 450
(C) 594
(D) 810
(E) None of these

Answer.D

17. How many villages in all have adequate
supply of water as well as electricity ?

(A) 360 (B) 108
(C) 720 (D) 972
(E) None of these

Answer.A

18. How many villages in all do not have proper
supply of electricity ?

(A) 720 (B) 850
(C) 920 (D) 1080
(E) None of these

Answer.D

19. How many villages have only proper
education facilities ? _

(A) 108 (B) 126
(C) 234 (D) 216
(E) None of these

Answer.B

20. How many villages have all the facilities ?

(A) 90 (B) 126
(C) 144 (D) 106
(E) None of these

Answer.E

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the following
table carefully and answer the questions given _;
below. l
Quantity of Rice produced by
various states over the years
(Quantity in Tonnes)

Years
States 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
A 1500 1480 1620 1700 1540 1650
B 1250 1190 1400 1450 1320 1380
C 1160 1190 1310 1300 1340 1360
D 1520 1500 1480 1590 1630 1580
E 1440 1350 1430 1280 1380 1400
F 1600 1620 1510 1610 1580 1590

21. In which state has the production of rice
increased over the years continuant

(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
(E) None of these

Answer.E

22. In which year was the production of rice the
highest in all the states together

(A) 2007 (B) 2002
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
(E) None of these

Answer.A

23. Which state produced the lowest quantity of
rice over the years ?

(A) E (B) D
(C) C (D) A
(E) None of these

Answer.C

24. What is the respective ratio of the average
quantity of rice produced by State D to the
average quantity of rice produced by State F
over the years ?

(A) 69 : 79 (B) 310:317
(C) 138: 155 (D) 276: 317
(E) None of these

Answer.B

25. Rice produced by State C in the year 2005 is
approximately what per cent of the rice
produced by State A in the same year ‘?

(A) 82 (B) 72
(C) 88 (D) 76
(E) 69

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of Literates in various cities over the years

M-Males, F-Females
Years 2001 2002 2004

Cities M F M F M F M F M F
U 15000 25000 18550 20000 18590 25000 25000 25500 28000 28800
V 12500 9200 14680 10520 16000 11000 16850 13680 16920 14360
W 18660 17380 18950 18000 18980 19000 19500 19250 19580 19600
X 14200 14350 14820 14500 15250 15000 15390 15250 16000 16200
Y 9700 8320 9990 8540 9870 8820 10200 10000 10520 10300

31. What is the total number of male literates in
City W over the years

(A) 97650 (B) 95670
(C) 99280 (D) 96570
(E) None of these

Answer.B

32. What is the total number of literates across
the cities in the year 2005

(A) 180280 (B) 182000
(C) 18805.0 (D) 180500
(E) None of these

Answer.A

33. What is the difference between the total
number of female literates across the cities in
the year 2002 and the year 2004 ?

(A) 11850 (B) 12000
(C) 11500 (D) 12800
(E) None of these

Answer.E

34. What is the respective ratio of literates of City
X in the year 2001 to the literates of the same
city in the year 2003 ‘?

(A) 581 : 624
(B) 64 : 75
(C) 571 : 605
(D) 84: 131
(E) None of these

Answer.C

35. What is the average number of female
literates across the cities in the year 2005 ?

(A) 18725 (B) 15872 •
(C) 17582 (D) 17852
(E) None of these

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following
Pie—Graph carefully and answer the questions
given below.

A survey conducted on 5800
villages staying in various villages and having
various favourite fruits

Favourite Fruits
Guava 14%
Apple 12%
Grapes 11%
Mango 28%
Banana 20%
Custard apple 15%

People staying in various villages

A 22%
B 21%
C 32%
D 25%

36. Mango is the favorite fruit of 50% of the
people from Village C. People having their
favourite fruit as mango from Villages C form
approximately what per cent of the people
having their favourite fruit as mango from all
the villages together ?

(A) 48 (B) 53
(C) 61 (D) 57
(E) 45

Answer.D

37. 20% of the people from Village D have
banana is their favourite fruit and 12% of the
people from the same village have guava as
their favourite fruit. How many people from
that village like other fruits

(A) 764 B ) 896
(C) 874 (D) 96%
(E) None of these

Answer.E

38. How many people in all have custard apple as
their favourite fruit

(A) 850 (B) 864
(C) 870 (D) 812
(E) None of these

Answer.C

39. 50% of the people from Village B have
banana as their favourite fruit. How many A
people from other villages have the same
favourite fruit

(A) 1160 (B) 551
(C) 1020 (D) 609
(E) None of these

Answer.B

40. What is the total number of people having
their favourite fruit as apple and grapes to-
gether

(A) 1334 (B) 1286
(C) 1300 (D) 1420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

