S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010) 

 1. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on—
(A) 15th January, 1947
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 15th August, 1950
(D) 15th October, 1947
Ans : (B)

2. Despotism is possible in a—
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans : (A)

3. Marx belonged to—
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)

4. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans : (D)

5. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with—
(A) Administrative Reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State relations
Ans : (D)

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)

7. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the—
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans : (D)

8. The terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ were coined by—
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)

9. During period of inflation, tax rates should—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans : (A)

10. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India ?
(A) Agriculture sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Transport sector
(D) Banking sector
Ans : (D)

11. “Economics is what it ought to be.”—This statement refers to—
(A) Normative economics
(B) Positive economics
(C) Monetary economics
(D) Fiscal economics
Ans : (A)

12. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called—
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ surplus
(D) Consumers’ surplus
Ans : (C)

13. Silver halides are used in photographic plates because they are—
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans : (B)

14. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is—
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans : (D)

15. Curie point is the temperature at which—
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans : (D)

16. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy is—
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans : (A)

17. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator—
(A) Is less than that at the poles
(B) Is greater than that at the poles
(C) Is equal to that at the poles
(D) Does not depend on the earth’s centripetal acceleration
Ans : (A)

18. Which of the following is not a nucleon ?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans : (C)

19. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)

20. Angle of friction and angle of repose are—
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other
(C) Proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

21. Processor’s speed of a computer is measured in—
(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) Baud
(D) Hertz
Ans : (D)

22. ‘C’ language is a—
(A) Low level language
(B) High level language
(C) Machine level language
(D) Assembly level language
Ans : (B)

23. What happens to a person who receives the wrong type of blood ?
(A) All the arteries constrict
(B) All the arteries dialates
(C) The RBCs agglutinate
(D) The spleen and lymphnodes deteriorate
Ans : (C)

24. NIS stands for—
(A) National Infectious diseases Seminar
(B) National Irrigation Schedule
(C) National Immunisation Schedule
(D) National Information Sector
Ans : (C)

25. If all bullets could not be removed from gun shot injury of a man, it may cause poisoning by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Arsenic
Ans : (B)

26. Ringworm is a ……… disease.
(A) Bacterial
(B) Protozoan
(C) Viral
(D) Fungal
Ans : (D)

27. Pituitary gland is situated in—
(A) The base of the heart
(B) The base of the brain
(C) The neck
(D) The abdomen
Ans : (B)

28. Who discovered cement ?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans : (C)

29. According to RBI’s Report on the trend and progress of banking, the Non-performing Assets (NPA’s) in India for 2008-09 for Indian Banks in 2008 have stood at—
(A) 2•3 per cent
(B) 2•6 per cent
(C) 3•5 per cent
(D) 5•2 per cent
Ans : (B)

30. Windows 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has ……… Indian languages fonts.
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans : (B)

31. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with—
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans : (B)

32. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force—
(A) For three months
(B) For six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004 ?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans : (B)

34. The first nonstop airconditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between—
(A) Sealdah—New Delhi
(B) Mumbai—Howrah
(C) Bangalore—Howrah
(D) Chennai—New Delhi
Ans : (A)

35. Which among the following agencies released the report, Economic Outlook for 2009-10 ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM’s Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (B)

36. India and U.S. have decided to finalize agreements related to which of the following ?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual Property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

37. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)

39. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as—
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans : (B)

40. Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by—
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans : (A)

41. Who coined the word ‘Geography’ ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is called the ‘ecological hot spot of India’ ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans : (A)

43. The art and science of map making is called—
(A) Remote Sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans : (B)

44. The age of the Earth can be determined by—
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity method
(D) Fossilization method
Ans : (B)

45. The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism was—
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (B)

46. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the people; for the people’ was made by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans : (C)

47. The Lodi dynasty was founded by—
(A) Ibrahim Lodi
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans : (C)

48. Harshavardhana was defeated by—
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin II
(C) Narasimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans : (B)

49. Who among the following was an illiterate ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans : (C)

50. Which Governor General is associated with Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentinck
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier II Exam

(English Paper - 2010)

1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives
2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body’s feelings· (d) To trust others
3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter
4. Alma Mater-
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives education
5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody
6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody
7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others
8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal
10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power
11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons
12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses
13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all
14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government
15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.
16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern
17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high
18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19 – 26 Fill in the blanks

19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against
20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for
21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to
22. My friend is really very good–cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over
23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in
24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at
25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out
26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of
Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same
27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion
28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these
29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable
30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these
Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement.
32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable
33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist
34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless
35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.
36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible
37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary
38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography
39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy
40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish

Answer: 1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a

SSC Recruitment of Constable (GD) in ITBP Force, 2011

SSC Recruitment of Constable (GD) in ITBP Force, 2011 - Release of additional list of successful candidates

SSC DELHI GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

SSC (Western Region) 2012 Recruitment of Senior Hindi Translator

Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Western Region invites applications from interested & eligible Indian Nationals for recruitment to the post mentioned below in the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai

