SSC CPO SUB INSPECTOR EXAM 2008

General Awareness

HELD ON (09-11-2008)

1. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following are incorrectly paired ?
(A) Krishnadeva Raya—Amukta malyada
(B) Harshavardhana—Nagananda
(C) Kalidasa —Ritusamhara
(D) Visakhadatta—Kiratarjuniyam
Ans : (D)

3. Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (B)

4. During which Gupta King’s reign did the Chinese traveler Fa-hien visit India ?
(A) Chandra Gupta I
(B) Samudra Gupta
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Kumara Gupta
Ans : (C)

5. The administrative consequence of the Revolt of 1857 was transfer of power from—
(A) East India Company to the British Crown
(B) British Crown to the East India Company
(C) East India Company to the Governor General
(D) British Crown to the Board of Directors
Ans : (A)

6. The issue on which the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 was launched was—
(A) Equal employment opportunities for Indians
(B) The proposed execution of Bhagat Singh
(C) Salt monopoly exercised by the British Government
(D) Complete freedom
Ans : (D)

7. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after—
(A) Every five years
(B) Every six years
(C) On the advice of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

8. Who was the last Governor-General of India ?
(A) Sir Cripps
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sir Attlee
Ans : (C)

9. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time ?
(A) B.J.P.
(B) Janata Party
(C) Janata Dal
(D) Samajwadi Janata Party
Ans : (B)

10. Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy ?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Provision of free legal aid and advice
(C) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
(D) Protection of the monuments of historical importance
Ans : (B)

11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ ?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
Ans : (D)

12. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)

13. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as—
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(B) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(C) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertaking
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

15. Match the following cities and their airports—
List-I
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(b) Heathrow
(c) Payalebar
(d) Kaitak
List-II
1. Singapore
2. Hongkong
3. London
4. Mumbai
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas ?
(A) Mulching
(B) Shelter belt
(C) Gully plugging
(D) Terracing
Ans : (B)

17. The river which is not Westflowing towards the Arabian Sea is—
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapti
(C) Periyar
(D) Kaveri
Ans : (D)

18. Tsunamis are caused by—
(A) Mixing of cold and warm currents
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Changes in sea level
(D) Volcanic eruption
Ans : (B)

19. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ?
(A) Labrador current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Canari current
(D) North Equatorial current
Ans : (D)

20. Smog is a combination of—
(A) Air and water vapours
(B) Water and smoke
(C) Fire and water
(D) Smoke and fog
Ans : (D)

21. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of—
(A) Free good
(B) Final good
(C) Producer’s good
(D) Consumer’s good
Ans : (D)

22. Disinvestment is—
(A) Offloading of shares of private companies to government
(B) Offloading of government shares to private companies
(C) Increase in investment
(D) Closing down of business concerns
Ans : (B)

23. S.D.R. stands for—
(A) Special Dollar Rights
(B) Special Drawing Rights
(C) State Drawing Rights
(D) Specific Dollar Rights
Ans : (B)

24. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc. in connection with agricultural goods is the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission
(C) Agricultural Price Commission
(D) National Marketing Commission
Ans : (B)

25. Which one of the following is a development expenditure ?
(A) Irrigation expenditure
(B) Civil administration
(C) Debt services
(D) Grant-in-aid
Ans : (A)

26. When average cost of production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be—
(A) Rising
(B) Falling
(C) Greater than the average cost
(D) Less than the average cost
Ans : (D)

27. Green Banking means—
(A) Development of forestry by banks
(B) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(C) Financing of irrigation projects by banks
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

28. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan, 1951-56
(B) Second Five Year Plan, 1956-61
(C) Third Five Year Plan, 1961-66
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan, 1966-71
Ans : (D)

29. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(D) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
Ans : (D)

30. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(D) Cannot say
Ans : (B)

31. Tetanus is caused by—
(A) Clostridium
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteriophage
(D) Salmonella
Ans : (A)

32. Vitamin E is particularly important for—
(A) Development of teeth
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism
(C) Normal activity of sex glands
(D) General health of epithelial tissues
Ans : (C)

33. Birds usually have a single—
(A) Kidney
(B) Lung
(C) Testis
(D) Ovary
Ans : (D)

34. Blood pressure is controlled by—
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Thyroid gland
(C) Thymus
(D) Corpus luteum
Ans : (A)

35. The carbon dioxide content in the air that we exhale is about—
(A) 4%
(B) 8%
(C) 12%
(D) 16%
Ans : (A)

36. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by—
(A) Loss of half of its leaves
(B) Loss of all leaves
(C) Loss of half of its branches
(D) Loss of its bark
Ans : (B)

37. Mineral constituent of chlorophyll is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium
Ans : (B)

38. Which part of tongue bears cells for sour taste ?
(A) Front
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (C)

39. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes—
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Phynoderma
Ans : (C)

40. In which vertebrate does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed ?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Bird
(D) Mammal
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following circuit elements is used to ‘block’ DC in an electronic circuit ?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
(D) Diode
Ans : (B)

42. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have—
(A) Bifocal lens
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Polaroids
Ans : (A)

43. The number of satellites of the planet Mercury is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 16
Ans : (A)

44. A boy sitting in an open car moving with constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air. The ball falls—
(A) Behind him
(B) In front of him
(C) Into his hand
(D) By his side
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Ans : (D)

46. The process involved in making soap is—
(A) Saponification
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Condensation
(D) Polymerisation
Ans : (A)

