S.S.C. C.P.O. Sub-Inspector Exam., 2011 Solved Paper

General Knowledge and General Awareness 

(Exam Held on 28-8-2011) 

1. The adoption of High Yielding Variety Programme in Indian Agriculture started in–
(A) 1968
(B) 1967
(C) 1966
(D) 1965
Ans : (C)

2. 'Brown Revolution' is–
(A) Growth of fodder industry
(B) Growth of sea products
(C) Growth of milk and milk products
(D) Growth of food processing and soft drinks industries in India
Ans : To encourage tribal people to grow socially responsible and environment friendly coffee to cater to the demand from developed countries.

3. The total value of goods and services produced in a country during a given period is–
(A) Disposable income
(B) National income
(C) Per capita income
(D) Net national income
Ans : (B)


4. Mechanization of Indian agriculture on a considerable scale is not possible due to–
(A) Small holdings
(B) Lack of tractors
(C) Poverty of the peasants
(D) Indifference of the people
Ans : (A)

5. Which one of the following is not a function of the central bank in an economy?
(A) Dealing with foreign exchange
(B) Controlling monetary policy
(C) Controlling government spending
(D) Acting as a banker's bank
Ans : (C)

6. The three-tier Panchayat Raj System in India was proposed by the–
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Royal Commission
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

7. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machinery ?
(A) 352
(B) 356
(C) 360
(D) 350
Ans : (B)

8. Through which principle / device did Mahatma Gandhi strive to bridge economic inequalities ?
(A) Abolition of machinery
(B) Establishment of village industries
(C) Adoption of non-violence
(D) Trusteeship theory
Ans : (D)

9. Who said that "Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you!" ?
(A) G. B. Shaw
(B) Carpenter
(C) Lord Bryce
(D) Appa Dorai
Ans : (A)

10. The member-states of the U.N.O. have delegated the primary responsibility for maintaining world peace and security to the–
(A) General Assembly
(B) Economic and Social Council (EcoSoC)
(C) Security Council
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist text produced in India ?
(A) Divya Vandana
(B) Dohakosa
(C) Vajrachedika
(D) Vamsathapakasini
Ans : (C)

12. Arthasastra was written by–
(A) Dhanananda
(B) Kautilya
(C) Bimbisara
(D) Pushyamitra
Ans : (B)

13. Who translated Ramayana into Persian ?
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Badauni
(C) Abdul Latif
(D) Isar Das
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following was the first English ship that came to India ?
(A) Elizabeth
(B) Bengal
(C) Red Dragon
(D) Mayflower
Ans : (A)

15. The All India Muslim League was founded by–
(A) Maulana Ahmed Ali
(B) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(C) Agha Khan
(D) Hakim Ajmal Khan
Ans : (C)

16. Golden Revolution refers to–
(A) Sericulture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Apiculture
(D) Viticulture
Ans : (B)

17. Which one of the following is a major port on the East Coast of India ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Vishakhapattnam
(C) Karikal
(D) Pondicherry (Puducherry)
Ans : (B)

18. The approximate circumference of the Earth is–
(A) 13,000 km
(B) 20,000 km
(C) 25,000 km
(D) 30,000 km
Ans : (A)

19. When did India join the International Tsunami Warning System ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans : (A)

20. 'Cod' is a variety of–
(A) Goat
(B) Fish
(C) Crop
(D) Coral
Ans : (B)

21. A large number of identical plants can be obtained in a short span of time through–
(A) Large number of seeds of a single plant
(B) Stem cuttings
(C) Tissue culture technique
(D) Hydroponics method
Ans : (C)

22. The smallest flowering plant is–
(A) Wolffia
(B) Lemma
(C) Azolla
(D) Ficus
Ans : (A)

23. Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal increase of the–
(A) Red blood cells
(B) White blood cells
(C) Blood platelets
(D) Blood plasma
Ans : (B)

24. The total number of bones in our body is–
(A) 226
(B) 206
(C) 256
(D) 236
Ans : (B)

25. The poison of honey bee is–
(A) Acidic
(B) Alkaline
(C) Saltish
(D) Protein
Ans : (A)

26. Birds which swim in water have–
(A) Webbed feet
(B) Broad wings
(C) Long beaks
(D) Toes with claws
Ans : (A)

27. A balloon filled with helium rises in air because–
(A) Air exerts an upward force on the balloon
(B) The balloon is weightless
(C) Helium is less dense than air
(D) Helium pushes down on the air below the balloon
Ans : (C)

28. One can distinguish a telescope from a microscope by observing–
(A) Length
(B) Colour
(C) Size of the lens
(D) Length and size of the lens
Ans : (C)

29. The sound produced by a bat is–
(A) Audible
(B) Subsonic
(C) Infrasonic
(D) Ultrasonic
Ans : (D)

30. When a bar magnet is cut into two equal halves, the pole strength of each piece–
(A) Becomes double
(B) Becomes half
(C) Becomes zero
(D) Remains the same
Ans : (D)

31. Cooking oil is converted into vegetable ghee by the process of–
(A) Crystallisation
(B) Condensation
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Oxidation
Ans : (C)

32. Rusting of iron requires–
(A) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(8) Oxygen and water
(C) Carbon dioxide only
(0) Oxygen only
Ans : (B)

33. Glass is a–
(A) Pure solid
(B) Supercooled liquid
(C) Gel
(D) Polymer
Ans : (B)

34. Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of–
(A) Radium
(B) Thorium
(C) Lead
(D) Polonium
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the toxic heavy metals is found in modem tannery industries ?
(A) Nickel
(B) Zinc
(C) Chromium
(D) Lead
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following contains high content of lead ?
(A) Coal
(B) Cooking gas
(C) High octane fuel
(D) Low octane fuel
Ans : (C)

37. Electrostatic precipitator is used to control–
(A) Air pollution
(B) Water pollution
(C) Solid waste
(D) Noise pollution
Ans : (A)

38. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is located at–
(A) Pune
(B) Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

39. A new technology which provides the ability to create an artificial world and have people interact with it is called–
(A) Televirtuality
(B) Virtual reality
(C) Alternate reality
(D) 3-D reality
Ans : (A)

40. A parallel port is most often used by a–
(A) Printer
(B) Monitor
(C) Mouse
(D) External storage device
Ans : (A)

41. Kuchipudi is a dance-drama associated with the State of–
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Manipur
Ans : (B)

