General Awareness
(Exam Held On: 19-06-2011)
1. The common tree species in Nilgiri Hills is:
(A)Sal
(B)Pine
(C)Eucalyptus
(D)Teak
Answer: The correct answer would be Eucalyptus. However, the Nilgiri Hills are famous for tea gardens, eucalyptus trees as well as Pine and Cyprus trees too.
2. Which of the following statements on Railway Budget 2011-12 is correct?
(A)There would be a 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by AC
and NONAC classes
(B)There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains
(C)There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance
and freights
(D)There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance travel
Answer: D is correct
3. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily due to strong Earthquake-cum-
Tsunami that hit Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage at:
(A)Fukushima
(B)Tokyo
(C)Kyoto
(D)None of them
Answer: Fukushima
4. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen was ?
(A)Rajiv Gandhi
(B)Inder Kumar Gujaral
(C)Mammohan Singh
(D)None of them
Answer: In June 2005, Manmohan Singh became the first Indian prime minister to visit Indian troops camped in igloos on the Siachen glacier.
5. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?
(A)The Red Devil
(B)Witness the night
(C)Tonight this Savage Rite
(D)Earth and Ashes
Answer: Witness the Night.
6. Which of the following folk / tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
(A)Yakshagana
(B)Jatra
(C)Veedhi
(D)Jhora
Answer: Yakshagana
7. Who of the following received the Sangeet Natak Academi's Ustad Bismillah Khan
Puraskar for 2009 in theatre?
(A)Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B)Ragini chander sarkar
(C)Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
(D)K Nellai Maniknandan
Answer: Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
8. Which of the following country did not win any of the FIFA cup in 2002, 2006 and 2010?
(A)Brazil
(B)Argentina
(C)Spain
(D)South Africa
Answer: South Africa
9. Who invented vaccination for small pox?
(A)Sir Frederick Grant Banting
(B)Sir Alexander Fleming
(C)Edward Jenner
(D)Loius Pasteur
Answer: Edward Jenner
10. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British parliament?
(A)Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(B)W C Banerjee
(C)Dadabhai Naoroji
(D)None of the above
Answer: First India MP was Dadabhai Naoroji
11. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
(A)FDI
(B)Portfolio Investment
(C)NRI Investment
(D)Foreign Indirect Investment
Answer: Investment in securities, funds, by FII is Foreign Indirect Investment
12. BT Seed is associated with which among the following?
(A)Rice
(B)Wheat
(C)Cotton
(D)Oil Seeds
Answer: Cotton
13. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ?
(A)Geneva
(B)Paris
(C)Vienna
(D)Washington
Answer: Vienna
14. In the Budget estimates of 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 Crore has been made
to bring in second green revolution in East in the rice based cropping system of ____?
(A)Assam and West Bengal
(B)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand
(C)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
(D)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand , Eastern Uttar Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh
Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Chattisgarh.
15. In the Budget 2011-12, presented by the Finance Minister on 28.2.2011, the
income tax limit for senior citizens has been increased to ?
(A)Rs. 2.50 Lakh
(B)Rs. 2.60 Lakh
(C)Rs. 2.80 Lakh
(D)Rs. 3.00 Lakh
Answer: Rs. 2.50 Lakh. Above 80, its 5 Lakh
16. If the Anglo Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok
Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by:
(A)Prime Minister
(B)President
(C)Speaker
(D)President in consultation with Parliament
Answer: President
17. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of___?
(A)25 Years
(B)35 Years
(C)30 Years
(D)18 Years
Answer: 35 Years
18. Who said: "Good citizen makes a good state and bad citizen makes a bad state"?
(A)Plato
(B)Aristotle
(C)Rousseau
(D)Laski
Answer: Aristotle is the correct answer of this question.
19. Member of parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from
sessions for
(A)45 days
(B)60 days
(C)90 days
(D)365 days
Answer: 60 Days. Article 101(4) If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant:
20. In Indian , Residuary Powers are vested in ___?
(A)Union Government
(B)State Government
(C)Both Union and State Government
(D)Local Government
Answer: Union Government
21. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightment?
(A)Sarnath
(B)Bodhgaya
(C)Kapilvastu
(D)Rajgriha
Answer: Bodhgaya
22. Coronation of Shivaji took place in which year?
(A)1627
(B)1674
(C)1680
(D)1670
Answer: 6 June 1674
23. The system of Dyarchy was introduced in ___?
(A)1909
(B)1919
(C)1935
(D)1945
Answer: 1919, Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of Dyarchy to govern the provinces of British India.
24. The editor of Young India and Harijan was ____?
(A)Nehru
(B)Ambedkar
(C)Mahatma Gandhi
(D)Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi
25. Who of the following attended all the three round table conferences?
(A)B R Ambedkar
(B)M M Malviya
(C)Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B R Ambedkar. Dr. Ambedkar was nominated as representative of the depressed classes and he is known to have attended all the three conferences. Congress and Gandhi boycotted first in 1930 but agreed to attend second in 1931.
26. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?
(A)Emu
(B)Ostrich
(C)Albatross
(D)Siberian Crane
Answer: Ostrich
27. Rihand Dam project provides irrigation to ____?
(A)Gujarat & Maharastra
(B)Odisha and West Bengal
(C)Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(D)Kerala and Karnataka
Answer: Rihand Dam was constructed on the Rihand River in the Sonbhadra district
of Uttar Pradesh in the year 1962. Correct Answer C
28. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) is
(A)Hyderabad
(B)Thumba
(C)Sri Harikota
(D)Hassan
Answer: Hassan , Now there is in Bhopal Too.
29. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?
(A)Sir hind Canal
(B)Yamuna Canal
(C)Indira Gandhi Canal
(D)East Kosi Canal
Answer: Indira Gandhi Canal
30. Which one of the following minerals is found in Monazite Sand?
(A)Potassium
(B)Uranium
(C)Thorium
(D)Sodium
Answer: Thorium
31. Which plant is called 'Herbal Indian Doctor" ?
(A)Amla
(B)Neem
(C)Tulsi
(D)Mango
Answer: Amla
32. In Coriander, useful parts are?
(A)Roots and leaves
(B)leaves and flowers
(C)leaves and dried fruits
(D)flowers and dried fruits
Answer: leaves and dried fruits
33. The pH of Human Blood is ___?
(A)7.2
(B)7.8
(C)6.6
(D)7.4
Answer: 7.4
34. Which among the following is the largest endocrine gland of country?
(A)Thyroid
(B)Parathyroid
(C)Adrenal
(D)Pituitary
Answer: Thyroid
35. Which amongst the following is the largest mammal?
(A)Elephant
(B)Whale
(C)Dinosaur
(D)Rhinoceros
Answer: Whale (Blue Whale).