47. Sea water can be purified by the process of—
(A) Distillation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Filtration
(D) Fractional distillation
Ans : (A)

48. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Elasticity
(D) Floatation
Ans : (B)

49. The compound to which H2 does not add is—
(A) Biphenyl ethylene
(B) Tetraphenyl ethylene
(C) Tetrachloro ethane
(D) Tetracyano ethylene
Ans : (D)

50. Ammonal is a mixture of—
(A) Aluminium powder and ammonium nitrate
(B) Aluminium powder and ammonium chloride
(C) Aluminium powder and ammonium sulphate
(D) Aluminium powder and potassium nitrate
Ans : (A)

51. Which gas does not form the part of atmosphere ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

52. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is—
(A) 07
(B) 09
(C) 05
(D) 04
Ans : (A)

53. A kilowatt-hour is unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Electric charge
(D) Electric current
Ans : (A)

54. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under—
(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990)
(B) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(D) Janata Party Government (1977)
Ans : (A)

55. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to—
(A) Trade Reforms
(B) Centre-State Financial Relations
(C) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises
(D) Tax Reforms
Ans : (D)

56. Molotov cocktail is a—
(A) Meeting
(B) Council
(C) Drink
(D) Grenade
Ans : (D)

57. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Yoko Ono
(D) Aung Sung
Ans : (B)

58. Who was the author of the Kadambari, a great romantic play ?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Bhaskaravardhan
(D) Bindusara
Ans : (A)

59. Who is the author of the book ‘What Went Wrong’ ?
(A) Sushma Swaraj
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Shaila Nigar
(D) Kiran Bedi
Ans : (D)

60. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace ?
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Jim Courier
(C) Pete Samprass
(D) John McNroe
Ans : (A)

61. Bhilai Steel Plant was built with the collaboration of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)

62. Ventilators are provided near the ceiling of the room because—
(A) The exhaled warmer air rises up and goes out
(B) These provide cross ventilation in the room
(C) These provide some sunlight in the room
(D) These do not look nice in the lower part
Ans : (A)

63. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Elasticity
(D) Friction
Ans : (A)

64. In severe winter, in cold countries water pipes burst because—
(A) Water expands on freezing
(B) Contraction of water pipes
(C) High atmospheric pressure
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
Ans : (A)

65. The pair which is not a twin-city is—
(A) Hyderabad-Secunderabad
(B) Durgapur-Asansol
(C) Calcutta-Howrah
(D) Delhi-New Delhi
Ans : (B)

66. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ?
(A) Yuri Gagarin
(B) Neil Armstrong
(C) Buzz Aldrin
(D) Michael Collins
Ans : (C)

67. The fuel used in an atomic reactor is—
(A) Coal
(B) Petrol
(C) Combustable gases
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)

68. The Gir Forest is noted for its—
(A) Lion sanctuary
(B) Deer-Park
(C) Tiger sanctuary
(D) Crocodile Park
Ans : (A)

69. White coal is—
(A) Uranium
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Diamond
(D) Ice
Ans : (B)

70. Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007 ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (B)

71. ICI is the name associated with—
(A) A MNC which manufactures chemicals
(B) Indian Cement Industry
(C) Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(D) A private sector bank
Ans : (A)

72. With the inclusion of Coal India Limited recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their number now stands at—
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18
Ans : (D)

73. ‘Nextzone’, an information technology SEZ is being established at—
(A) Panki in Uttar Pradesh
(B) Panvel in Maharashtra
(C) Bangalore in Karnataka
(D) Secunderabad in Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)

74. The name of India’s research station at the North pole is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Maitri
(C) Himadri
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

75. The finalists of the AFC Challenge Cup 2008 were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Tajakistan
(C) D.P.R.K. and Tajakistan
(D) Myanmar and D.P.R.K.
Ans : (B)