42. X-rayswere discovered by–
(A) Faraday
(B) Roentgen
(C) H. Davy
(D) Lavoisier
Ans : (B)

43. Who among the following is not a recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award ?
(A) V. Shantaram
(B) Raj Kapoor
(C) Mukesh Bhatt
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)

44. The book 'Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India' was in news some time back and was banned in some Indian States including Gujarat. The author of the book is–
(A) Joseph Lelyveld
(B) Michael Ondaatje
(C) Jack Welch
(D) Duncan Green
Ans : (A)

45. The secret operation carried out successfully by the US Navy Seals, in which Osama Bin Laden, the world's most wanted terrorist was killed, was code-named as–
(A) Jasmine
(B) Rose
(C) Geronimo
(D) Cobra
Ans : (C)

46. As per the latest 'Sample Registration Survey Report' released some time back by the Census Office at New Delhi, there has been a significant improvement in the 'Newborn Mortality Rate' per 1000 live births in India during the period 1990-2009. What has been the percentage drop during this period ?
(A) 33%
(B) 29%
(C) 35%
(D) 42%
Ans : (A)

47. Premlata Agarwal has become the oldest Indian woman to scale Mount Everest at the age of 45. She belongs to the State of–
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)

48. The government set up a committee headed by the Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes some time back to go into–
(A) Codification of tax laws
(B) The entire structure of tax laws including the question of imposition of bank tax
(C) The concerns of the foreign investors in India with regard to taxation matters
(D) Aspects of generation of black money, its transfer abroad and bringing back such money into India's legitimate financial system
Ans : (D)

49. Who got the 'Purple Cap' for taking maximum number of wickets in IPL-4 series ?
(A) Harbhajan Singh
(B) Lasith Malinga
(C) Daniel Vettori
(D) Albie Morkel
Ans : (B)

50. At which place did the Union Finance Minister, Pranab Mukherjee lay the foundation stone for anew banknote paper mill some time back ?
(A) Surat
(B) Aurangabad
(C) Mysore
(D) Guntur
Ans : (C)

SSC Karnataka Kerala Region Various Job Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has announced the advertisement for the recruitment of various vacancies in various departments in Kerala Karnataka Region through advertisement no-KKR-3/2011. Eligible candidates have to apply through prescribed application format. The following are the details about age limit, educational qualifications, no of vacancies & other information regarding SSC KKR recruitment are mentioned below.


SSC KKR Various Vacancies Details
Total no of vacancies: 47
Name of the post:
1. Sub Inspector / Fire in Central Industrial Security Force, Ministry of Home Affairs: 25
2. Research Assistant (Central Institute of Indian Languages, Ministry of Human Resource Development: 7
3. Senior Scientific Assistant-III (Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Ministry of Agriculture: 7
4. Research Assistant in National Centre for Disease Control, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare: 1
5. Assistant Librarian in Central Institute of Indian Languages, Ministry of Human Resource Development: 1
6. Junior Engineer in Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery, Ministry of Agriculture: 2
7. Junior Chemist in Directorate of Marketing & Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture: 1
8. Stockman in Central Cattle Breeding Farm, Ministry of Agriculture: 1
9. Technical Officer-1 in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Ministry of Agriculture: 1
10. Language Typist (Malayalam) in Central Institute of Indian Languages, Ministry of Human Resource Development: 1

Application fee:
Eligible Candidates have to pay the fee for Rs 50/- (No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women/EXSM candidates) in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS). These stamps are available at all departmental Post Offices of the country. These stamps may be pasted on the application form in the space provided for the purpose.
Selection procedure:
Candidates are selected on the basis of screening test/written proficiency test/Interview
How to apply:
Eligible candidates have to download application form from the website www.ssckkr.kar.nic.in Send filled application form along with one recent passport size photograph attested on the application form and one additional duly attested photograph to be enclosed, together with attested Xerox copies of required essentials and enclosures, One self-addressed post-card duly affixed with an additional Rs.6/- postage stamp, Two self-addressed envelopes worth of Rs 6/- and Central Recruitment Fee Stamps of Rs.50/- by post on or before 02-12-2011 to the following address “The Regional Director (KKR), Staff Selection Commission, Ist Floor, ‘E’ Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore–560034”

Last date for the receipt of application form: 02-12-2011 (for remote areas: 09-12-2011)
For more information regarding age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, application fee, application format, how to apply, selection process, experience, last date for receipt of application, no. of posts and other information of SSC Kerala Karnataka Region is available at following link.

Click Here For SSC KKR Various Vacancies Advt & Application Form

SSC CISF Consteble Exam Solved Paper

ENGLISH

(Exam Held on: 05-06-2011)

Directions: In Questions 1 to 5, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. Tame (N)
(A) wild
(B) savage
(C) domesticated
(D) silent

2. Mercy
(A) merit
(B) sympathy
(C) loss
(D) pain

3. Obscene
(A) beautiful
(B) unhealthy
(C) unwanted
(D) indecent

4. Effect
(A) result
(B) warning
(C) chance
(D) purpose

5. Speculate
(A) think
(B) guess
(C) argue
(D) speak

Directions: In Questions 6 to 10, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark in the Answer Sheet.

6. Tentative
(A) definite
(B) insufficient
(C) plentiful
(D) active

7. Compulsory
(A) easy
(B) optional
(C) unnecessary
(D) mandatory

8. Adamant
(A) satisfied
(B) comfortable
(C) yielding
(D) luxurious

9. Honest
(A) infect
(B) cleanse
(C) corrupt
(D) pollute

10. Oral
(A) written
(B) correct
(C) mental
(D) verbal

Directions: In the following passage (11 to 15), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternative given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

There _ 11__ in the city of Ujjain a poor tailor _ 12__ Ramphal. As he was very poor, he __13__ to live and work in one little with his wife and __14__ three small children. The children fought _ 15__ each other and made so much noise.