41. In how many different ways can the letters
of the word ‘GAMBLE’ be arranged

(A) 720 (B) 840
(C) 360 (D) 420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

42. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
200% and the denominator of the fraction is
increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is $6
What is the original fraction

(A) 5/12 (B) 4/7840
(C) 3/4 (D) 7/11
(E) None of these

Answer.C

43. Pratibha covers a distance of 24 kms at the
speed of 8 kms/hr, and a distance of 18 kms at
the speed of 9 kms/hr. Further she covers a
distance of 12 kms at the speed of 3 kms/hr.
What is her average speed in covering the
whole distance

(A) 8 kms/hr. (B) 5.5 kms/hr.
(C) 3 kms/hr. (D) 6kms/hr.
(E) None of these

Answer.D

44. The mean of the marks obtained by 100 E
students is 60. If the marks obtained by one of `
the students was incorrectiy caiemated as 75,
whereas the actual marks obtained by him
were 65, what is the correct mean of the
marks obtained by the students

(A) 59
(B) 58-50
(C) 50
(D) Cannot be determined ‘
(E) None of these

Answer.E

45. The difference between a two•digit number
and the number obtained by interchanging the
two digits of the numbers is 36. What is the
difference between the two digits of the
number

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.B

Directions•(Q
What approximate
value should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).

46. 388 + 0.8 + 0.7 = ?

(A) 681 (B) 654
(C) 693 (D) 670
(E) 700

Answer.C

47. ?729 x ?338= ?

(A) 470 (B) 482
(C) 521 (D) 530
(E) 496

Answer.E

48. 1875 ÷ 35 x 3242 ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 3525 (B) 3618
(C) 3641 (D) 3591
(E) 3636

Answer.B

49.³?41132 =?

(A) 35 (B) 42
(C) 22 (D) 29
(E) 45

Answer.A

50. 15.28 x 12.36+ 41.17 x 21 – 34 = ?

(A) 1125 (B) 1098
(C) 1132 (D) 1032
(E) 1067

Answer.E

SSC NWR RECRUITMENT

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(North Western Region - NWR), Chandigarh

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Western Region (WR), Mumbai, invite application for the following posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

1. Junior Hindi Translator in O/o Ordnance Cable Facory, Chandigarh : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-30 years
2. Senior Scientific Assistant - III in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, NH-IV, Chandigarh : 06 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-27 years
3. Technical Director - I in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Faridabad : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2000, Age : 18-27 years
4. Senior Scientific Assistant - III (Chemistry) in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Faridabad : 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-275 years
5. Investigator Gr. - II in O/o Labour Bureau, Chandigarh : 06 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 26 years

Fee Payable : Rs. 50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 13/12/2010 (19/11/2010 for candidates from far-flung areas) to Office of the Deputy Regional Director (NWR), Staff Selection Commission, (North Western Region), Block No. 3, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh - 160017.

For further details and application form, please visit http://www.sscnwr.org/

SSC CPO Sub Inspector Exam Solved Paper 2009

GENERAL AWARENESS

(Held on 06.09.09)

1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
Ans : (C)

2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Ans : (D)

3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (D)

4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
Ans : (B)

5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
Ans : (C)

6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
Ans : (B)

7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)

8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
Ans : (C)

9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (D)

10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans : (D)

11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
Ans : (B)

12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11•75 per cent
(B) 11•85 per cent
(C) 12•00 per cent
(D) 12•05 per cent
Ans : (D)

13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
Ans : (A)

14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
Ans : (A)

15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
Ans : (C)

16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (A)

17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
Ans : (B)

19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
Ans : (A)

20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
Ans : (C)

21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
Ans : (C)

22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (C)

23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
Ans : (A)

24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)

25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
Ans : (C)

26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
Ans : (B)

27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
Ans : (C)

28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
Ans : (A)

29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
Ans : (C)

30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Ans : (D)

31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
Ans : (A)

32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans : (A)

33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
Ans : (B)

35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
Ans : (D)

36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (C)

37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)

38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
Ans : (B)

39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (B)

41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
Ans : (C)

42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
Ans : (D)

43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
Ans : (C)

44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
Ans : (C)

45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
Ans : (D)

46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
Ans : (C)

47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
Ans : (A)

48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
Ans : (C)

49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
Ans : (D)

51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
Ans : (B)

52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
Ans : (C)

53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
Ans : (C)

54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
Ans : (D)

55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
Ans : (B)

56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
Ans : (A)

57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Ans : (A)

58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Ans : (D)

60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
Ans : (B)

61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (D)

62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
Ans : (C)

63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
Ans : (B)

64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
Ans : (A)

65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)

66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
Ans : (D)

67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
Ans : (D)