SSC CENTRAL POLICE ORGANIZATION (CPO) SUB- INSPECTORS EXAM.,SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
(a) Punjab (b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala.
2. Cheep money means
(a) low rates of interest. (b) low level of saving.
(c) low level of income. (d) low level of standard of living.
3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of the US dollars and
(a) Silver. (b) Gold.
(c) Pound Sterling. (d) Diamond.
4. The Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from
(a) RBI. (b) IDBI.
(c) SBI. (d) ICICI.
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
(a) 1991. (b) 1996.
(c) 1998. (d) 2000.
6. Compared to the rich the poor save
(a) a large part of their income. (b) an equal part of their income.
(c) a smaller part of their income.(d) all of their incomes.
7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
(a) imposition of import duties. (b) liberalization of the economy.
(c) recession in other countries. (d) diversification of exports.
8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
(a) Deflation. (b) Inflation.
(c) Recession. (d) Stagflation.
9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Pulses (d) Sugarcane.
10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) C.Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age. (b) 25 years of age.
(c) 30 years of age. (d) 32 years of age.
12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd (b) 44th
(c) 52nd (d) 56th .
13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
(a) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day.
(b) the Constitution was adopted on this day.
(c) India became a Republic on the day.
(d) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day.
14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India Constitutions?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist (c) Secular
(d) Federal.
15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S.Radhakrishnan (b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain (d) V.V. Giri.
16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530. (b) 545.
(c) 540. (d) 550.
17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One.
18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
(a) Governor of the State.
(b) Chief Minister of the State.
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
(d) Finance Minister of the State
19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi. (b) Morarji Desai.
(c) V.P. Singh. (d) Chandrashekhar.
20. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) the President of India.
(b) the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
(c) the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of these.
21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on "Non-Cooperation" in 1920 as its session held at
(a) Lucknow. (b) Delhi.
(c) Bombay. (d) Calcutta.
22. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Surendranath Banerjee.
23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
(a) Educational Reforms (b) Police Reforms
(c) Industrial Reforms (d) Agricultural Reforms
24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then King of England?
(a) John Hawkins (b) William Todd
(c) Sir Thomas Roe (d) Sir Walter Raleigh.
25. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of
(a) 1909. (b) 1919.
(c) 1935. (d) None of these.
26. The transfer of Government from the ‘Company’ to the ‘Crown’ was pronounced by Lord Canning (Nov. 1, 1858) at
(a) Calcutta. (b) Delhi.
(c) Patan. (d) Allahabad.
27. The India National Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other in 1916 at
(a) Lahore. (b) Amritsar.
(c) Lucknow. (d) Haripura.
28. The first General-Secretary of the Indian National Congress was
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) A.O. Hume
(c) Ferozeshah Mehta (d) Badruddin Tyabji.
29. Raja Rammohun Roy organized a historic agitation against the
(a) caste system. (b) evil custom of sati.
(c) degrading position of women in society
(d) Practice of superfluous religious rituals.
30. "Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge…"
This was stated on the night of Aug. 14, 1947 by
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. (b) C.Rajagopalachari.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru. (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
31. The highest grade and best quality coal is
(a) Lignite. (b) Peat.
(c) Bituminous. (d) Anthracite.
32. The "Dark Continent" is
(a) Africa. (b) South America.
(c) Australia. (d) Asia.
33. Which one of the following is the wettest place in India?
(a) Mahabaleshwar (b) Cherrapunji
(c) Udhagamandalam (d) Mawsynram.
34. The approximate length of the coast-line of India is
(a) 5,500 km. (b) 6,000 km.
(c) 6,500 km. (d) 7,000 km.
35. The area with annual rainfall less than 50 cm in a year is
(a) Meghalaya. (b) Leh in Kashmir.
(c) Coromandel (d) Konkan coast.
36. Silent Valley of Kerala
(a) is the only evergreen forest in India.
(b) contains costly timber trees.
(c) is a good picnic spot.
(d) contains rare species of plants and animals.
37. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found is
(a) Kanha. (b) Dachigam.
(c) Gir. (d) Mudumalai.
38. The Visvesvaraya Iron & Steel Ltd. is located at
(a) Bangalore. (b) Bhadravati.
(c) Mangalore. (d) Mysore.
39. Which dam of India is the highest?
(a) Mettur (b) Rihand
(c) Thein (d) Bhakra.
40. Of the gross cropped area in India, the foodgrains occupy
(a) more than 70 per cent. (b) 60 to 70 per cent.
(c) 50 to 60 per cent. (d) less than 50 per cent.
41. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
(a) Rhinoceros. (b) Tiger.
(c) Lion. (d) Crocodile.
42. The colour of human skin is produced by
(a) Haemoglobin. (b) Insulin.
(c) Adrenaline. (d) Melanin.
43. Which one of the following is not transmitted via blood transfusion?
(a) Hepatitis (b) Typhoid
(c) HIV (d) Malaria
44. Which of the following is a fish?
(a) Silverfish (b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish (d) Cuttlefish
45. Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity?
(a) Kata Thermometer (b) Anemometer
(c) Sling Psychrometer (d) Clinical Thermometer
46. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
(a) 24 hours (b) 30 days.
(c) 365 days. (d) changing, continuously.
47. The type of mirrors used in the headlamp of cars is
(a) parabolic concave (b) plane
(c) spherical convex (d) cylindrical concave
48. Nuclear explosive devices were tested in India at
(a) Sriharikota (b) Bangalore
(c) Pokharan (d) Kanchipuram
49. The gradation and standardization of agricultural products are conducted through
(a) Food Corporation of India.
(b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection.
(c) Indian Standards Institution.
(d) Central Statistical Organization.
50. The luster of the metals is because of
(a) high density, due to closed packing of atoms.
(b) high polish
(c) reflection of light due to the presence of free electrons.
(d) absorption of light due to the presence of cavities
51. Flat footed camels can walk easily in sandy deserts because
(a) pressure on the sand is decreased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
(b) pressure on the stand is increased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
(c) pressure on the sand is decreased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
(d) pressure on the sand is increased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
52. The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is
(a) refraction. (b) light scattering.
(c) reflection. (d) interference.
53. Alternating current is converted into direct current by a
(a) transformer. (b) dynamo
(c) oscillator. (d) rectifier.
54. German silver used for making utensils is an alloy of
(a) copper, silver, nickel. (b) copper, zinc, nickel.
(c) copper, zinc, aluminium (d) copper, nickel, aluminium.
55. Which one of the following is used to dissolve noble metals?
(a) Nitric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Aqua regia.
56. Gunpowder was invented by
(a) Roger Bacon. (b) Colt.
(c) C.V. Raman. (d) Dr. Gatting.
57. The purity of gold is expressed in carats. The purest form of gold is
(a) 24 carats. (b) 99.6 carats.
(c) 91.6 carats. (d) 22 carats.
58. Petroleum consists of a mixture of
(a) Carbohydrates. (b) Carbonates.
(c) Hydrocarbons. (d) Carbides.
59. For which invention is Otto Hahn famous?
(a) Atom bomb. (b) Television
(c) X-rays (d) Miner’s safety lamp.
60. Which one of the following is not a plant product?
(a) Caffeine (b) Piperine
(c) Nicotine (d) Saccharin.
61. Which of the statements is correct about India’s national income?
(a) Percentage share of agriculture is higher than services
(b) Percentage share of industry is higher than agriculture
(c) Percentage share of services is higher than industry
(d) Percentage share of services is higher than agriculture and industry put together.
62. Who among the following has been appointed as the eleventh President of the World Bank for a five- year term with effect from July 1, 2007?
(a) John Wolfensohn (b) Paul Wolfowiz
(c) Robert Zoellick (d) David Morgan.
63. Who among the following has been awarded the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2005?
(a) Aparna Sen (b) Govind Nihalani
(c) M.S. Sathyu (d) Shyam Benegal
64. Permanent Revenue Settlement of Bengal was introduced by
(a) Lord Clive (b) Lord Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Cornwallis
65. In which year was the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) founded?
(a) 1967 (b) 1969
(c) 1970 (d) 1974.
66. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Indonesia – Jakarta (b) Maldives –Male
(c) North Korea- Seoul (d) Zimbabwe- Harare.
67. Which of the following is the largest parliamentary constituency in terms of area?
(a) Barmer (Rajasthan) (b) Arunachal West (Arunachal Pradesh)
(c) Ladakh (Jammu & Kashmir) (d) Uttarakhand East (Uttarakhand)
68. The first Commonwealth Games were held in the year 1930 at
(a) London (the UK). (b) Sydney (Australia)
(c) Hamilton (Canada). (d) Auckland (New Zealand).
69. The Nuclear Non- Proliferation Treaty came into force in
(a) 1967 (b) 1970
(c) 1971 (d) 1974.
70. Which State of India has the largest percentage of poor?
(a) Bihar (b) Chhatrisgarh
(c) Orissa (d) Jharkhand
71. The island of Corsica is associated with
(a) Mussolini (b) Hitler
(c) Napolean Bonaparte. (d) Winston Churchill.
72. The headquarters of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is located in
(a) Vienna. (b) Riyadh.
(c) Kuwait City. (d) Abu Dhabi.
73. When are the 19th Commonwealth Games scheduled to be held in Delhi?
(a) December, 2008 (b) November, 2009
(c) October, 2010 (d) February, 2011.
74. Jamini Roy distinguished himself in the field of
(a) Badminton (b) Painting
(c) Theatre (d) Sculpture.
75. What percentage of India population is below the official poverty line?
(a) Below 30 per cent (b) 30 per cent to 35 per cent
(c) Above 35 per cent but below 40 per cent
(d) Between 40 per cent and 45 per cent.