36. Which part becomes modified as the tusk of elephant?
(A)Canine
(B)Premolar
(C)Second Incisor
(D)Molar
Answer: second upper incisors
37. Optical fibres are based upon the phenomenon of which of the following?
(A)Interference
(B)Dispersion
(C)Diffraction
(D)Total Internal Reflection
Answer: Total Internal Reflection
38. Now a days, Yellow lamps are frequently used as street lights. Which among the
following gases, is used in these lamps?
(A)Sodium
(B)Neon
(C)Hydrogen
(D)Nitrogen
Answer: Sodium
39. Mirage is an example of ____?
(A)Refraction of light
(B)Total Internal Reflection of Light
(C)Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light
(D)Dispersion of Light
Answer: Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light
40. The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue color of sky is?
(A)Interference
(B)Reflection
(C)Refraction
(D)Scattering
Answer: Scattering
41. In which of the following areas, spreadsheet software is more useful?
(A)Psychology
(B)Publishing
(C)Statistics
(D)Message sending
Answer: Statistics
42. A Groupware is a
(A)Hardware
(B)Software
(C)Network
(D)Firmware
Answer: Groupware is collaborative software . Correct option B
43. Lens is made up of ___?
(A)Pyrex Glass
(B)Flint Glass
(C)Ordinary Glass
(D)Cobalt Glass
Answer: Flint glass is used as optical glass because it has relatively high refractive
index and low Abbe number.
44. The element which is used for vulcanizing rubber is?
(A)Sulfur
(B)Bromine
(C)Silicon
(D)Phosphorus
Answer: Sulfur
45. Which of the following is responsible for extra strength of Pyrex glass?
(A)Potassium carbonate
(B)Lead Oxide
(C)Borax
(D)Ferric Oxide
Answer: Borax (makes , borosilicate Pyrex)
46. The Noble Gas used for the treatment of cancer is ___?
(A)Helium
(B)Argon
(C)Krypton
(D)Radon
Answer: Radon, in radiation therapy,
47. Vasundhara Summit was held in __?
(A)USA
(B)UK
(C)Brazil
(D)Australia
Answer: Brazil, Rio De Janeiro (The question is asking about Earth Summit 1992 )
48. Loktak is a ____?
(A)Valley
(B)Lake
(C)River
(D)Mountain Range
Answer: Lake, in Manipur
49. Which city receives the highest cosmic radiation amongst the following>
(A)Chennai
(B)Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D)Delhi
Answer: The correct answer of this question is New Delhi. This is because, intensity
of cosmic radiation is dependent on three things viz. latitude, longitude, and azimuth
angle. The cosmic-ray intensity at the Equator is lower than at the poles because
charged particles tend to move in the direction of field (geomagnetic) lines and not
across them. and thus, they are concentrated in the polar regions, causing auroras
occur at the poles. In the given options, Delhi is farthest from the equator (or nearest
to Pole) and thus will receive highest radiation.
Friday, June 24, 2011
Thursday, June 2, 2011
SSC STENOGRAPHERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2010
1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible
12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need
13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion
14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless
15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent
16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide
17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor
18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand
19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent
20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement
Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite
22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste
23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination
24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity
25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose
26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity
27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient
28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly
29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative
30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise
32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious
33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate
34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway
35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport
36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary
37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation
38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither
39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible
40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos
42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly
43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with
44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest
45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for
46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected
47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think
48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate
49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back
50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.
51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism
52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature
53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent
54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable
55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier
Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us
57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop
58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?
59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt
Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement
62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement
63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement
64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement
65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement
Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—
66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP
67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR
68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS
69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR
70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS
Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off
72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many
73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with
74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have
75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was
76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over
77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done
78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged
79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with
80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it
Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.
81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents
82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun
83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man
84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books
85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above
Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.
In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.
86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus
87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed
88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate
89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period
90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety
Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.
91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried
92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead
93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass
94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet
95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food
96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come
97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from
98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans
99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait
100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but
Answers:
1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)
Monday, May 30, 2011
S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper
General Awareness
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010)
1. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on—
(A) 15th January, 1947
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 15th August, 1950
(D) 15th October, 1947
Ans : (B)
2. Despotism is possible in a—
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans : (A)
3. Marx belonged to—
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)
4. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans : (D)
5. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with—
(A) Administrative Reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State relations
Ans : (D)
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)
7. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the—
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans : (D)
8. The terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ were coined by—
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)
9. During period of inflation, tax rates should—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans : (A)
10. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India ?
(A) Agriculture sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Transport sector
(D) Banking sector
Ans : (D)
11. “Economics is what it ought to be.”—This statement refers to—
(A) Normative economics
(B) Positive economics
(C) Monetary economics
(D) Fiscal economics
Ans : (A)
12. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called—
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ surplus
(D) Consumers’ surplus
Ans : (C)
13. Silver halides are used in photographic plates because they are—
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans : (B)
14. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is—
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans : (D)
15. Curie point is the temperature at which—
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans : (D)
16. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy is—
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans : (A)
17. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator—
(A) Is less than that at the poles
(B) Is greater than that at the poles
(C) Is equal to that at the poles
(D) Does not depend on the earth’s centripetal acceleration
Ans : (A)
18. Which of the following is not a nucleon ?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans : (C)
19. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)
20. Angle of friction and angle of repose are—
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other
(C) Proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
21. Processor’s speed of a computer is measured in—
(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) Baud
(D) Hertz
Ans : (D)
22. ‘C’ language is a—
(A) Low level language
(B) High level language
(C) Machine level language
(D) Assembly level language
Ans : (B)
23. What happens to a person who receives the wrong type of blood ?
(A) All the arteries constrict
(B) All the arteries dialates
(C) The RBCs agglutinate
(D) The spleen and lymphnodes deteriorate
Ans : (C)
24. NIS stands for—
(A) National Infectious diseases Seminar
(B) National Irrigation Schedule
(C) National Immunisation Schedule
(D) National Information Sector
Ans : (C)
25. If all bullets could not be removed from gun shot injury of a man, it may cause poisoning by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Arsenic
Ans : (B)