11. (A) lived
(B) stayed
(C) inhabited
(D) existed

12. (A) famous
(B) named
(C) known
(D) titled

13. (A) wished
(B) liked
(C) had
(D) wanted

14. (A) few
(B) a few
(C) their
(D) some

15. (A) to
(B) upon
(C) for
(D) with

Directions: In Question 16 to 20, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by a blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

16. The telephone kept ________ ringing, but no one attended.
(A) off
(B) on
(C) up
(D) up with

17. She is sad, because her father turned _______ her request.
(A) in
(B) off
(C) out
(D) down

18. You should not confide _______ a stranger.
(A) in
(B) to
(C) with
(D) by

19. Poets have compared this word _______ a stage.
(A) with
(B) to
(C) by
(D) on

20. I prevailed _______ him to contest the election.
(A) on
(B) off
(C) over
(D) of

Directions: In Questions 21 to 25, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding (D) in the Answer Sheet.

21. Pacific Ocean is (A)/ the deepest ocean(B) / in the world.(C)/ NO error.(D)

22. You will com(A) / to my sister’s wedding tomorrow,(B) / isn’t it?(C)/ No error(D)

23. I am(A) / your’s(B) / affectionate son.(C)/ No error.(D)

24. Beside Hindi, (A)/ she knew (B)/ Bengali well.(C)/ No error(D)

25. He walks(A)/ as if the earth (B)/ belonged to him.(C)/ No error.(D)

ANSWERS:

1.(C) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(A) 5.(B) 6.(A) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(A) 11.(A) 12.(B) 13.(C) 14.(C) 15.(D)
16.(B) 17.(D) 18.(B) 19.(A) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(A) 25.(D)

SSC Data Entry Operator & LDC Exam

GENERAL AWARENESS

(Exam Held on:  27-11-2010)

1. The unit of ionic product of water (Kw) is:
(a) Mol2 let-1
(b) Mol2 let-2
(c) Mol-1 let-2
(d) Mol-1 let-1

2. What is the name of the Fort build by the English in Calcutta?
(a) Fort St. David
(b) Fort St. Andrew
(c) Fort William
(d) Fort Victoria

3. National Income include:
(a) Financial help to earthquake victims
(b) Pocket money of a child
(c) Winning of a lottery prize
(d) Construction of a new house

4. There is a need to keep larger area under forests for:
(a) absorption of carbon dioxide
(b) protecting wildlife
(c) raising precipitation
(d) geological balance

5. The Shipra path Police Station that has been adjudged the best in the word is in:
(a) New Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Mumbai

6. Who amongst the following was the Last Guru of the Sikhs?
(a) Guru Arjun Dev’
(b) Guru Teg Bahadur
(c) Guru Gobind Singh
(d) Guru Angad Dav

7. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after,
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

8. The situation on which total Revenues equals total cost, is known as:
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Equilibrium level of output
(c) Break even point
(d) Perfect competition

9. When two cubes of ice are pressed on each other, what is the cause of their being one ?
(a) Van Der Waals Force
(b) Dipole moment
(c) Hydrogen bond formation
(d) Covalent attraction

10. When milk is churned, the cream separates from it due to:
(a) Frictional force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Viscous forces

11. Moving electric charge produces:
(a) magnetic field
(b) sound waves
(c) light rays
(d) heat waves

12. The crop which occupies maximum cultivated area in India is:
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Gram
(d) Linseed

13. The S.I. unit of electric charge is:
(a) ampere
(b) coulomb
(c) e.s.u
(d) Kelvin

14. Demand curve of a firm under perfect competition is:
(a) horizontal to ox-axis
(b) negatively sloped
(c) positively sloped
(d) U-shaped

15. Who was the Chola king who brought Ganga from North to South?
(a) Raja Raja Chola
(b) Mahendra
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Parantaka

16. The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued in the event of:
(a) Loss of Property
(b) Refund of Excess Taxes
(c) Wrongful Police detention
(d) Violation of the freedom of speech

17. Light beam which is highly directional is called:
(a) eraser
(b) grazer
(c) maser
(d) laser

18. The most abundant constituent of atmospheric are is:
(a) carbon
(b) hydrogen
(c) oxygen
(d) nitrogen

19. Which is the administrative capital of Malayasia?
(a) Putrajaya
(b) Seremban
(c) Taiping
(d) Ipoh

20. Fiber diet in includes:
(a) glycogen
(b) proteins
(c) cellulose
(d) fats

21. Tuberculosis infection is by means of:
(a) Mycobacterium avonin
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(d) Streptococcus

22. How many ago-climatic zones are there in India as far as the official categorization of the Ministry of Agriculture is concerned?
(a) 123
(b) 126
(c) 127
(d) 122

23. The word’s wettest continent is:
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) South America

24. Dumping of solid waste in lowlying areas earth cover is called as:
(a) Sanitary landfilling
(b) Open dumping
(c) Compositing
(d) Incineration

25. Permissible noise level at Residential area during night time is:
(a) 45 dB (A)
(b) 55 dB (A)
(c) 75 dB (A)
(d) 80 dB (A)

26. The author of the Book Title ‘The Future of India’, is:
(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) Depak Chopra
(c) Amitav Ghosh
(d) N.K. Singh

27. The expenditure made on which of the following does not require budgetary approval enery year in India?
(a) Defence
(b) Natural calamities
(c) Consolidated fund
(d) Contingency fund

28. The Baisakhi Festival of the year 1999 is of great historical significance to Punjab because
(a) it commemorates the tercentenary of the foundation of Khalsa Panth
(b) it being the last such festival of the twentieth century
(c) of participation by a large number of Punjabis who are non resident Indians
(d) None of the above

29. The abnormal constituent of urine is
(a) urea
(b) creatinine
(c) albumin
(d) sodium

30. Value of out put and value added can be distinguished if we know:
(a) the value of intermediate consumption
(b) the value of net indirect taxes
(c) the value of the sales
(d) the value of consumption of fixed capital

31. The disease that is caused by virus is:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Malaria

32. The 3rd Commonwealth Youth Games were held at:
(a) Pune
(b) Karachi
(c) Dhaka
(d) London

33. The team ‘PC-XT’ refers to—.
(a) Personal Computer External Technology
(b) Personal Computer Extended Technology
(c) Personal Computer Expanded Technology
(d) Personal Computer Embedded Technology

34. Transfer payments include:
(a) Gifts received from a friend
(b) rent free accommodation by the employer
(c) net factor income from abroad
(d) employee’s contribution to social security

35. The marginal revenue of a monopolist is:
(a) more than price
(b) equal to price
(c) less than price
(d) less than marginal cost

36. The most important element of weather affecting agriculture in India is:
(a) Pemperive
(b) Humidity
(c) Wind
(d) Rainfall