ANSWERS

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d)
56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (b)
66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)

SSC CGL Tier II Exam English Paper 2010

1. To pin one's faith-
(a) To be sure of some body's favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one's relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body's feelings· (d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- '
(a) Mother's milk
(b) Mother's concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives edu­cation

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one's beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one's service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one's wit's end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy's territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the 'temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and 'in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press consti­tutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)' country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyed­concern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a--
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19 – 26 Fill in the blanks

19. She has Dot recovered fully---the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed---the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

21. I look---him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)'up (c) after (d) to

22. My friend is really very good--­cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over

23. He has great affection---me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in

24. He always connives---with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at

25. I have been informed that the two bro­thers have fallen---.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted---the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously­
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these

29. Precarious­
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these

31. Valediction­
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthrope­pist

34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible

37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography

39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish

Answer:

1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. c, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a

SSC Combined Graduate Level Main Exam

Previous Solved Paper

PART-A

General Awareness

Q. 1. The salient features of the Right to information Act. 2005 and the impact on governance and society

(about 300 words)

OR

The convergence of information, Communication and Entertainment (ICE)

(about 300 words)

Q.2 Water resource and its management

(about 300 words)

OR

Indo-US co-operation in the field of nuclear energy.

(about 300 words)

Q.3. Human Rights

(about 200 words)

OR

Anti-oxidants. (about 200 words)

Q.4. Write short notes on any five from the following:

(about 75 words)

(a) PAN (Permanent Account Number)

(b) Tsunami

(c) Bio-diversity

(d) e-banking

(e) Ship- breaking in India

(f) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission.

Q.5. Write short notes on the following:

(about 50 words each)

(a) What space satellites do

(b) Greenwich Mean Time

(c) How photocopier works

(d) Why do leaves change colour in autumn

(e) How cholesterol affects the body

Q.6.(a) By which pope was the Sistine Chapel built ?

(b) Where has Pakistan set an Urdu University ?

(c) Who are the G-4 members pursuing co-ordinate action for permanent membership of the UN Security Council ?

(d) “The world year of physics,2005” is a commemorative volume on the 100^th anniversary of a historical publication. What was it ?

(e) Who is the scientist linked to the ‘Uncertainty Principle’?

(f) What is ISRO’s geostationary satellite for educational purpose called ?

(g) Which is the year in which India’s neighbors Burma and Sri Lanka became independent ?

(h) What does AK in the names K-47 and AK-56 of the rifles stand for ?

(i) Who is known for his Glasnost address to the UN General Assembly ?

(j) Who is the Irish Inventor who is considered as the father of the modern submarine?