26. Ringworm is a ……… disease.
(A) Bacterial
(B) Protozoan
(C) Viral
(D) Fungal
Ans : (D)
27. Pituitary gland is situated in—
(A) The base of the heart
(B) The base of the brain
(C) The neck
(D) The abdomen
Ans : (B)
28. Who discovered cement ?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans : (C)
29. According to RBI’s Report on the trend and progress of banking, the Non-performing Assets (NPA’s) in India for 2008-09 for Indian Banks in 2008 have stood at—
(A) 2•3 per cent
(B) 2•6 per cent
(C) 3•5 per cent
(D) 5•2 per cent
Ans : (B)
30. Windows 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has ……… Indian languages fonts.
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans : (B)
31. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with—
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans : (B)
32. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force—
(A) For three months
(B) For six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004 ?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans : (B)
34. The first nonstop airconditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between—
(A) Sealdah—New Delhi
(B) Mumbai—Howrah
(C) Bangalore—Howrah
(D) Chennai—New Delhi
Ans : (A)
35. Which among the following agencies released the report, Economic Outlook for 2009-10 ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM’s Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (B)
36. India and U.S. have decided to finalize agreements related to which of the following ?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual Property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
37. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)
38. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)
39. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as—
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans : (B)
40. Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by—
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans : (A)
41. Who coined the word ‘Geography’ ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following is called the ‘ecological hot spot of India’ ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans : (A)
43. The art and science of map making is called—
(A) Remote Sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans : (B)
44. The age of the Earth can be determined by—
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity method
(D) Fossilization method
Ans : (B)
45. The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism was—
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (B)
46. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the people; for the people’ was made by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans : (C)
47. The Lodi dynasty was founded by—
(A) Ibrahim Lodi
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans : (C)
48. Harshavardhana was defeated by—
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin II
(C) Narasimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans : (B)
49. Who among the following was an illiterate ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans : (C)
50. Which Governor General is associated with Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentinck
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010)
1. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on—
(A) 15th January, 1947
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 15th August, 1950
(D) 15th October, 1947
Ans : (B)
2. Despotism is possible in a—
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans : (A)
3. Marx belonged to—
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)
4. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans : (D)
5. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with—
(A) Administrative Reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State relations
Ans : (D)
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)
7. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the—
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans : (D)
8. The terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ were coined by—
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)
9. During period of inflation, tax rates should—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans : (A)
10. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India ?
(A) Agriculture sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Transport sector
(D) Banking sector
Ans : (D)
11. “Economics is what it ought to be.”—This statement refers to—
(A) Normative economics
(B) Positive economics
(C) Monetary economics
(D) Fiscal economics
Ans : (A)
12. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called—
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ surplus
(D) Consumers’ surplus
Ans : (C)
13. Silver halides are used in photographic plates because they are—
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans : (B)
14. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is—
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans : (D)
15. Curie point is the temperature at which—
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans : (D)
16. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy is—
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans : (A)
17. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator—
(A) Is less than that at the poles
(B) Is greater than that at the poles
(C) Is equal to that at the poles
(D) Does not depend on the earth’s centripetal acceleration
Ans : (A)
18. Which of the following is not a nucleon ?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans : (C)
19. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)
20. Angle of friction and angle of repose are—
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other
(C) Proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
21. Processor’s speed of a computer is measured in—
(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) Baud
(D) Hertz
Ans : (D)
22. ‘C’ language is a—
(A) Low level language
(B) High level language
(C) Machine level language
(D) Assembly level language
Ans : (B)
23. What happens to a person who receives the wrong type of blood ?
(A) All the arteries constrict
(B) All the arteries dialates
(C) The RBCs agglutinate
(D) The spleen and lymphnodes deteriorate
Ans : (C)
24. NIS stands for—
(A) National Infectious diseases Seminar
(B) National Irrigation Schedule
(C) National Immunisation Schedule
(D) National Information Sector
Ans : (C)
25. If all bullets could not be removed from gun shot injury of a man, it may cause poisoning by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Arsenic
Ans : (B)
26. Ringworm is a ……… disease.
(A) Bacterial
(B) Protozoan
(C) Viral
(D) Fungal
Ans : (D)
27. Pituitary gland is situated in—
(A) The base of the heart
(B) The base of the brain
(C) The neck
(D) The abdomen
Ans : (B)
28. Who discovered cement ?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans : (C)
29. According to RBI’s Report on the trend and progress of banking, the Non-performing Assets (NPA’s) in India for 2008-09 for Indian Banks in 2008 have stood at—
(A) 2•3 per cent
(B) 2•6 per cent
(C) 3•5 per cent
(D) 5•2 per cent
Ans : (B)
30. Windows 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has ……… Indian languages fonts.
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans : (B)
31. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with—
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans : (B)
32. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force—
(A) For three months
(B) For six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004 ?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans : (B)
34. The first nonstop airconditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between—
(A) Sealdah—New Delhi
(B) Mumbai—Howrah
(C) Bangalore—Howrah
(D) Chennai—New Delhi
Ans : (A)
35. Which among the following agencies released the report, Economic Outlook for 2009-10 ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM’s Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (B)
36. India and U.S. have decided to finalize agreements related to which of the following ?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual Property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
37. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)
38. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)
39. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as—
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans : (B)
40. Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by—
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans : (A)
41. Who coined the word ‘Geography’ ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following is called the ‘ecological hot spot of India’ ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans : (A)
43. The art and science of map making is called—
(A) Remote Sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans : (B)
44. The age of the Earth can be determined by—
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity method
(D) Fossilization method
Ans : (B)
45. The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism was—
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (B)
46. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the people; for the people’ was made by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans : (C)
47. The Lodi dynasty was founded by—
(A) Ibrahim Lodi
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans : (C)
48. Harshavardhana was defeated by—
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin II
(C) Narasimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans : (B)
49. Who among the following was an illiterate ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans : (C)
50. Which Governor General is associated with Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentinck
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)
S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper
English Comprehension
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010)
Directions—(Q.1–5) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given bold word and indicate your correct response.
1. Jettison
(A) Accept
(B) Reward
(C) Preserve
(D) Consent
Ans : (C)
2. Ameliorate
(A) Improve
(B) Depend
(C) Soften
(D) Worsen
Ans : (D)
3. Grotesque
(A) Natural
(B) Odd
(C) Whimsical
(D) Sinful
Ans : (A)
4. Devious
(A) Straight
(B) Obvious
(C) Simple
(D) Superficial
Ans : (C)
5. Evanescent
(A) Imminent
(B) Permanent
(C) Pervasive
(D) Immanent
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 6–10) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word and indicate your correct alternative.