37. What was Chandraputa II also known as?
(a) Samudra Gupta
(b) Skanda Gupta
(c) Vikramaditya
(d) Ranaa Gupta

38. October 2nd of every year has been declared by UNO as:
(a) International Non-violence day
(b) International heritage day
(c) International Moral Values day
(d) International anti-terrorism day

39. In plants water is absorbed by the root hairs by a process called:
(a) Transpiration
(b) Respiration
(c) Perspiration
(d) Osmosis

40. The element which is required by the plant in large quantity:
(a) Calcium
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Sulphur

41. Which of the following gods are worshipped in the sanctum of Badrinath and Kedarnath temples respectively?
(a) Visnu and Shiva
(b) Shiva and Vishnu
(c) Shiva and Parvati
(d) Vishnu and Brahma

42. Which one of the following ocean currents does not occur in Atlantic Ocean?
(a) Gulf stream
(b) Brazil current
(c) Peru current
(d) Canary current

43. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

44. Energy in reflected light:
(a) does not depends on the angle of incidence
(b) increases with the increase in angle
(c) decreases with the increase in angle of incidence
(d) becomes maximum for angle of incidence equal to 45o

45. Which gas is used for converting vegetable oils into saturated fats?
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2

46. Which one of the following gives energy to our body?
(a) Vitamins
(b) Water
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Proteins

47. Which of the following pairs has open type of circulatory system?
(a) Earthworm and Leech
(b) Man and Whale
(c) Cockroach and Silverfish
(d) Tadpole larva and Fish

48. Chemical name of bleaching powder is:
(a) Calcium chlorate
(b) Calcium hypochlorite
(c) Calcium chloro hypochlorite
(d) Calcium bi chloride

49. When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizen incorporated in the constitution?
(a) 1952
(b) 1976
(c) 1979
(d) 1981

50. Alcoholic (–OH) group can be identified by:
(a) Tollen’s Reagent Test
(b) Esterfication Test
(c) FeCl3 Test
(d) Ozonolysis Reaction

ANSWERS:

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (d) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (c)

S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam 2008

General Awareness

1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—
(A) Bangkok
(B) Singapore
(C) Kualalumpur
(D) Manila
Ans : (D)


2. Explicit cost means—
(A) Payments made for short period
(B) Payments made for long period
(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs
(D) Payments made for productive resources
Ans : (D)


3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—
(A) The social consideration
(B) The economic consideration
(C) The political consideration
(D) The geographical consideration
Ans : (D)


4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) Organisation
Ans : (C)


5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—
(A) Income generation
(B) Large scale production
(C) Low cost technology
(D) Employment generation
Ans : (D)


6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?
(A) Imports from abroad
(B) Purchase of assets from abroad
(C) Sale of assets abroad
(D) Purchase of gold from abroad
Ans : (C)


7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—
(A) A reduction in total cost of production
(B) A reduction in average cost of production
(C) A reduction in prices of inputs
(D) An increase in profitability of producers
Ans : (B)


8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—
(A) Capitalist countries
(B) Socialist countries
(C) Advanced countries
(D) Developing countries
Ans : (D)


9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—
(A) The market rate of interest
(B) Select industries for investments
(C) Banks giving loans
(D) The cash reserve ratios
Ans : (A)


10. Total costs is a combination of—
(A) Fixed cost and variable cost
(B) Money cost and real cost
(C) Economic cost and social cost
(D) Past cost and future cost
Ans : (A)


11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 245
(B) 250
(C) 260
(D) 300
Ans : (A)


12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—
(A) 355
(B) 356
(C) 357
(D) 358
Ans : (A)


14. When did India become a Republic ? On—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) December 10, 1946
Ans : (C)


15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?
(A) Brahma Gupta
(B) Aryabhatta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) Ramanujam
Ans : (B)


16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—
(A) Residence of the Monks
(B) Hall of Worship
(C) Dining Hall
(D) Congregation Hall
Ans : (D)


17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?
(A) 1947 A.D.
(B) 1961 A.D.
(C) 1951 A.D.
(D) 1954 A.D.
Ans : (B)


18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (B)


19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?
(A) Tanjore
(B) Madurai
(C) Rameshwaram
(D) Chidambaram
Ans : (D)


20. Australia is particularly known for—
(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation
(B) Sheep rearing and Mining
(C) Lumbering and Paper Mills
(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation
Ans : (B)


21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—
(A) Increase the acidity of the soil
(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil
(C) Decrease the acidity of the soil
(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil
Ans : (D)


22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?
(A) CFC’s
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
Ans : (A)


23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—
(A) Loss of water
(B) Entry of water
(C) Loss of solutes
(D) Entry of solutes
Ans : (B)


24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) No antigen
Ans : (D)


25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Is zero
Ans : (B)


26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—
(A) 200 to 300 db
(B) 300 to 400 db
(C) 500 to 600 db
(D) 0 to 180 db
Ans : (D)


27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—
(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon
(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth
(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon
(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star
Ans : (B)


28. The Angstrom unit measures—
(A) Temperature
(B) Electric current
(C) Time
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (D)


29. We can hold a pen due to the—
(A) Force of gravity
(B) Force of friction
(C) Force of weight
(D) Work done by our muscles
Ans : (B)


30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—
(A) 0•42 joule
(B) 4•2 joule
(C) 42 joule
(D) 420 joule
Ans : (B)


31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Alpha particles
Ans : (A)


32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Bromine
(C) Glass
(D) Ice-cream
Ans : (C)


33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Protein
(C) Antibody
(D) Hormone
Ans : (B)


34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—
(A) Sodium
(B) Barium
(C) Potassium
(D) Calcium
Ans : (B)


35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?
(A) Building up of tissues
(B) Catalysing some reactions
(C) Growth of bones
(D) Repair of torn tissues
Ans : (B)


36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—
(A) Mercury
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Zinc
Ans : (D)


37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—
(A) Neoprene
(B) Nylon
(C) Rayon
(D) Polyester
Ans : (A)


38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—
(A) Silver
(B) Aluminium
(C) Mercury
(D) Lead
Ans : (C)


39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?
(A) Co-terminus with that of the President
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person
Ans : (B)


40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans : (A)


41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The US Constitution
(C) The British Constitution
(D) The UN Charter
Ans : (A)


42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?
(A) An algae
(B) A bacterium
(C) A synthetic process
(D) A fungus
Ans : (D)