68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
Ans : (C)

69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
Ans : (C)

70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)

71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (B)

72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans : (D)

73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
Ans : (B)

74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
Ans : (D)

75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
Ans : (B)

SSC CPO SUB INSPECTOR EXAM 2008

General Awareness

HELD ON (09-11-2008)

1. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following are incorrectly paired ?
(A) Krishnadeva Raya—Amukta malyada
(B) Harshavardhana—Nagananda
(C) Kalidasa —Ritusamhara
(D) Visakhadatta—Kiratarjuniyam
Ans : (D)

3. Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (B)

4. During which Gupta King’s reign did the Chinese traveler Fa-hien visit India ?
(A) Chandra Gupta I
(B) Samudra Gupta
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Kumara Gupta
Ans : (C)

5. The administrative consequence of the Revolt of 1857 was transfer of power from—
(A) East India Company to the British Crown
(B) British Crown to the East India Company
(C) East India Company to the Governor General
(D) British Crown to the Board of Directors
Ans : (A)

6. The issue on which the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 was launched was—
(A) Equal employment opportunities for Indians
(B) The proposed execution of Bhagat Singh
(C) Salt monopoly exercised by the British Government
(D) Complete freedom
Ans : (D)

7. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after—
(A) Every five years
(B) Every six years
(C) On the advice of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

8. Who was the last Governor-General of India ?
(A) Sir Cripps
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sir Attlee
Ans : (C)

9. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time ?
(A) B.J.P.
(B) Janata Party
(C) Janata Dal
(D) Samajwadi Janata Party
Ans : (B)

10. Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy ?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Provision of free legal aid and advice
(C) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
(D) Protection of the monuments of historical importance
Ans : (B)

11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ ?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
Ans : (D)

12. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)

13. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as—
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(B) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(C) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertaking
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

15. Match the following cities and their airports—
List-I
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(b) Heathrow
(c) Payalebar
(d) Kaitak
List-II
1. Singapore
2. Hongkong
3. London
4. Mumbai
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas ?
(A) Mulching
(B) Shelter belt
(C) Gully plugging
(D) Terracing
Ans : (B)

17. The river which is not Westflowing towards the Arabian Sea is—
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapti
(C) Periyar
(D) Kaveri
Ans : (D)

18. Tsunamis are caused by—
(A) Mixing of cold and warm currents
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Changes in sea level
(D) Volcanic eruption
Ans : (B)

19. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ?
(A) Labrador current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Canari current
(D) North Equatorial current
Ans : (D)

20. Smog is a combination of—
(A) Air and water vapours
(B) Water and smoke
(C) Fire and water
(D) Smoke and fog
Ans : (D)

21. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of—
(A) Free good
(B) Final good
(C) Producer’s good
(D) Consumer’s good
Ans : (D)

22. Disinvestment is—
(A) Offloading of shares of private companies to government
(B) Offloading of government shares to private companies
(C) Increase in investment
(D) Closing down of business concerns
Ans : (B)

23. S.D.R. stands for—
(A) Special Dollar Rights
(B) Special Drawing Rights
(C) State Drawing Rights
(D) Specific Dollar Rights
Ans : (B)

24. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc. in connection with agricultural goods is the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission
(C) Agricultural Price Commission
(D) National Marketing Commission
Ans : (B)

25. Which one of the following is a development expenditure ?
(A) Irrigation expenditure
(B) Civil administration
(C) Debt services
(D) Grant-in-aid
Ans : (A)

26. When average cost of production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be—
(A) Rising
(B) Falling
(C) Greater than the average cost
(D) Less than the average cost
Ans : (D)

27. Green Banking means—
(A) Development of forestry by banks
(B) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(C) Financing of irrigation projects by banks
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

28. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan, 1951-56
(B) Second Five Year Plan, 1956-61
(C) Third Five Year Plan, 1961-66
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan, 1966-71
Ans : (D)

29. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(D) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
Ans : (D)

30. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(D) Cannot say
Ans : (B)

31. Tetanus is caused by—
(A) Clostridium
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteriophage
(D) Salmonella
Ans : (A)

32. Vitamin E is particularly important for—
(A) Development of teeth
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism
(C) Normal activity of sex glands
(D) General health of epithelial tissues
Ans : (C)

33. Birds usually have a single—
(A) Kidney
(B) Lung
(C) Testis
(D) Ovary
Ans : (D)

34. Blood pressure is controlled by—
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Thyroid gland
(C) Thymus
(D) Corpus luteum
Ans : (A)

35. The carbon dioxide content in the air that we exhale is about—
(A) 4%
(B) 8%
(C) 12%
(D) 16%
Ans : (A)

36. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by—
(A) Loss of half of its leaves
(B) Loss of all leaves
(C) Loss of half of its branches
(D) Loss of its bark
Ans : (B)