Ans. (a) Giovanni-de-dolce

(b) Lahore

(c) Brazil, Japan, Germany and India

(d) It was the 100 years of Einstein’s miraculous work

(e) Heisenberg

(f) EDUSAT

(g) Burma – on January, 1948 ; Sri Lanka in the year 1948

(h) Anton Kalashnikov

(i) Mikhail Gorbachev

(j) D. Bushnell in 1776

Q.7. (a) Fill up the blanks in the following sentences -----

(i) A coin …….. was introduced in India on 1 April, 1957.

(ii) The Sikh Guru …….. was born at Patna in 1666.

(iii) …….. is the international cultural township founded by ‘Mother’, a disciple of Sri Aurobindo in 1968.

(iv)The planned city to the south of the Shivalik hills is known as ……….

(v) ………… is the world’s biggest maker of power of transformers.

Ans (a) (i) One Rupee , 50, 25, 10, 5,2 and naya paisa

(ii) Guru Govind Singh

(iii) Auroville

(iv) Chandigarh

(v) BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd.)

Q.7. (b) Fill up the blanks in the following sentences ----

(i) The hymn ‘Vande Mataram’ was the Hallmark of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel ………

(ii) The ………. Act, 1878, provided for the confiscation of printing press, paper and other assets of a newspaper ,

if the Govt. believed that it was publishing seditious material and had flouted an official warning.

(iii) The Congress took up the Swadeshi Call at its ………. Session in 1905, presided over by the G.K.Gokhale.

(iv) ………….. is a classical dance of Manipur.

(v) ……………. Acts as the guardian of the constitution.

Ans (b) (i) Anand Math

(ii) Vernacular Press Act

(iii) Banaras

(iv) Manipuri

(v) Supreme Court

SSC Data Entry Operator Solved Paper

Computer General Knowledge

Q-1 The bank use……………. Device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner

Q-2 ………………can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC

Q-3 Under which case will intranet be aneffective networking tool/s?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralisad organization

Q-4 When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred

Q-5 A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these

Q-6 Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression

Q-7 A program coded in programming language is____________ .
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these

Q-8 “Platform” in computer world means___________ .
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Q-9 Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Lris\ Retinal scan
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning

Q-10 what is incorrect about software?
(a) It can mamipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched

Q-11 Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost

Q-12 which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatiyely send and receive data ?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing

Q-13 What is NOT a fature of networking ?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking

Q-14 Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these

Q-15 A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q-16 Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these

Q-17 A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device

Q-18 Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above

Q-19 An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these

Q-20 A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of a Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Cann’t say

Q-21 To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above

Q-22 Which can not assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these

Q-23 Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies

Q-24 Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these

Q-25 Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these

Answer
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)

SSC Combined Graduate Level Preliminary (Prelim) Exam General Awareness Solved Paper

SSC Combined Graduate Level Preliminary (Prelim) Exam

(Held on 04/02/2007)

General Awareness

1. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by

(a) Madame Curie

(b) J.J.Thomson

(c) Roentgen

(d) Becquerel

2. Einstein’s mass energy relation is given by the expression

(a)

E 1 2 =mv

(b) E =mc2

(c)

E =mgh

(d) None of the above

3. Defect of colour blindness can be remedied by the use of

(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens

(c) Cylindrical lens (d) None of the above

4. What is a zoom lens?

(a) It is a lens having fixed focal length

(b) It is a lens having variable focal length

(c) It is a lens used in radio telescopes

(d) None of the above

5. Which one of the following is known as Marsh gas?

(a) CO

(b) CH4

(c) CO2 (d) H2

6. Chemically, lime water is

(a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Sodium carbonate

(c) Sodium hydroxide

(d) Calcium carbonate

7. Chemically, bleaching powder is

(a) Calcium hypochlorite

(b) Calcium hydroxide

(c) Sodium hydroxide

(d) Calcium sulphate

8. A gas used as a disinfectant in drinking water is

(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen

(c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine

9. Which one of the following is associated with Darwinism?

(a) Law of Use and Abuse

(b) Mutation

(c) Theory of Germplasm

(d) Natural Selection

10. Radioactivity is measured by

(a) Geiger-Mullar counter (b) Polarimeter

(c) Calorimeter (d) Colorimeter

11. The study of worms which cause parasitic infestations in man is called

(a) Helminthological (b) Herpetology

(c) Ichthyology (d) Malacology

12. The double helical structure of DNA was discovered by

(a) Watson and Crick

(b) Watson and Khurana

(c) Crick and Khurana

(d) Watson and Morgan

13. The vector for elephantiasis is

(a) Culex mosquito larva

(b) Female mosquito

(c) Infected culex mosquito

(d) Female anopheles mosquito

14. Deficiency of iron leads to

(a) Anorexia (b) Anaemia

(c) Polycythemia (d) Leucopenia

15. Which one of the following is the largest terrestrial wild animal?

(a) Indian elephant

(b) African elephant

(c) Giraffe

(d) White tiger

16. Enterobiasis is caused by

(a) Hook worm

(b) Filaria worm

(c) Pin worm

(d) Round worm

17. Who formulated the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) M.G.Ranade

(c) R.C.Dutt (d) B.C.Pal

18. The silver coins of the Gupta period were known as

(a) Dinar

(b) Rupyaka

(c) Satamana

(d) Karshapana

19. Who was the first European to designate ‘Aryans’ as a race?

(a) Sir William Jones

(b) H.H.Wilson

(c) Max Muller

(d) General Cunningham

20. Match the Sufi Saints with the Silsilas with which they were associated. Answer the

questions on the basis of codes provided below-

List -I

1. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya 2. Bahauddin Zakariya

3. Mian Mir 4. Ahmad Sirhindi

List-II

(a) Qadiri

(b) Suhrawardi

(c) Chistiya

(d) Naqshbandi

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 2 1

(B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 1 2 3 4

21. Name the State where density of population is the lowest

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Mizoram

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

22. Which State of India has recorded the highest rate of population growth in the last census

(2001)?