43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Lipids
Ans : (C)


44. Acid present in Tamarind is—
(A) Citric acid
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Tartaric acid
(D) Oxalic acid
Ans : (C)


45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Cholera
(C) Common cold
(D) Tetanus
Ans : (C)


46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?
(A) Darjeeling district
(B) Kashmir
(C) Hills in Madhya Pradesh
(D) Nilgiri Hills
Ans : (B)


47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?
1. Black pepper
2. Cardamom
3. Cloves
4. Ginger
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)


48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to strike
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to freedom of religion
Ans : (A)


49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?
(A) The District Judge
(B) The Human Rights Commission
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court
(D) The Director General of Police
Ans : (C)


50. What does hail consist of ?
(A) Granular ice
(B) Crystals of ice
(C) Water droplets
(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other
Ans : (D)

SSC FCI Asst Gr-III, Hindi Asst Gr-II & Typist (Hindi) Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has announced advertisement for the recruitment of 3754 Assistant Grade-III, Hindi Assistant Grade-II & Typist (Hindi) vacancies in various zones for Food Corporation of India (FCI). Eligible candidates have to apply through online  & prescribed application format. The following are details about age limit, educational qualifications, no of vacancies & other details regarding SSC Recruitment are mentioned below:
SSC FCI Various vacancies Details:
Total no of vacancies: 3754

Name of the post:
Assistant Grade-III, Hindi Assistant Grade-II & Typist (Hindi) vacancies in following zones
1. North Zone: 1946
a. Assistant Grade-III (General): 242
b. Assistant Grade-III (Accounts): 137
c. Assistant Grade-III (Technical): 661
d. Assistant Grade-III (Depot): 823
e. Hindi Assistant Grade-II: 12
f. Typist (Hindi): 71

2. East Zone: 315
a. Assistant Grade-III (General): 90
b. Assistant Grade-III (Accounts): 30
c. Assistant Grade-III (Technical): 157
d. Hindi Assistant Grade-II: 10
f. Typist (Hindi): 28

3. South Zone: 699
a. Assistant Grade-III (General): 77
b. Assistant Grade-III (Accounts): 63
c. Assistant Grade-III (Technical): 267
d. Assistant Grade-III (Depot): 278
e. Hindi Assistant Grade-II: 2
f. Typist (Hindi): 13

4. West Zone: 718
a. Assistant Grade-III (General): 109
b. Assistant Grade-III (Accounts): 21
c. Assistant Grade-III (Technical): 352
d. Assistant Grade-III (Depot): 226
e. Hindi Assistant Grade-II: 5
f. Typist (Hindi): 5

5. North East Zone: 76
a. Assistant Grade-III (General): 4
b. Assistant Grade-III (Accounts): 1
c. Assistant Grade-III (Technical): 60
d. Hindi Assistant Grade-II: 6
f. Typist (Hindi): 5

Age limit: Candidates should have an age below27 years as on 01-01-2012 for Assistant Grade-III vacancies & 28 years for Hindi Assistant Grade-II vacancies & 25 years for Typist (Hindi) vacancies

Application fee: Eligible candidates have to pay 200/- as application fee in SBI branches

Selection procedure: Candidates are selected on the basis of written examination & document Verification

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can apply through either online or offline modes. The following are the details for online application form & offline application form are mentioned below

Online Application Form:
Eligible candidates have to apply through online from the websites http://www.ssconline.nic.in and http://www.sscregistration.sifyitest.com . on or before 25-11-2011

Offline Application Form:
Eligible candidates have to download application form from the website www.ssc.nic.in. Send typed application form by post on or before 25-11-2011 to the respective address

Important dates:
Staring date of submission of online application: 29-10-2011
Closing date of submission of online application: 25-11-2011
Last date for the receipt of application: 25-11-2011 (for remote areas: 02-12-2011)
Written test for Assistant Grade-III: 04-02-2012 & 05-02-2012
Written test for Hindi Assistant Grade-II & Typist: 22-01-2012
for more details regarding age limit, educational qualifications, pay scale, how to apply, selection procedure, no of posts, application fee & other details of SSC Recruitment is available at below links

Click Here For SSC Various Vacancies in FCI Advt Details
Click Here For Online Application Form
Click Here For Application Form

SSC Central Regional Office Recruitment

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
Central Regional Office
Allahabad 

Application in the prescribed format for the following posts of Senior Scientific Assistant in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage, Faridabad 

• Senior Scientific Assistant :  08 posts (UR-4, OBC-3, ST-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4200/-, Qualification : B.Sc. Agriculture, Age : 18-25 years.

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) only through Central Recruitment fee stamps, available at post offices.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 29/11/2011 to Regional Director (CR), Staff Selection Commission, 8, A-B, Beli Road, Allahabad - 211002.

For further details and application form, either visit website http://www.ssc-cr.org or see Employment News dated 29 October 2011.

SSC CPO RESULT

SSC: SUB-INSPECTORS IN CPOS, ASSISTANT SUB INSPECTORS IN CISF AND INTELLIGENCE OFFICER IN NCB,2011-DECLARATION OF RESULT (ONLY FOR POST OF INTELLIGENCE OFFICER IN NCB)


SSC: SUB-INSPECTORS IN CPOS, ASSISTANT SUB INSPECTORS IN CISF AND INTELLIGENCE OFFICER IN NCB,2011-DECLARATION OF RESULT (LIST OF ADDITIONAL MALE CANDIDATES QUALIFIED IN PAPER-I)




SSC: SUB-INSPECTORS IN CPOS, ASSISTANT SUB INSPECTORS IN CISF AND INTELLIGENCE OFFICER IN NCB,2011-DECLARATION OF RESULT(LIST OF ADDITIONAL FEMALE CANDIDATES QUALIFIED IN PAPER-I)

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier-II) 2011 Result

Staff Selection Commission conducted the Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination, 2011 on 3rd and 4th September, 2011 at the various centers scattered all over the country. The result of the examination was declared on 29th September, 2011

Marks of 84625 candidates qualified/not qualified in CGL Tier-II Examination, 2011 including candidate rejected in Tier-II and have been awarded Zero Marks due to wrong coding of their particulars (Name, Roll No., Ticket No., Test Form No., without signature and without left hand thumb impression) on the front page of their OMR answer sheet is now placed the website.