Name of the Post and Number of Vacancies

Senior Hindi Translator: 18 vacancies

Important Dates for SSC Western Region Recruitment of Senior Hindi Translator

Closing Date of Receipt of Applications: 12 May 2012 upto 5 pm

Eligibility Criteria for SSC Western Region Recruitment of Senior Hindi Translator

Educational Qualification: The candidate must have a Master's Degree of a recognised University in Hindi/ English with English/ Hindi as a main subject at the Degree Level OR Master's Degree of a recognised University in any subject with Hindi as the medium of instruction and Examination with English as a compulsory subject at Degree Level OR Bachelor's Degree with Hindi and English as main subjects (which includes the term compulsory and elective)

Desirable Qualification: A recognised Diploma/ Certificate Course in Translation from Hindi to English and vice-versa or two years' experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice-versa in Central/ State Government offices including Government of India Undertakings

Age Limit: Maximum 30 years

Pay Scale: Rs 9300- 34800 + Rs 4200 Grade Pay (Group- B Non-Gazetted)

Selection Procedure for SSC Western Region Recruitment of Senior Hindi Translator

The candidates will be selected on the basis of Interview/ Personality Test/ Skill Test in two phases 1.) Preliminary Selection and 2.) Screening Test (if needed)

Duly filled application form should be sent to the Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (Western Region) 1^st Floor, Pratishtha Bhavan, 101, MK Road, Mumbai 400020 before the closing date and time along with other necessary enclosures

Examination Fee (non-refundable): Rs 50 (Not for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PH/ Ex-Servicemen/ Female candidates) in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRPFS) available in all Post Offices of India

For more details on SSC Western Region Recruitment Notification as well as to download the Application Form, please CLICK HERE http://www.sscwr.net/

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011 - Decleration of Final result for Non-Interview posts

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011 - Decleration of Final result

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011 - Decleration of Final result for the post of Statistical Investigator / Compiler

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011 - Decleration of Final results

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2011 - Decleration of Final results for interview posts other than Statistical Investigator / Compiler

SSC Stenographer Grade (C & D) Examination, 2011 Qualified Candidates List

SSC Stenographer Grade (C & D) Examination, 2011 - Release of List of candidates qualified at relaxed standard in Skill Test for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’ in CBI and CBDT

SSC Touching New Milestones

The Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms constituted a Commission called the Subordinate Services Commission on 4^thNovember, 1975 which was subsequently re-designated as Staff Selection Commission effective from the 26^th September, 1977. The functions of the Staff Selection Commission have been enlarged from time to time and now it carries out the recruitment also to all Group ‘B’ posts in the pay scale of Rs 9300 to 34800 with a grade pay of Rs 4200. 

The Staff Selection Commission is an attached office of the Department of Personnel and Training and comprises of Chairman, two Members and a Secretary-cum-Controller of Examinations who are appointed on such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Central Government from time to time. The Commission has nine regional offices across the country.

Mandate

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has been mandated with recruitment of Group ‘C’ non-technical and Group ‘B’ non-gazetted posts in various Ministries/Departments of Government and their Attached and Subordinate Offices except those for which recruitment is made by the Railway Recruitment Boards and Industrial Establishments. The Commission has Impartiality, Objectivity and Suitability as its motto and has been living upto it all through the years.

Nationwide Network

The Staff Selection Commission has a nationwide network of nine Regional/Sub-Regional Offices. Seven Regional Offices are located at Allahabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Mumbai and New Delhi and two Sub-Regional Offices at Chandigarh and Raipur. The Regional/Sub-Regional Offices implement the policies and programmes of the Staff Selection Commission which include holding of Examinations at various centres of the country with the help of the State Government Authorities and conducting interviews of candidates in Regions.  A proposal to upgrade the Sub-Regional Offices at Chandigarh and Raipur is under the consideration of the Government.

Touching New Marks          

The number of applications in the Commission’s recruitments and finally successful has increased manifold in the past 3-4 years.  The Commission handled 61.78 lakh applications in 2010-11 compared to 19.64 lakh in 2009-10 and 10.27 lakh in 2008-09. In 2011-12 it had received 91.00 lakh applications as on 22^nd March, 2012. The number of candidates selected by it went upto 70356 in 2011-12   (as on 22^ndMarch, 2012) compared to 23658, 10576 and 6304 in 2010-11, 2009-10 and 2008-09 respectively. The number of candidates selected in 2011-12 is expected to  exceed 80,000 as some examination results are in the final stage of processing.

In order to deal with the huge numbers, the Commission has mooted a proposal for single Common Screening Test for different levels.The aim is to limit the ratio of second stage applications to vacancies. Presently this ratio is 260:1. Despite the large volume, the time taken by SSC to complete recruitment process is 12-13 months, compared to European nations’ 18-20 months.