6. Debacle
(A) Decline
(B) Downfall
(C) Discomfiture
(D) Degeneration
Ans : (B)
7. Ostracise
(A) Banish
(B) Belittle
(C) Beguile
(D) Besiege
Ans : (A)
8. Prophylactic
(A) Antagonistic
(B) Toxic
(C) Preventive
(D) Purgative
Ans : (C)
9. Coddle
(A) Huddle
(B) Satisfy
(C) Protect
(D) Cheat
Ans : (C)
10. Flimsy
(A) Funny
(B) Irrational
(C) Weak
(D) Partisan
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In these questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed your answer is (D).
11. To get into the building I’ll disguise as a reporter—
(A) disguise to be
(B) disguise as one
(C) disguise myself
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
12. He denied that he had not forged my signature—
(A) would not forge
(B) had forged
(C) did not forge
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
13. If I had played well, I would have won the match—
(A) I played well
(B) I play well
(C) I am playing well
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)
14. Since the records are missing, the possibility of paying more than one compensation for the same piece of land cannot be ruled aside—
(A) out
(B) off
(C) away
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
15. A callous system generates nothing but a misanthrope—
(A) develops
(B) induces
(C) produces
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate alternative.
16. One who hides away on a ship to obtain a free passage—
(A) Compositor
(B) Stoker
(C) Stowaway
(D) Shipwright
Ans : (C)
17. Clues available at a scene—
(A) Circumstantial
(B) Derivative
(C) Inferential
(D) Suggestive
Ans : (A)
18. An unexpeced piece of good fortune—
(A) Windfall
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Benevolence
(D) Turnstile
Ans : (A)
19. An emolument over and above fixed income or salary—
(A) Honorarium
(B) Sinecure
(C) Perquisite
(D) Prerogative
Ans : (C)
20. The animals of a particular region—
(A) Flora
(B) Museum
(C) Zoo
(D) Fauna
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer.
21. (A) Parapharnelia
(B) Parsimonious
(C) Peccadilo
(D) Peadiatrics
Ans : (B)
22. (A) Measureable
(B) Manageable
(C) Marriagable
(D) Manoevrable
Ans : (B)
23. (A) Tussel
(B) Tunnle
(C) Tumble
(D) Trable
Ans : (C)
24. (A) Populus
(B) Pompuous
(C) Prelious
(D) Presumptuous
Ans : (D)
25. (A) Impromptue
(B) Illustrious
(C) Illusery
(D) Impetous
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In the following questions, the Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate the appropriate alternative.
26. 1. The most vulnerable section of the society are the students.
P. Revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.
Q. Agitations may be non-violent methods of protest.
R. They cannot resist the charm of persuasion.
S. They are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.
6. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they put all proper working
out of gear.
(A) PRSQ
(B) RSQP
(C) SRPQ
(D) RPQS
Ans : (A)
27. 1. Venice is a strange city.
P. There are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of Venice.
Q. There are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.
R. These small islands are close to one another.
S. It is not one island but a hundred islands.
6. This is because Venice has no streets.
(A) SRPQ
(B) PSRQ
(C) RQPS
(D) QSRP
Ans : (D)
28. 1. One of the most terrible battles of the American Civil War was fought in July 1863, at Gettysburg.
P. The chief speech on that occasion was given by Edward Everett, a celebrated orator.
Q. Lincoln was asked to make a few remarks.
R. In November of that year a portion of the battlefield was dedicated as a final restingplace for men of both armies who died there.
S. Everett’s speech lasted 2 hours; Lincoln’s for 2 minutes; it was over almost before the crowd realized that it had begun.
6. But the Gettysburg speech, is now one of the world’s immortal pieces of literature.
(A) SQRP
(B) RPQS
(C) PQRS
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)
29. 1. The teacher training agency in England hopes to make teaching one of the top three professions.
P. They have also demanded that the campaign should be matched by improved pay scales, work load and morale so as to avoid recruitment problems with an aim to raise the image of the teaching profession.
Q. A series of advertisements are now being screened showing famous people speaking about teachers they remember and admire.
R. An amount of $ 100 million has been set aside to combat the shortage of applicants for teacher training.
S. Teacher Unions have welcomed this campaign.
6. It is high time for the Indian Government also to think on similar lines and take steps to lift up the sinking morale of the teaching profession.
(A) QRPS
(B) RPSQ
(C) RQSP
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)
30. 1. Some say that failure is like toxic waste.
P. I see failure more as a fertilizer.
Q. Thinking about it pollutes and undermines the attitudes needed for success.
R. The seeds of success must be planted afresh.
S. It can be used to enrich the soil of your mind.
6. Turning failure into a fertilizer is accomplished by using your errors as steps in learning.
(A) SRQP
(B) PQSR
(C) SPQR
(D) QPSR
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct answer.
31. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening—
(A) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(B) The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
(C) The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(D) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
Ans : (C)
32. Surely the lost child must have been found by now—
(A) Surely must have found the lost child by now
(B) Surely some one must have found the lost child by now
(C) Surely now must have found the lost child
(D) Now must have found the lost child surely
Ans : (B)
33. We serve hot meals till 10.30, guests can order coffee and sandwiches upto 11•30—
(A) Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11•30
(B) Hot meals are being served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11•30
(C) Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 11•30
(D) Hot meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11•30
Ans : (C)
34. Lie facedown; stretch your arms in front—
(A) You are facedown, arms are to be outstretched
(B) You should be lying facedown, with arms outstretched
(C) You should be lying face down; lest arms stretch out
(D) Let face be down; let arms be stretched out
Ans : (B)
35. The Greeks expected to win the international trophy—
(A) It was expected that the Greeks would win the international trophy
(B) The international trophy was expected to be won by the Greeks
(C) It was expected that the Greeks will win the international trophy
(D) It was expected by the Greeks that they would win the international trophy
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
Passage
In May 1966, the World Health Organisation was authorised to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organisation of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each smallpox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the
victim had lived was vaccinated.Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage ?
(A) The World Health Organisation
(B) The Eradication of Smallpox
(C) Smallpox Vaccinations
(D) Infectious Diseases
Ans : (B)
37. What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox ?
(A) To decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide
(B) To eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years
(C) To provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide
(D) To initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time
Ans : (B)
38. According to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of small pox ?
(A) Vaccination of the entire village
(B) Treatment of individual victims
(C) Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
(D) Extensive reporting of outbreaks
Ans : (C)
39. Which statement doesn’t refer to smallpox ?
(A) Previous projects had failed
(B) People are no longer vaccinated for it
(C) The World Health Organisation mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease
(D) It was a serious threat
Ans : (B)
40. It can be inferred that—
(A) no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
(B) malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
(C) smallpox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
(D) smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to letter (D).