Write-up/Cutoff Marks:

The Staff Selection Commission conducted the Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination, 2011 on 3rd and 4th September, 2011 at the various centers scattered all over the country. The result of the examination was declared on 29th September, 2011

Marks of 84625 candidates qualified/not qualified in CGL Tier-II Examination, 2011 including candidate rejected in Tier-II and have been awarded Zero Marks due to wrong coding of their particulars (Name, Roll No., Ticket No., Test Form No., without signature and without left hand thumb impression) on the front page of their OMR answer sheet is now placed the website. The abbreviations used for the purpose of indicating rejection are as under:

• TF No. – Test Form Number.
• TKT No. - Ticket Number.
• W S - Without Signature.
• R.No. - Roll Number.
• LTI - Left Hand Thumb Impression
• INVROLL- Invalid Roll Number

The marks are placed on the website without prejudice to the Commission’s decision to verify the details in first page of OMR sheets of the candidates with reference to other documents and without prejudice to the Commission causing examination suo-moto or otherwise on adherence to Commission’s Guidelines and Instructions.

Click Here For Write-up/Cutoff Marks

Click Here For Result

 

SSC Scientific Assistants Recruitment

SSC Scientific Assistant Recruitment 2011  Staff Selection Commission invites online applications (http://www.ssconline.nic.in) from eligible candidates for recruitment to 465 vacant posts of Scientific Assistants in The Indian Meteorological Department.
Important Dates :

• Commencement of Part-I Registration Online : 01-10-2011
• Last Date for Part-I Registration Online : 26-10-2011
• Last Date for Part-II Registration Online : 28.10.2011 upto 5 P.M
• Date of Exam: 18.12.2011

Fee : Rs. 100/- (No Fees for SC/ST/PH/Women) Payable through Challan Generated after Part-I Registration or Online Net Banking of SBI.
Pay Scale : Pay Band-2 (Rs.9300-34800) plus Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Total No. of Vacancies : 465 (UR-230, OBC-128, SC-70, ST-37) & Horizontal reservation for OH-10 & HH-10).
Age Limit (as on 28.10.2011) : Not more than 30 years.
Selection Procedure : Written Exam – Personal Interview
Education Qualification : Bachelor’s Degree in Science (with Physics as one of the subject) / Computer Science / Information Technology / Computer Applications or Diploma in Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering from a recognized Institution / University or equivalent.
More Details & Online Applications  :

• http://www.ssconline.nic.in 
• Recruitment of Scientific Assistants for Meteorological Department Detailed Notification
• APPLICATION FORM

SSC Junior Translators AND Junior Hindi Translators Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Junior Translators (CSOLs)/ Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices) and Hindi Pradhyapak (in Central Hindi Institute) etc. Examination,  2011

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will hold on Sunday, the 18/12/2011 an open competitive examination for recruitment to the following posts  in various Offices/ Departments under Department of of Official Language all over country.

• Junior Translators (CSOLs) (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted):  Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-
• Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)  (Group ‘C’ Non-Technical) : Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/- 
• Senior Translators (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted):  Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4600/- in Ministry of Defence
• Junior Translators (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted):  Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/- in Ministry of Defence
• Hindi Pradhyapak (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted):  Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4800/- in Central Hindi Training Institute 

Age Limit : 30 years as on 01/08/2011. Relaxation as per Govt. rules.

Fee : Rs. 100/- in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps available at Post Office. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Ex-Servicemen and Women candidates.

Closing Date : The last date for receipt of application in the commission will be 21/10/2011. For those candidates who are living in remote areas, the last date will be 28/10/2011.

Cantre of Examination and Address to which Applications should be sent : The applications should be addressed to the Regional Office of the SSC  for a particular test center/state where candidate wants to apply as stated in the detailed advertisement. 

1. Regional Director (NR), SSC, 5th Floor, Block No.12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Raod, New Delhi-110504
2. Regional Director (SR), SSC, E.V.K. Sampath Building, College Raod, Chennai-600006
3. Regional Director (ER), SSC, 1st MSO Building, 8th Floor, Nizam Palace, 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Kolkata-700020
4. Regional Director (WR), SSC, Army & Navy Building, 1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishtha Bhawan, Old CGO Complex, 101, M.K. Road, Mumbai-400020
5. Regional Director (CR), SSC, 8-AB, Beli Raod, Allahabad-211002
6. Regional Director (NER), SSC, Rukmini Nagar, P.O. Assam, Sachivalaya, Guwahati-781006
7. Regional Director (KKR), SSC, 1st Floor, 2nd Block, 'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore-560034
8. Dy. Director (MPR), SSC, 'Nishant Villa', F.Jalvihar Colony, Raipur-492001
9. Dy. Director (NWR), SSC, Block No.3, Ground Floor, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017

For further details like scheme of examination, syllabus, application form etc., visit SSC website at  http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Notice_of_JHT_2011.pdf and application format is available at http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Application_form_JHT2011.pdf

SSC EASTERN REGION RECRUITMENT

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(Eastern Region - ER)

234/4, A.J.C. Bose Road, Nizam Palace, 1st MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata - 700020  

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Eastern Region (ER), Kolkata, invites application for the following  posts  :

• Assistant (Legal) :  21 posts (UR-11, SC-3, ST-2, OBC-5), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4600/-, Age :  30 years, Qualification : Degree in Law with 3 years experience.
• Junior Technical Assistant :  01 post (OBC-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4200/-, Age :  28 year

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 24/10/2011 (31/10/2011 for candidates from far-flung areas) to the   Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission, (Eastern Region),  234/4, A.J.C. Bose Road, Nizam Palace, 1st MSO Building,  8th Floor, Kolkata - 700020.