(a) Gujarat (b) Manipur

(c) Nagaland (d) Haryana

23. What is the correct rank roder of towns on the basis of population (2001) size?

(a) Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Bangalore, Chennai

(b) Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore

(c) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad

(d) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad

24. Identify the Indian State which has the lowest sex ratio

(a) Haryana

(b) Punjab

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

25. New firms are barred from entering the market in

(a) Perfect competition (b) Oligopoly

(c) Monopolistic competition (d) Monopoly

26. Who says that propensity to consume is stable in the short run?

(a) Keynes

(b) Hicks

(c) Arrow

(d) Stiglitz

27. In India, according to 2001 census, the general literacy rate is

(a) 65.38%

(b) 52.21%

(c) 43.57%

(d) 34.45%

28. India’s largest commercial bank is

(a) Central Bank of India

(b) State Bank of India

(c) Indian Oversea Bank

(d) Bank of India

29.

Which one of the following is not among the key objectives of the 10th Plan?

(a) Reduction of poverty ratio

(b) Drinking water for all villages by 2012

(c) Reduction in infant mortality rates

(d) Reduction in imports

30. Fiscal Policy is related to

(a) Money supply in the economy

(b) Regulation of the banking system

(c) Planning for economic development

(d) Government’s Revenue and Expenditure

31. Foreign exchange rate means the rate at which the currency of one country can be

traded for

(a) The currency of any other country in the foreign exchange market

(b) US dollar, which is the strongest currency in any foreign exchange market

(c) A fixed basket of currencies consisting of Dollar, Yen, Euro and Pound

(d) The currency of any other country as determined by the International Monetary Fund

32. The supply of a commodity does not depend directly upon

(a) Cost of production

(b) Price of the commodity

(c) Technology of production

(d) Demand for the commodity

33.

At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not

included it the Preamble?

(a) Liberty

(b) Equality

(c) Socialist

(d) Justice

34. The tenure of the Rajya Sabha is -

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(c) Permanent

(d) 2 years

35. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of -

(a) United States of America

(b) Canada

(c) Ireland

(d) United Kingdom

36. Who is considered as the father of Idealism?

(a) Plato (b) Hegel

(c) Berkeley (d) Green

37. The disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President of India are

decided by the

(a) High Court

(b) Election Commission

(c) Supreme Court

(d) Parliament

38. Match List-I (Forms of Government) with List-II (Principles) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists -

Lists-I

(a) Presidential system

(b) Parliamentary system

(c) Federal system

(d) Unitary system

List-II

1. Division of power

2. Concentration of power

3. Close relationship between executive and legislature

4. Separation of powers

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 2 1 3

39. Which part of the Indian Constitution provides for establishing Indian as a Welfare State?

(a) The preamble of the Constitution

(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution)

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution)

(d) Schedule IV of the Indian Constitution

40. Which one of the these is not a keyword of Gandhian Government?

(a) Self-sufficiency

(b) Decentralized production

(c) Equitable distribution

(d) Centralised production

41.

Match List-I (Personalities) with List-II (Activities) and select the correct answer from the

codes given below the lists-

Lists-I

(a) Vinoo Mankad

(b) Sunil Mittal

(c) Uma Sharma

(d) V. Kurian

List-II

1. Kathak Dancing

2. Dairy Development

3. Cricket

4. Telecom Industry

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 2 1 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

42. The book ‘Midnight’s Children’ has been written by

(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Tasleema Nasreen

(c) Salman Rushdie (d) Kiran Desai

43. CTBT stands for

(a) Continued Test Ban Treaty

(b) Continued Test Based Treatments

(c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

(d) Commercial Test Based Tariff

44. The Tehri Hydro Power Complex is located in the State of

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

45. ‘CDMA’ – technology used in Mobile Phones stands for

(a) Computer Developed Management Application

(b) Code Division Multiple Application

(c) Code Division Multiple Access

(d) Code Division Mobile Application

46. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer from the codes

given below the lists

Lists-I

(a) My Presidential Years

(b) The Hindu View of Life

(c) Voice of Conscience

(d) Without Fear or Favour

List-II

1. S.Radhakrishnan

2. V.V.Giri

3. N.Sanjeeva Reddy

4. R.Venkataraman

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 1 2 3

47. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Organisations/Area of Work) and select the correct

answer from the codes given below the lists-

Lists-I

(a) Amrita Patel

(b) Indra Nooyi

(c) Sunita Narayan

(d) Nandan Nilekani

List-II

1. Information Technology

2. Environmental Science

3. PepsiCo

4. Dairy Development

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

48. Who has the written the book ‘Two Lives’?

(a) Salman Rushdie

(b) Arundhati Roy

(c) Vikram Seth

(d) Shiv Khera

49.

The Ad Line ‘Express Yourself’ is associated with which Brand/Company?