41. Judge in him (A) / previaled upon the father (B) / and he sentenced his son to death. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
42. Nine tenths (A) / of the pillar (B) / have rotted away. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
43. One major reason (A) / for the popularity of television is (B) / that most people like to stay at home. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)
44. Our efforts are aimed (A) / to bring about (B) / a reconciliation. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
45. Three conditions critical (A) / for growing plants are soil, temperature, chemical balance or (B) / amount of moisture. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it.
46. The court …… cognisance of the criminal’s words.
(A) took
(B) made
(C) gave
(D) allowed
Ans : (A)
47. …… wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
(A) Whichever
(B) Whoever
(C) Whatever
(D) Wherever
Ans : (B)
48. As he got older his belief in these principles did not ……
(A) wither
(B) shake
(C) waver
(D) dither
Ans : (B)
49. Everyone in this world is accountable to God ……… his actions.
(A) about
(B) for
(C) to
(D) over
Ans : (B)
50. Your father used to be the principal of this college ……
(A) did he
(B) does he
(C) didn’t he
(D) doesn’t he
Ans : (C)
SSC CPO RECRUITMENT
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has invited applications form Male/Female Indian citizens by All India Examination for recruitment of various posts of Sub Inspectors (SI) in central Police Organizations (CPOs), Assistant Sub Inspectors (ASI) in Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) & Intelligence Officers in Narcotics Control Bureau of India (NCB) more details as followed :
- Sub Inspectors (SI) in Central Police Organizations : 1104 posts (397-GEN, 239-OBC, 245-SC, 223-ST) Age : 20 to 25 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 9300-34800/- + Grade Pay Rs. 4200/- (CRPF : 133 posts, BSF : 136 posts, CISF : 352 posts, ITBP : 333 posts, SSB : 150 posts)
- Assistant Sub Inspectors (ASI) in Central Industrial Security Force : 678 posts (101-GEN, 49-OBC, 182-SC, 346-ST, 68-EX.SM), Age : 20 to 25 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 5200 -20200/- + Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-
- Intelligence Officers (IO) in Narcotics Control Bureau : 100 posts, Age : 20 to 27 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 9300-34800/- + Grade Pay Rs. 4600/-
Educational Qualification : Graduation in any discipline from any recognized University OR equivalent in the minimum educational qualification.
Application Fee : Rs. 100/- (No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women & Ex-Serviceman) will be paid i) OFFLINE : Through "Central Recruitment Fee Stamp” (CRFS) available at the counter of all Post Offices of the country. ii) ONLINE : Candidates who are applying Online should pay in State Bank of India branches of through payment Challan Form Or Net-Banking which can be printed from online (available at SSC website).
How to Apply : Apply ONLINE OR OFFLINE i) OFFLINE : Applications in the prescribed format along with all necessary documents and complete in all respects should reach to the Related SSC Offices on or before 24/06/2011 (01/07/2011 for Far Flung Area) ii) ONLINE : Apply Online at SSC Website www.ssconline.nic.in
Closing Date : Last date for filling of the OFFLINE & ONLINE application is 24/06/2011 (5PM)
Exam Date : 28/08/2011 (Sunday)
For SSC ASI/SI Recruitment Exam 2011 Complete details like Reservations, Age Relaxations, Qualifications, Physical Standards, Selection Process etc. Please View : http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Final_Notice_CPO,2011.pdf
Or Log on : http://ssc.nic.in OR Kindly see Employment News dated 28/05/2011 Page No 17.
Or Log on : http://ssc.nic.in OR Kindly see Employment News dated 28/05/2011 Page No 17.
Tuesday, May 24, 2011
SSC EASTERN REGION RECRUITMENT
SSC (Eastern Region) has released a recruitment notification for the recruitment of various vacancies for qualified applicants in Group ‘B’ and Group ‘C’. Who are interested applicants may apply these posts through offline on or before 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011) up to 5.00 PM.
Total no. of posts: 36 posts
Name of the posts:
1. Library Clerk (Laboratory): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs.5200–20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900 /-, (PB-1)
2. Scientific Assistant: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200–20200/-, Grade Pay `2800 /-, (PB-1)
3. Assistant Examiner of Trade Marks & Geographical Indications: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 – 34800/-, Grade Pay `4200/-, (PB-2)
4. Scientific Assistant (Chemical): 08 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
5. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Civil): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
6. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Rubber-Plastic-Textile): 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
7. Scientific Assistant (Electrical): 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
8. Scientific Assistant (Mechanical): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
9. Scientific Assistant-I: 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.2800/-, (PB-1)
10. Library & Information Assistant (Reprography): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300–34800/-, Grade Pay Rs.4200 /-, (PB-2)
11. Fieldman: 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs.5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900/-, (PB-1)
12. Scientific Assistant (non-destructive): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
13. Storekeeper: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200-20200 + GP `1900 (PB-1).
Age limit: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of age limit.
Educational qualification: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of educational qualification and experience.
Application fee: The applicants should pay the fee in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS) only, for Rs 50/- (No fee for SC-ST-PH-EXSM-Women candidates) these stamps are available at the counter of all post offices of the country, the recruitment fee stamps may be affixed on the application form in the space given in the application form.
Selection process: The selection to the posts will be made on the basis of interview/personality test/skill test/screaming test/proficiency test.
How to apply: The eligible applicants may send their application in prescribed format, given in the advertisement, one recent passport size photograph should be pasted on the application form another copy of the photograph should be attached the application form, along with attested photo copies of all necessary certificates and Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS), to the following address, Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Nizam Palace, Ist MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata-700020, on or before 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.
Last date for receipt of application: 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.
For more complete details about age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, no. of posts, experience, application fee, how to apply, application format, selection procedure, last date for receipt of application and other details of www.sscer.org is available at given below link…
www.sscer.org Advt & Application Format
Total no. of posts: 36 posts
Name of the posts:
1. Library Clerk (Laboratory): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs.5200–20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900 /-, (PB-1)
2. Scientific Assistant: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200–20200/-, Grade Pay `2800 /-, (PB-1)
3. Assistant Examiner of Trade Marks & Geographical Indications: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 – 34800/-, Grade Pay `4200/-, (PB-2)
4. Scientific Assistant (Chemical): 08 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
5. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Civil): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
6. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Rubber-Plastic-Textile): 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
7. Scientific Assistant (Electrical): 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
8. Scientific Assistant (Mechanical): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
9. Scientific Assistant-I: 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.2800/-, (PB-1)
10. Library & Information Assistant (Reprography): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300–34800/-, Grade Pay Rs.4200 /-, (PB-2)
11. Fieldman: 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs.5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900/-, (PB-1)
12. Scientific Assistant (non-destructive): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
13. Storekeeper: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200-20200 + GP `1900 (PB-1).
Age limit: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of age limit.