For further details and application form, please view http://www.sscer.org

SSC CPO EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

                
           General Awareness  

                                     Exam Held On: 28-08- 2011

1. Who said that “Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you!”?
    a) G.B.Shaw
    b) Carpenter
    c) Lord Bryce
    d) Appa Dorai
2. The adoptation of High Yielding Variety Programme in Indian Agriculture started in
    a) 1968
    b) 1967
    c) 1966
    d) 1965
3. ‘Brown Revolution’ is
    a) growth of fodder  industry
    b) growth of sea products
    c) growth of milk and milk products
    d) growth of food processing and soft drinks industries in India
4. The total value of goods and services produced in a country during a given period is
    a) Disposable income
    b) National income
    c) Per Capita Income
    d) Net national income
5. Mechanization of Indian agriculture on a considerable scale is not possible due to
    a) small holdings
    b) lack of tractors
    c) poverty of peasants
    d) indifference of the people
6. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the central bank in an economy?
    a) Dealing with foreign exchange
    b) Controlling monetary policy
    c) Controlling government spending
    d) Acting as banker’s bank
7. The three-tier Panchayat Raj System in India was proposed by the
    a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
    b) Ashok Mehta Committee
    c) Royal Commission
    d) None of the above
8. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a state due to the
    failure of the constitutional machinary?
    a) 352
    b) 356
    c) 360
    d) 350
9. Through which principle/device did Mahatma Gandhi strive to bridge economic inequlaities?
    a) Abolition of Machinary
    b) Establishment of village industries
    c) Adoptation of non-violence
    d) Trusteeship theory
10. Arthasastra was written by
    a) Dhanananda
    b) Kautilya
    c) Bimbisara
    d) Pushyamitra
11. Who translated Ramayana into Parsian?
    a) Abul Fazl
    b) Badauni
    c) Abdul Latif
    d) Isar Das
12. Which one of the following was the first English ship that came to India?
     a) Elizabeth
     b) Bengal
     c) Red Dragon
     d) Mayflower
   13. The member-states of the U.N.O. have delegated the primary responsibility for maintaining
      world peace and security to the
     a) General Assembly
     b) Economic and Social Council (EcoSoc)
     c) Security Council
     d) International Court of Justice
14. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist text produced in India?
     a) Divya Vandanam
     b) Dohakosa
     c) Vajrachedika
     d) Vamsathapakasini
15. The approximate circumference of the Earth is
     a) 13,000 km
     b) 20,000 km
     c) 25,000 km
     d) 30,000 km
 16. When did India join the International Tsunami Warning System?
     a) 2004
     b) 2005
     c) 2006
     d) 2007
  17. ‘Cod’ is a variety of
     a) Goat
     b) Fish
     c) Crop
     d) Coral
18. The All India Muslim League was founded by
     a) Malauna Ahmed Ali
     b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
     c) Agha Khan
     d) Hakim Ajmal Khan
  19. Golden Revolution refers to
     a) Sericulture
     b) Horiculture
     c) Apiculture
     d) Viticulture
20. Which one of the following is a major port on East Coast of India?
     a) Kandla
     b) Vishakhapatnam
     c) Karikal
     d) Pondicheery
21. The total number of bones in our body is
     a) 226
     b) 206
     c) 256
     d) 236
22. The poison of honey bee is
     a) Acidic
     b) Alkaline
     c) Saltish
     d) Protien
23. Birds which swim in water have
     a) webbed feet
     b) broad wings
     c) long beaks
     d) toes with claws
24. A large number of identical plants can be obtained in a short span of time through
     a) large number of seeds of a single plant
     b) stem cuttings
     c) tissue culture technique
     d) hydroponics method
25. The smallest flowering plant is
     a) Wolffia
     b) Lemma
     c) Azolla
     d) Ficus
26. Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal increase of the
     a) Red blood cells
     b) White blood cells
     c) Blood paltelets
     d) Blood plasma
27. The sound produced by a bat
     a) audible
     b) subsonic
     c) infrasonic
     d) ultrasonic
28. When a bar magnet is cut into two halves, the pole strength of each piece
     a) becomes double
     b) becomes half
     c) becomes zero
     d) remains the same
29. Cooking oil is converted intovegetable ghee by the process of
     a) Crystallisation
     b) Condensation
     c) Hydrogenation
     d) Scrubland
30. A balloon filled with helium rises in air because
     a) air exerts an upward force on the balloon
     b) the balloon is weightless
     c) helium is less dense than air
     d) helium pushes down on the air below the balloon
31. One can distinguish a telescope from a microscope by observing
     a) length
     b) colour
     c) size of the lens
     d) length and size of the lens
32. National Environmental Engineering Reasearch Institute is located at
     a) Pune
     b) Delhi
     c) Nagpur
     d) Chennai
33. Rusting of iron requires
     a) oxygen and cabon dioxide
     b) oxygen and water
     c) cabon dioxide only
     d) oxygen only
34. Glass is a
     a) pure solid
     b) supercooled liquid
     c) gel
     d) polymer
35. Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of
     a) Radium
     b) Thorium
     c) Lead
     d) Pollonium
36. Which of the toxic heavy metals is found in modern tannery industries?
     a) Nickel
     b) Zinc
     c) Chromium
     d) Lead
37. Which of the following contains high content of lead?
     a) Coal
     b) Cooking gas
     c) High octane fuel
     d) low octane fuel
38. Electrostaic precipitator is used to control
     a) Air pollution
     b) Water pollution
     c) Solid waste
     d) Noise pollution
39. Kucipudi is a dance-drama associated with the State of
     a) Assam
     b) Andhra Pradesh
     c) Orissa
     d) manipur
40. X-rays were discovered by
     a) Faraday
     b) Roentgen
     c) H.Davy
     d) Lavoisier
41. Who among the following is NOT a recipient of Dadashaeb Phalke Award?
     a) V. Shantaram
     b) Raj Kapoor
     c) Mukesh Bhatt
     d) Lata Mangeshkar
42. A new technology which provides the ability to create an artificial world and have people interact
     with it is called
     a) Televirtuality
     b) Virtual reality
     c) Alternate reality
     d) 3-D reality
43. A parallel port is most often used by a
     a) Printer
     b) Monitor
     c) Mouse
     d) External storage device
44. The secret operation carried out successfully by the US Navy Seals, in which Osma Bin Laden,
      the world’s most wanted terriorist was killed, was codenamed as
     a) Jasmine
     b) Rose
     c) Geronimo
     d) Cobra
45. As per the latest ‘Sample Registeration Survey Report’ released some time back by the Census
     Office at New Delhi, there has been a siginificant improvement in the ‘Infant Mortality Rate’ per
     1000 live births in India during the period 1999-2009. What has been the percentage change during
     this period?
     a) 15%
     b) 29%
     c) 35%
     d) 42%
46. Premlata Agarwal has become the oldest Indian woman  to scale Mount Everest at the age of 45.
     She belongs to the state of
     a) Jharkhand
     b) Uttar Pradesh
     c) Rajasthan
     d) Bihar
47. The book ‘Great Soul : Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was in news some time
     back and was banned in some Indian States inclusding Gujarat. The author of the book is
     a) Joseph Lelyveld
     b) Michael Ondaatje
     c) Jack Welch
     d) Duncan Green
48. Who got the ‘Purple Cap’ for taking maximum number of wickets in IPL-4 series?
     a) Harbhajan Singh
     b) Lasith Malinga
     c) Daniel Vettori
     d) Albie Morkel
49. At which place did the Union Finance Minister, Pranab Mukherjee lay the foundation stone for
     a new banknote paper mill some time back?
     a) Surat
     b) Aurangabad
     c) Mysore
     d) Guntur
50. The governement set up a committee headed by the Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes
     some time back to go into
     a) modification of tax laws
     b) the entire structure of tax laws including the question of imposition of bank tax
     c) the concerns of the foreign investors in India with regard to taxation matters
     d) aspects of generation of black money, its transfer abroad and bringing back such
         money into India’s legitimate financial system