(a) BSNL

(b) Airtel

(c) Hutch

(d) MTNL

50. F.A.O. is the abbreviation of

(a) Fibre and Agricultural Organization

(b) Factory Acquisition Organziation

(c) Free Arbiration Organization

(d) Food and Agriculture Organisation

ANSWER KEYS

1.

(d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)

6.(a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10.(a)

11.

(a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b)

16.

(c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21.

(c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)

26.

(a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)

31.

(a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b)

36.

(b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)

41.

(c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c)

46.

(d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d)

SSC CISF ASI PAPER - I SOLVED PAPER (29-08-2010)

SSC CISF ASI PAPER - I SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

SSC GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. Which Indian film stars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) AmitabhBachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Anawer.B

2. Williams Sisters won the U.S.
Open Women’s Doubles Title
2009 after defeating in the final-
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara
Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna
Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and
Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania
Mirza
Anawer.A

3, Which one of the following is a
military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN (B) SAARC
(C) NATO (D) NAFTA
Anawer.C

4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan
Peeth Award is-
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Anawer.C

5.World Development Report is an
annual publication of-
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Anawer.D

6. Which one of the following is
correct ?
Player Sport
(A)jeev Milkha Singh -—Tennis
(B) jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani-Badmi.nton
Anawer.B

7. _Which one of the following
industrialists was declared ’The
Business Person of the year 2008’
by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Anawer.C

S. Naina Devi peak forms a part
of-
(A) Himalayan range located in
Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in
Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in
Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in
jammu & Kashmir
Anawer.B

9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEAN-
SAT•2 satellite is—
(A) T0 provide ocean scientists
knowledge – about mineral
resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to fore-
cast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Anawer.D

10. Who amongst the following is
not the recipient of the Rajiv
Gandhi Khel Rama Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M, C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Anawer.D

ll. Nilgiri, Hirngiri and ’Beas’ are-
(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Anawer.B

12. The age of a tree can be calculated by-
(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Anawer.D

13. Which one of the statements
below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in
a Techno Park to avail the
expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing
specialist accountants, lawyers
and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading
the research and development
cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct
purchase
Anawer.C

14, Which one of the following types
of unemployment is common in
lndian agriculture
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Anawer.D

15. A rolling plan refers to a plan
which-
(A) Does not change its targets
every year
(B) Changes its allocations every
year
(C) Changes its allocations and
targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets
every year
Anawer.C

16. An instrument of qualitative
credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Answer.B

17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Anawer.C

18. Which one of the following is not
a source of the tax revenue in
Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Anawer.D

19. CSO has changed its base year
for National Income estimation.
The new base year is-
(A) 1990-91 (B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95 (D) 1995-96
Anawer.B

20. Which is the biggest enterprise of
the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Anawer.B

21. In which type of competition
does Marginal Revenue Curve
coincide with Average Revenue
Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition

Anawer.C
22. According to ]. Schumpeter,
entrepreneurs are entitled to
enjoy the profit for their ……,..
activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Anawer.A

23. Demonstration effect means~
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Anawer.B

24. Homogeneous product is a
feature of-
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Anawer.D

25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideals of
Welfare State
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State
Policy
Anawer.D

26. Who said, “Parliamentary System
provides a daily as well as a
periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B4 R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri fawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Anawer.A

27. The legal advisor to the State
Government is known as-
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney•General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Anawer.A

28. The maximum duration of Zero
Hour in Lok Sabha is—•
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Anawer.B

29. Which agency acts as co-coordinator between Union Government,
Planning Commission and State
Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development
Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Anawer.C

30. When will demand become a
grant ?
(A) When a demand is pro-
posed
(B) After the discussion on
demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is
closed
Anawer.C

31. What makes the judiciary the
guardian of the Constitution
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) judicial Review
Anawer.D

32. What is the name of judicial
organ of UNO
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of lnternational justice
(C) judicial Forum
(D) International Court of justice
Anawer.D

33. The Election disputes regarding
the Election of President and
Vice-President can be heard by-
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Cornmission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Anawer.C

34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
suggested that the structure of
Panchayati Raj should consist
of-
(A) The village, the block and
the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district
levels
(C) The village, the district and
the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the
district and the State levels
Anawer.A

35. Which of the following has
banned ’floor crossing’ by the
members elected on a party
ticket to the legislature
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal
Security Act
Anawer.A

36. The expression ’Creamy Layer’
used in the judgments of the
Supreme Court relating to the
case regarding reservations refers
to-
(A) Those sections of society
which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially
and educationally backward
classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society
that are considered advanced
according to Karpuri Thakur
formula
(D) All sections of upper castes
of the society
Anawer.B

37. When was the Panchtantra
written
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Answer.C

38. Which one among the following
is regarded as the ’Magna Carta’
of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Anawer.A

39. The battle of Mahabharata is
believed to have been fought at
Kurukshetra for-
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Anawer.C

40. The Mukteswara Temple is
located at——
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Anawer.D

41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty
was called the ’Napoleon of
India’ 7
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Anawer.A

42. Between which two rulers was
the First Battle of Panipat
fought ?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Baburand IbrahjrnLodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar
Lodi
(D) Shah Iahanancl Daulat Khan
Lodi
Anawer.B

43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Anawer.A

44. Match List-I with List-Il and
select the correct answer by
using the codes given below the
lists-
List-I List-II
(a) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(b) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(c) Bhonsles 3. lndore
(d) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes:
(zi) (b) (C) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Anawer.A