37. Mineral constituent of chlorophyll is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium
Ans : (B)

38. Which part of tongue bears cells for sour taste ?
(A) Front
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (C)

39. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes—
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Phynoderma
Ans : (C)

40. In which vertebrate does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed ?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Bird
(D) Mammal
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following circuit elements is used to ‘block’ DC in an electronic circuit ?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
(D) Diode
Ans : (B)

42. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have—
(A) Bifocal lens
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Polaroids
Ans : (A)

43. The number of satellites of the planet Mercury is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 16
Ans : (A)

44. A boy sitting in an open car moving with constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air. The ball falls—
(A) Behind him
(B) In front of him
(C) Into his hand
(D) By his side
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Ans : (D)

46. The process involved in making soap is—
(A) Saponification
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Condensation
(D) Polymerisation
Ans : (A)

47. Sea water can be purified by the process of—
(A) Distillation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Filtration
(D) Fractional distillation
Ans : (A)

48. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Elasticity
(D) Floatation
Ans : (B)

49. The compound to which H2 does not add is—
(A) Biphenyl ethylene
(B) Tetraphenyl ethylene
(C) Tetrachloro ethane
(D) Tetracyano ethylene
Ans : (D)

50. Ammonal is a mixture of—
(A) Aluminium powder and ammonium nitrate
(B) Aluminium powder and ammonium chloride
(C) Aluminium powder and ammonium sulphate
(D) Aluminium powder and potassium nitrate
Ans : (A)

51. Which gas does not form the part of atmosphere ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

52. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is—
(A) 07
(B) 09
(C) 05
(D) 04
Ans : (A)

53. A kilowatt-hour is unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Electric charge
(D) Electric current
Ans : (A)

54. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under—
(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990)
(B) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(D) Janata Party Government (1977)
Ans : (A)

55. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to—
(A) Trade Reforms
(B) Centre-State Financial Relations
(C) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises
(D) Tax Reforms
Ans : (D)

56. Molotov cocktail is a—
(A) Meeting
(B) Council
(C) Drink
(D) Grenade
Ans : (D)

57. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Yoko Ono
(D) Aung Sung
Ans : (B)

58. Who was the author of the Kadambari, a great romantic play ?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Bhaskaravardhan
(D) Bindusara
Ans : (A)

59. Who is the author of the book ‘What Went Wrong’ ?
(A) Sushma Swaraj
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Shaila Nigar
(D) Kiran Bedi
Ans : (D)

60. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace ?
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Jim Courier
(C) Pete Samprass
(D) John McNroe
Ans : (A)

61. Bhilai Steel Plant was built with the collaboration of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)

62. Ventilators are provided near the ceiling of the room because—
(A) The exhaled warmer air rises up and goes out
(B) These provide cross ventilation in the room
(C) These provide some sunlight in the room
(D) These do not look nice in the lower part
Ans : (A)

63. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Elasticity
(D) Friction
Ans : (A)

64. In severe winter, in cold countries water pipes burst because—
(A) Water expands on freezing
(B) Contraction of water pipes
(C) High atmospheric pressure
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
Ans : (A)

65. The pair which is not a twin-city is—
(A) Hyderabad-Secunderabad
(B) Durgapur-Asansol
(C) Calcutta-Howrah
(D) Delhi-New Delhi
Ans : (B)

66. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ?
(A) Yuri Gagarin
(B) Neil Armstrong
(C) Buzz Aldrin
(D) Michael Collins
Ans : (C)

67. The fuel used in an atomic reactor is—
(A) Coal
(B) Petrol
(C) Combustable gases
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)

68. The Gir Forest is noted for its—
(A) Lion sanctuary
(B) Deer-Park
(C) Tiger sanctuary
(D) Crocodile Park
Ans : (A)

69. White coal is—
(A) Uranium
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Diamond
(D) Ice
Ans : (B)

70. Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007 ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (B)

71. ICI is the name associated with—
(A) A MNC which manufactures chemicals
(B) Indian Cement Industry
(C) Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(D) A private sector bank
Ans : (A)

72. With the inclusion of Coal India Limited recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their number now stands at—
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18
Ans : (D)

73. ‘Nextzone’, an information technology SEZ is being established at—
(A) Panki in Uttar Pradesh
(B) Panvel in Maharashtra
(C) Bangalore in Karnataka
(D) Secunderabad in Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)

74. The name of India’s research station at the North pole is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Maitri
(C) Himadri
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

75. The finalists of the AFC Challenge Cup 2008 were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Tajakistan
(C) D.P.R.K. and Tajakistan
(D) Myanmar and D.P.R.K.
Ans : (B)