Staff Selection Commission Southern Region Recruitment for Various Posts

Staff Selection Commission Southern Region invites application from eligible candidates for the various Group ‘C' and Group ‘B' posts mentioned below for recruitment in various ministries/ offices of the Government of India.

Name of the Post	Name of the Office	No. of Vacancies
Tourist Information Officer	India Tourism, Chennai	4
Technical Officer I	Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine, and Storage	1
Preservation Assistant Grade-I	Botanical Survey of India	3
Junior Technical Assistant	Office of Regional Director, Southern Region, Ministry of Corporate Affairs	2

Important Dates

Last date for sending application: 7 October 2011

Application Fee: Rs 50 to be paid by General/ OBC candidates through CRFS only which are are available at all District Post Offices of the Country. No fee will be charged from candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ PWD and women candidates.

How to Apply

Applications must be submitted in the form published in the Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar dated 10 September- 16 September 2011. After getting the Recruitment Fee Stamps cancelled from the post office, the candidate may submit the application to the following address.

The Regional Director (SR),
Staff Selection Commission,
2nd Floor, EVk Sampath Building,
College Road, Chennai- 600217.

Note: Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in this advertisement, are liable to be rejected summarily.
For more details; please refer Employment Newspaper 10 September- 16 September 2011

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Written Examination 2011 Syllabus

Scheme and Syllabus of Examination:  The written examination will be held in the following subjects for the post of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerk followed by Skill Test and Typing Test respectively.

• Scheme of the Written Examination

The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below: 

Date of Exam(Tentative)	Part	Subject	Max. Marks	Number of Questions	Total Duration/ Timings for General candidates	Duration & Timings for VH candidates
4.12.2011	I	General  Intelligence	50	50	2 Hours 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon	2 Hours and 40 Min. 10.00 AM to 12.40 PM
	II	English Language (Basic Knowledge)	50	50
	III	Numerical Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill)	50	50
	IV	General Awareness	50	50

NOTE- I: The Paper will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi for Part-I, III & IV.
NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

• Syllabus of the Written Examination

General Intelligence

1	Semantic Analogy	16	Space Orientation
2	Symbolic/Number Analogy	17	Venn Diagrams
3	Figural Analogy	18	Drawing inferences
4	Semantic Classification	19	Punched hole/pattern-folding & unfolding
5	Symbolic/Number Classification	20	Figural Pattern - folding and completion
6	Figural Classification	21	Indexing
7	Semantic Series	22	Address matching
8	Number Series	23	Data and City matching
9	Figural Series	24	Classification of centre codes/roll numbers
10	Problem Solving*	25	Small & Capital Letters/number-coding, decoding and classification
11	Word Building	26	Embedded figures
12	Coding and de-coding	27	Critical Thinking
13	Numerical operations	28	Emotional Intelligence
14	Symbolic operations	29	Social Intelligence
15	Trends	30	Other sub-topics, if any

English Language

1	Spot the Error
2	Fill in the Blanks
3	Synonyms
4	Antonyms
5	Spellings/Detecting Mis-spelt words
6	Idioms & Phrases
7	One word substitution
8	Improvement of Sentences
9	Active/Passive Voice of Verbs
10	Conversion into Direct/Indirect narration
11	Shuffling of Sentence parts
12	Shuffling of Sentences in a passage
13	Cloze Passage
14	Comprehension Passage

(* To be commensurate with the minimum prescribed educational qualifications (10th, 12th Graduate, Postgraduate) for the post)
Numerical Aptitude
a)      Arithmetic
Number Systems:

• Computation of Whole Number
• Decimal and Fractions
• Relationship between numbers

Fundamental Arithmetical Operations:

• Percentages
• Ratio and Proportion
• Square roots
• Averages
• Interest (Simple and Compound)
• Profit and Loss
• Discount
• Partnership Business
• Mixture and Alligation
• Time and distance
• Time and work

b)     Algebra: Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra (and their simple applications) e.g. Formulas for (a+b)², (a-b)², (a+b)³(a-b)³, a³-b³, a³+b³, a²-b²;  if a+b+c=0, then a³+b³+c³=3 abc etc. and Elementary surds (simple problems) including Graphs of Linear Equations.
c)      Geometry: Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts: Triangle and its various kinds of centres viz. Centroid, In-centre, Orthocentre, Circumcentre, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles.
d)      Mensuration:

• Triangle, Quadrilaterals
• Regular Polygons (sum of the internal angles of a polygon)
• Circle
• Right Prism
• Right Circular Cone
• Right Circular Cylinder
• Sphere, Hemispheres
• Rectangular Parallelepiped
• Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base

e)      Trigonometry: Trigonometry (for acute angles 0 with 0≤0≤90), Trigonometric ratios, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities like sin²0 + Cos²0=1 etc., Complementary Angles, Heights and Distances (simple problems only).
f)      Statistical Charts: Use of Tables and Graphs

• Histogram
• Frequency polygon
• Bar-diagram
• Pie-chart

General Awareness: Questions are designed to test the ability of the candidate's general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture Geography, Economic Scene, General policy and scientific research.
NOTE-1: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBES there will be no component of Maps/ Graphs/ Diagrams/ Statistical Data in the General Intelligence & Reasoning/ General Awareness Paper.
NOTE-2: The questions will be of the level to commensurate with Educational Qualification prescribed for the posts.