45. Which reformer from Mahara-
shtra was known as Lokhitavadi

(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Anawer.D

46. ’Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a
success because-
(A) After Akbar, it was not
patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept
other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected
to the masses
(D) All the above
Anawer.D

47. Who was the author of the book
’My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Anawer.C

48. Give the correct chronological
order of the following events-
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Un-
touch ability League .
3. Formation of All India Trade
Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4,1, 3 (B) 3, 4, 1, Z
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Anawer.D

49. 80% of the coal in India comes
from-
(A) Iharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Anawer.A

50. Dry zone agriculture in India con-
tributes nearly 40% of the total-
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Anawer.D

SSC WESTREN REGION VARIOUS POSTS

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(Western Region - WR), Mumbai

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Western Region (WR), Mumbai, invite application for the following posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

1. Assistant Foreman (Mechanicl) in O/o Controllerate of Naval Armament Inspection, Mumbai : 18 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4600, Age : 30 years
2. Assistant Foreman (Ammunition) in O/o Controllerate of Naval Armament Inspection, Mumbai : 13 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4600, Age : 30 years

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 12/11/2010 (19/11/2010 for candidates from far-flung areas) to Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission, (Western Region), 1st Floor, Pratishtha Bhavan, 101, MK Road, Mumbai-400020.

For further details and application form, please view http://www.sscwr.org/

SSC SUB INSPECTOR CPO EXAM 2010

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Central Police Organisations Examination, 2010

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will hold on Sunday, the 28/11/2010 an open compettitive examination for recruitment to the post of Sub-Inspecor in various Central Police Organisations (CPO) :

• Sub-Inspectors (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted in SSB and BSF/ Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted in CISF, ITBP and CRPF): 2275 posts (CRPF-692, BSF-557, CISF-500, ITBP-82, SSB-444), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Qualification : Gradute from a recognised university, Age : 20-25 tears as on 02/11/2010

Fee : Rs. 100/- in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps available at Post Office OR by SBI Challan OR Online payment through SBI Account. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Ex-Servicemen and Women candidates.

Closing Date : The last date for receipt of application in the commission will be 02/11/2010. For those candidates who are living in remote areas, the last date will be 09/11/2010. Candidates can apply Online also at http://ssconlinenic.in/

Cantre of Examination and Address to which Applications should be sent : The applications should be addressed to the Regional Office of the SSC for a particular test center/state where candidate wants to apply as stated in the detailed advertisement.

1. Regional Director (NR), SSC, 5th Floor, Block No.12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Raod, New Delhi-110504
2. Regional Director (SR), SSC, E.V.K. Sampath Building, College Raod, Chennai-600006
3. Regional Director (ER), SSC, 1st MSO Building, 8th Floor, Nizam Palace, 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Kolkata-700020
4. Regional Director (WR), SSC, Army & Navy Building, 1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishtha Bhawan, Old CGO Complex, 101, M.K. Road, Mumbai-400020
5. Regional Director (CR), SSC, 8-AB, Beli Raod, Allahabad-211002
6. Regional Director (NER), SSC, Rukmini Nagar, P.O. Assam, Sachivalaya, Guwahati-781006
7. Regional Director (KKR), SSC, 1st Floor, 2nd Block, 'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore-560034
8. Dy. Director (MPR), SSC, 'Nishant Villa', F.Jalvihar Colony, Raipur-492001
9. Dy. Director (NWR), SSC, Block No.3, Ground Floor, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017

For further details like scheme of examination, syllabus, application form etc., visit SSC website at http://ssc.nic.in/ or see Emplotment News dated 09-15 October, 2010.

SSC CENTRAL REGION RECRUITMENT

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(Central Region - CR)
Allahabad

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Central Region (CR), Allahabad, invite application for the following posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

1. Junior Hindi Translator in O/o CDA(Funds), Meerut Cantt : 01 post , Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2800, Age : 28 years
2. Senior Scientific Assistant-III in the Directorate pf Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage Faridabad : 01 post, Pay Scale : PB-2 Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-, Age : 18-27 years
3. Librarian in the National Seed Research & Training Centre, Varanasi : 01 post, Pay Scale: Rs. 5200-20200 with G.P. 2400/-, Age : 18-27 years
4. Junior Hindi Translator in O/o Principal Controller of Defence Accounts(CC), Lucknow : 04 posts, Pay Scale: Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-, Age : 18-28 years
5. Scientific Assistant -I in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage, Faridabad : 04 posts, Pay Scale: Rs. 5200-20200 with G.P. 2800/-, Age : 30 years
6. Senior Scientific Assistant –II (Chemistry) in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage, Faridabad : 02 posts, Pay Scale:Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-, Age : 18-27 years
7. Senior Scientific Assistant –III (Chemistry) in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage, Faridabad : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-, Age : 18-25 years
8. Technical Officer -I in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage, Faridabad : 01 post, Pay Scale: Rs. 5200-20200 with G.P. 2000/-, Age : 18-27 years
9. Professional Assistant (Hydromet) now redesignated as Scientific Assistant in the Central Water Commission, O/o Chief Engineer, Upper Ganga Basin Organization, Lucknow : 02 posts, Pay Scale: Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-, Age : 18-27 years

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 25/10/2010 (01/11/2010 for candidates from far-flung areas) to Regional Director (CR), Staff Selection Commission, 8, A-B,Beli Road, Allahabad-211002.

For further details and application form, please view http://www.ssc-cr.org/noticeboard/cr_22020_eng.pdf