Educational qualification: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of educational qualification and experience.
Application fee: The applicants should pay the fee in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS) only, for Rs 50/- (No fee for SC-ST-PH-EXSM-Women candidates) these stamps are available at the counter of all post offices of the country, the recruitment fee stamps may be affixed on the application form in the space given in the application form.
Selection process: The selection to the posts will be made on the basis of interview/personality test/skill test/screaming test/proficiency test.
How to apply: The eligible applicants may send their application in prescribed format, given in the advertisement, one recent passport size photograph should be pasted on the application form another copy of the photograph should be attached the application form, along with attested photo copies of all necessary certificates and Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS), to the following address, Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Nizam Palace, Ist MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata-700020, on or before 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.
Last date for receipt of application: 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.
For more complete details about age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, no. of posts, experience, application fee, how to apply, application format, selection procedure, last date for receipt of application and other details of www.sscer.org is available at given below link…
www.sscer.org Advt & Application Format
Sunday, May 15, 2011
SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier II Exam English Paper 2010
1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives
2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people
(c) To hurt some body’s feelings
(d) To trust others
3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter
4. Alma Mater- ‘
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(d) Institution where one receives education
5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody
6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody
7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others
8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive
Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.
Obviously. thus power which the Press in an ’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.
9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal
10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power
11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual (b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons
12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses
13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all
14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government
15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.
16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern
17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy (d) is not very high
18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship
19 - 26 Fill in the blanks
19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against
20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for
21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to
22. My friend is really very good–cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over
23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in
24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at
25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out
26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of
Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same
27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion
28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these
29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable
30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these
Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement
32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable
33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist
34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless
35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.
36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible
37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary
38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography
39. Government by officials
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy
40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish
Answer:
1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives
2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people
(c) To hurt some body’s feelings
(d) To trust others
3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter
4. Alma Mater- ‘
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(d) Institution where one receives education
5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody
6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody
7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others
8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive
Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.
Obviously. thus power which the Press in an ’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.
9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal
10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power
11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual (b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons
12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses
13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all
14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government
15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.
16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern
17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy (d) is not very high
18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship
19 - 26 Fill in the blanks
19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against
20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for
21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to
22. My friend is really very good–cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over
23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in
24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at
25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out
26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of
Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same
27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion
28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these
29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable
30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these
Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement
32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable
33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist
34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless
35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.
36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible
37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary
38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography
39. Government by officials
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy
40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish
Answer:
1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a
Saturday, April 30, 2011
SSC Tax. Assistant Examination 2007 solved Paper
General Awareness
1. What is the International Date Line?
(a) It is the equator
(b) It is the 00 longitude
(c) It is the 900 east longitude
(d) It is the 1800 longitude
2. The oldest type of energy known to man is
(a) wind power
(b) solar power
(c) tidal power
(d) geothermal energy
3. Rusting of iron takes place due to
(a) oxidation
(b) carbonation
(c) exidiation
(d) corrosion
4. The river also known as Tsangpo in Tibet is
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Indus
(d) Teesta
5. The largest ocean is
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Arctic Ocean
(d) Pacific Ocean
6. Energy that is produced commercially from coal is called
(a) Light energy
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Thermal energy
(d) Potential energy
7. Jhum cultivation is a method of cultivation which used to be practiced in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Central Highland
(c) Coastal Tamil Nadu
(d) Nagaland
8. Earthquake is caused by
(a) disturbance of earth surface
(b) adjustment of layers of earth’s crust
(c) breakage of rock system
(d) upliftment of rocks
9. We always see the same face of the moon, because
(a) it is smaller than the earth
(b) it revolves on its axis in a direction opposite to that of the earth
(c) it takes equal time for revolution around the earth and rotation on its own axis
(d) it rotates at the same speed as the earth around the sun
10. The largest producer of gold in the world is
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) South Africa
11. The busiest and the most important sea route of the world is
(a) North Pacific Sea Route
(b) North Atlantic Sea Route
(c) South Atlantic Sea Route
(d) Indian Ocean Route
12. In terms of area, India is the – largest country of the world.
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
13. The word ‘Veda’ means
(a) knowledge (b) wisdom
(c) skill
(d) power
14. Ain-i-Akbari was written by
(a) Firishta
(b) Ibn Batuta
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Birbal
15. The medieval city of Vijayanagar is not known as
(a) Chandragiri
(b) Halebidu
(c) Hampi
(d) Kondavidu
16. Which one of the following Mughal buildings is said to possess the unique feature of
being exactly equal in length and breadth?
(a) Agra Fort
(b) Red Fort
(c) Taj Mahal
(d) Buland Darwaza
17. With the fall of which among the following, the French Revolution began?
(a) Bastille
(b) Communes
(c) Jacobin Club
(d) Pillnitz
18. The founder of the ‘Brahmo Samah’ was
(a) Swami Dayananda Sarawati
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Vivekananda
19. The correct chronological order in which the British established their trading centre in
the places mentioned below is
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, Surat
(b) Bombay, Madras, Surat, Calcutta
(c) Surat, Madras, Bombay, Calcutta
(d) Surat, Madras, Calcutta, Bombay
20. The Revolt of 1857 was started by
(a) the Sepoys
(b) the Zamindars
(c) the Peasants
(d) the Plantation Workers
21. After leaving the congress, Subhash Chandra Bose formed, in 1939, his own party,
named
(a) Socialist Block
(b) Revolutionary Socialist Block
(c) Forward Block
(d) Socialist-Congress Block
22. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet of Lokmanya during
(a) his imprisonment in 1908
(b) Home Rule Movement
(c) Revolutionary Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
23. ‘Do or Die’ (Karenge ya Marenge) – Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the
eve of which mass movement?
(a) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(b) Salt Satyagraha
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement
24. Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) M A Jinah
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
25. ‘Directive Principle’’ in our Constitution are
(a) enforceable in the courts of law
(b) quasi-enforceable
(c) partly non-enforceable
(d) non-enforceable in the courts of law
26. CTBT denotes
(a) arms control measure
(b) drugs control measure
(c) financial control measure
(d) trade control and regulation
27. Name the State carved out of Madhya Pradesh after the Parliament passed the
legislation in the year 2000
(a) Vanachal
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Vidarbha
(d) Uttaranchal
28. Dialectial Materialism is associated with the theory of
(a) Fabianism
(b) Communism
(c) Liberalism
(d) Individualism
29. A motion moved by a member in a legislature when it is desired to have a discussion
on a matter of urgent public importance is called
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) No-confidence motion
(c) Cut motion
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following was established by B R Ambedkar?
(a) Swaraj Party
(b) Samaj Samata Party
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party
(d) The Independent Labour Party
31. No Government Expenditure can be incurred in India except with the sanction of
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the President
(d) the Supreme Court
32. Which one country is not a permanent member of the Security Council of the United
Nations?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Russia
(d) USA
33. When does Lok Sabha or a Vidhan Sabha election candidate forfeit his security
deposit?
(a) When he fails to win the election
(b) When he fails to secure even 1/4 of total votes polled
(c) When he fails to secure even 1/5 of total votes polled
(d) When he fails to secure even 1/6 of total votes polled
34. The term of office of the members of the UPSC is
(a) 3 years, or till they attain 58 years of age
(b) 5 years, or till they attain 60 years of age
(c) 6 years, or till they attain 65 years of age
(d) 6 years
35. Who was in favour of a partyless democracy?
(a) Jai Prakash Narain
(b) Bhupendra Nath Dutta
(c) M N Roy
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
36. The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended
(a) by the State Legislatures acting together
(b) by the Parliament alone
(c) with the major approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures
(d) only on ratification by half of the States
37. Economics of Scales means reduction in
(a) unit cost of production
(b) unit cost of distribution
(c) total cost of production
(d) total cost of distribution
38. RBI does not transact the business of which State Government?
(a) Nagaland (b) Jammu & Kashmir (c) Punjab (d) Assam
39. The famous book The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money is written
by
(a) J B Say
(b) J M Keynes
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Carincross
40. The definition of ‘small-scale industry’ in India is based on
(a) sales by the unit (b) investment in machines and equipments
(c) market coverage (d) export capacity
41. When the total product rises at an increasing rate, the
(a) marginal product is zero
(b) marginal product is rising
(c) marginal product is falling
(d) marginal product remains constant
42. Water pipes in hilly areas often burst on a cold frosty night, because
(a) the material of which pipes are made contracts due to cold and so breaks
(b) water in the pipes freezes and on freezing water expands, so pipes
(c) burst makes the pipes rusty, so they break
(d) none of the above
43. With which form of economy is the term ‘Laissez-faire’ associated?
(a) Capitalist economy
(b) Socialist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Command economy
44. In the budget figures of the Government of India, interest payments, subsidies,
pensions, social services and the like are parts of the
(a) Plan Expenditure (b) State Government Expenditure
(c) Public Debt in the form of Capital Expenditure
(d) Non-plan Expenditure
45. ‘Green Accounting’ means measuring the National Income of the country taking into
account estimation of
(a) the total forest area of the country
(b) the destruction of forest cover of the country
(c) pollution and environmental damage
(d) area of reclaimed fallow land
46. The supply of agricultural products is generally
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic
47. Which of the following taxes is not collected by the Central Government?
(a) Income tax
(b) Customs duty
(c) Professional tax
(d) Excise duty
48. The latest addition to the list of UNESCO’s world heritage sites in India is
(a) Qutub Minar
(b) Humayun’s Tomb
(c) Khajuraho Temple
(d) Red Fort
49. The countries separated by the Mac-Mahon Line are
(a) Afghanistan and Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh and India
(c) China and India
(d) Pakistan and India
50. The permission given to a bank customer to draw cheques in excess of his current
account balance is called
(a) a personal loan
(b) an ordinary loan
(c) discounting a bill of exchange
(d) an overdraft
51. A proclamation of emergency, under Article 352, on account of war or aggression
requires approval of the Parliament within
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) four months
(d) six months
52. The first Defence Minister of India was
(a) K M Cariappa (b) Gopalaswami Aiyangar
(c) Baldev Singh (d) Sardar Patel
53. Provincial Autonomy was introduced in India by the
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
54. Which one country is still governed by a monarch?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Iran
(c) Iraq
(d) Saudi Arabia
55. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution upholds
(a) land reforms legislation in India
(b) diplomatic privileges and immunities
(c) special status of Jammu and Kashmir State
(d) duties and rights of Lokpal
56. Who amongst the following is the author of the classic book Life Divine?
(a) Ravi Shankar
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Radha Krishnan
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh
57. The first woman to become a Chief Minister of any State in India was
(a) Nandini Satpathy
(b) Dr. J. Jayalalitha
(c) Sucheta Kripalani
(d) Mayawati
58. A parachute descends slowly whereas a stone dropped from the same height falls
rapidly, because
(a) stone is heavier then parachute
(b) special mechanisms are present in parachute
(c) a parachute has a larger surface area and air resistance is more
(d) None of these
59. Jaduguda is associated with the mining of
(a) iron
(b) mica
(c) uranium
(d) copper
60. Salim Ali was an eminent
(a) Urdu poet
(b) Ornithologist
(c) Ghazal singer
(d) None of the above
61. ‘Survey of India’ is under the Ministry of
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology
62. Name the President of India who was elected unopposed
(a) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(b) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Dr. Fakhruddina Ali Ahmed
(d) Dr. Zakir Husain
63. The authority which is not established by the constitutional provisions is
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) UPSC
(d) Election Commission
64. Which of the following organizations is the oldest?
(a) IMF
(b) WHO
(c) ILO
(d) FAO
65. The Department of Space proposed setting up of Indian Institute of Space Technology
on the line of the seven IITs. It will have its independent campus at
(a) Chennai
(b) Thumba
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Sriharikota
66. Which metal was first used by the Vedic people?
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Iron
(d) Copper
67. Ryder Cup is related with which sports?
(a) Football
(b) Golf
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
68. In our Constitution, Economic Planning is included in
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Not any specified list
69. ‘NABARD’ is associated with the dev
elopment of
(a) agricultural sector and rural area (b) heavy industries
(c) banking sector
(d) real estates
70. World No. 2 Rafael Nadal won the French Open, 2007 defeating
(a) Stegan Edberg
(b) Andy Roddick
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Fred Alexander
71. Which one of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Sugarcane
72. Imputed gross rent of owner-occupied buildings is a part of
(a) capital formation
(b) final consumption
(c) intermediate consumption
(d) consumer durable
73. How many strings are there on a Sarod?
(a) 7
(b) 19
(c) 5
(d) 4
74. Which one of the following is the tallest bird?
(a) Peacock
(b) Penguin
(c) Ostrich
(d) Emu
75. Which one of the following animals is called farmer’s friend?
(a) Ant
(b) Earthworm
(c) Bee
(d) Butterfly
76. The largest planet in our solar system is
(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Saturn
(d) Butterfly
77. The term ‘gene’ was coined by
(a) T.H.Morgan
(b) W.L.Johanssen
(c) G.Mendel
(d) De Vries
78. Which of the following creatures has maximum number of ribs?
(a) Crocodile
(b) Snake
(c) Ray fish
(d) Flying mammal
79. Which one of the following is most important for the growth of children up to the age
of 14?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin
(c) Fat
(d) Milk
80. Study of newly born up to the age of 3 months is called
(a) Chorology
(b) Conchology
(c) Nematology
(d) Neonatology
81. Which one of the following does not secrete any digestive enzyme?
(a) Liver
(b) Salivery gland
(c) Glands of small intestine
(d) Pancreas
82. In a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy of brotherhood and peace, the UN
General Assembly declared his birth anniversary, October 2, as the
(a) International Day of Non-Violence
(b) International Day of Co-operation
(c) International Day of Peace and Co-operation
(d) International Day of Prace and Non-Violence
83. Which one of the following is related to Silviculture?
(a) Culture of Hilsa
(b) Culture of silver carp
(c) Culture of oil-producing plants
(d) Forests crops
84. The term ‘GM food’ refers to the food
(a) that grows under genetic measures
(b) that is genetically modified
(c) that grows under geographical modification
(d) with greater glucose metabolism capacity
85. The only age of India found in hill forests of Assam and Nagaland is
(a) Orangutan
(b) Gibbon
(c) Chimpanzee
(d) Gorilla
86. Free Trade refers to
(a) free movement of goods from one country to another
(b) movement of goods free of cost
(c) unrestricted exchange of goods and service
(d) trade free of duty
87. Which gas is used as fire extinguisher?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon suboixde
(d) Sulphur dioxide
88. Which one of the following is extensively used for sterilizing water?
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Alum
(c) Borax powder
(d) Soda powder
89. Which mixture of gases is mainly stored as a liquid under pressure in LPG cylinder?
(a) Methane and Ethane
(b) Ethane and Hexane
(c) Propane and Butane
(d) Hexane and Octane
90. The energy stored in a watch spring is
(a) kinetic energy
(b) potential energy
(c) heat energy
(d) chemical energy
91. Which one of the following acids is used in battery?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Hydrofluoric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Sulphurous acid
92. The sensation of weightlessness in a spacecraft in an orbit is due to the
(a) absence of gravity outside
(b) acceleration in the orbit which is equal to the acceleration due to gravity outside
(c) presence of gravity outside but not inside the spacecraft
(d) fact that spacecraft in the orbit has no energy
93. The major constituent of air is
(a) nitrogen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) oxygen
(d) hydrogen
94. Which of the following organisms is most likely to produce greenhouse gases such as
nitrous oxide and methane?
(a) Fungi
(b) Earthworm
(c) Bacteria
(d) Green plants
95. Where is the largest reflecting telescope of Asia?
(a) Kodaikanal
(b) Ooty
(c) Kavalur
(d) Naintal
96. ‘Therm’ is the unit of
(a) power
(b) heat
(c) light
(d) distance
97. Cream gets separated out of milk when it is churned. This is due to
(a) gravitational force
(b) centripetal force
(c) centrifugal force
(d) frictional force
98. Newton’s 1st law of motion gives the concept of
(a) energy
(b) work
(c) momentum
(d) inertia
99. The process by which sun’s rays reach the earth is
(a) radiation
(b) conduction
(c) convection
(d) diffusion
100. A pond of water appears less deep due to
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) polarisation
ANSWERS:
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c)
10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b)
28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d)
55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b)
64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (d) 72. (b)
73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (a)
82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a)
100. (c)
Tuesday, April 19, 2011
Saturday, April 2, 2011
SSC Southern Region Recruitment
Staff Selection Commission is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:
1.Assistant Central Intelligence Officer Grade I (Wireless Telegraphy) in Intelligence Bureau- 45
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: Bachelor's degree in Electronics Engineering or Tele-Communication Engineering or Computer Science and Engineering or Master's degree in Computer Applications or B.E./B.Tech in Information Technology or M.Sc in Physics with Wireless Technology as a subject from a recognized University or equivalent.
2.Botanical Assistant in Botanical Survey of India- 05
Age: 20 -25 years
Qualification: Second class B Sc (Hons.) or B.Sc with Botany with not less than 55% marks in aggregate
3.Instructor (Drawing) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering Training (CIFNET)- 01
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: B.E.in Mechanical/Marine Engineering from a recognized University or equivalent; or/ Diploma in Mechanical Engineering issued by the State Board of Technical Education or equivalent with at least two years experience in machine drawing
4.Junior Scientific Assistant in Central Drugs Testing Laboratory, Chennai- 03
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: A Degree in Chemistry or Pharmacy or Microbiology or Bio-Chemistry or Pharmaceutical Chemistry or equivalent recognized by a University
5.Library and Information Assistant in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering Training (CIFNET)- 01
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: Bachelor Degree in Library Science of a recognized University or Institute or equivalent
6.Assistant Foreman (Ammunition Workshop) in the Naval Armament Organisation- 10
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: Degree in Engineering in the disciplines of Mechanical, Electrical,Electronics (including Electronics and Communication and Electronics and Telecommunication)/ Master's Degree in Science with Wireless Communication, Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering or equivalent
7.Assistant Foreman (Factory) in the Naval Armament Organisation- 10
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: Degree in Engineering in the disciplines of Mechanical,Electrical or Electronics (including Electronics and Communication and Electronics and Telecommunication).(OR) Master's Degree in Science with Wireless Communication, Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering or equivalent.
8.Research Assistant in National Centre for Disease Control- 01
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: A Master's Degree in relevant speciality (i.e.) Zoology/Microbiology/Biochemistry.
9.Senior Technical Assistant (Hydrogeology) in Central Ground Water Board- 16
Age: 18-30 years
Qualification: Master's Degree in Geology or Hydrogeology or Applied Geology from a recognized University or equivalent.
Application Lastdate: 05-05-2011
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