Introduction of E-initiatives

The Commission maintains ten websites - nine at regional offices and one independent site at headquarters. The websites are continuously updated with the objective of making them as the most important source of information. The revamped and user-friendly website of the Commission launched in October, 2009 has attracted a viewership of 2.20 crore so far and has emerged as one of the largest viewed websites in the Government sector.

It places marks of the candidates at each stage of the examination and answer keys of objective type examinations on the website, inviting objections, consideration of objection of the candidates with the assistance of experts and initiating corrective measures. All results and marks are placed on the website in PDF format, results on the same day of finalization and marks immediately thereafter. The Commission has also introduced Administration of skill tests on computer with no cost to the candidates and introduction of Computer Proficiency Test for certain posts.

It is estimated that almost 75% of candidates selected by the Commission in 2010-11 have proficiency or working knowledge of computers.

On-line application submission

The Commission introduced online applications since February, 2010 for the benefit of the candidates.  It is estimated that each candidate registering online saves Rs.25 in postal and other costs and the Commission’s precious time as application processing is not required and data entry cost of Rs. 4 to 5 per application. This has helped in reducing the duration of recruitment cycle too. Approximately 35 lakhapplicants have registered online since its introduction and the percentage of online registration has been showing steady increase and touched 50% or above in recent examinations.

Other Major initiatives

The following major initiatives have been taken by the Commission in the last three years:-

·         Restructuring of all examinations and regrouping of posts based on the recommendations of the 2^nd Administrative Reforms Commission and an Expert Group constituted with the approval of the Government.

·         Introduction of measures in the HQ of the Commission for ensuring Zero error tolerance in vital confidential work.

·         Introduction of Quality Management Systems in Regional Offices with a view to effect continual improvement in the processes and to improve customer satisfaction levels. All nine Regional Offices of the Commission have obtained ISO 9001:2008 Certification for their Quality Management System. Western Regional Office at Mumbai is the last region to obtain the certification in March, 2012.

Regular Updation of Question Bank

                Examination restructuring and updation of syllabi require a well stocked and continuously replenished Question Bank of objective type question items. Therefore, the Commission has held 11 Question Bank Workshops so far. The latest Workshop for Question Bank on Statistics was recently held in Delhi this month, which was inaugurated by Shri V. Narayanasamy, Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions and in the PMO. The next is scheduled in Chennai in the second quarter of 2012. Through the Workshops held so far, the Commission has added about 40,000 pre-validated objective type questions to its well stocked Question Bank in several subjects.

Dependable Credentials

                The credibility and improved efficiency of the Commission have been appreciated by its client organizations and candidates population as evidenced by the growing popularity of its recruitments. Ministry of Home Affairs has been utilizing the services of the Commission in recent years for recruiting Intelligence Officers, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors (for CISF), Constables (GD)/Riflemen/Sepoy, etc. in the Central Armed Police Forces and A&N Administration. The Commission is also assisting the Food Corporation of India this in recruitment to lower middle levels. In view of the experience  of SSC and its dependable credentials, a proposal of Ministry of Home Affairs to utilize the services of the Commission for recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police has been accepted in principle.  A proposal to entrust recruitment of autonomous / statutory bodies to the Commission has also been under consideration of the Commission.

SSC Dates for PET/ Medical Examination 2012 for Recruitment of SI & Asst SI

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) announced the dates for the PET/Medical Examination for recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and Assistant Sub-Inspector in Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) based on the performance in the Paper I (Written Examination).
The short listed candidates will be called for the Physical Efficiency Test (PET)/ Medical Examination on 29 July 2012 from 2 PM to 4 PM.


Staff Selection Commission invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and Assistant Sub-Inspector in Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) in Staff Selection Commission through All India Examination scheduled to be held on 27 May 2012.

SSC Scientific Assitant In Indian Metereological Dept. Exam

SSC: Recruitment Of Scientific Assitant In Indian Metereological Dept. EXAM,2011- Decleration of Final Result

SSC Junior Translators Result

SSC:Junior Translator(CSOLS) and Junior Hindi Translator(in Subordinate offices)Hindi Pradhyapak in Centre Hindi Training Institute and Sr./Jr.Translators under M/o Defence - Exam.,2011- Declaration of final result.

Scheme of SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination 2012

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will be conducting Combined  Graduate Level Examination 2012 for recruitment to different posts like Assistants, Inspectors, Divisional Accountants, Compiler etc. for which Graduation from a recognized University is the minimum Educational Qualification.
The Examination will comprise of two Tiers of Written Objective Type examination followed by  Computer Proficiency Test/ Interview/ Skill test, wherever applicable as per the Scheme of Examination.
Posts have been placed in two groups, inter-alia, based on their Grade Pay and papers in Tier II examination/Interview. Preference  for Posts, is to be indicated in the application. Candidates are requested to note that preference for Posts once exercised will be final. Request for change of preference will not be considered under any circumstance. For the post of  Assistant in CSS, candidate shall have not more than  three attempts unless covered by any of the exceptions notified by Government of India
Scheme of Examination:  The examination will be conducted in three tiers as mentioned below.

• Tier I: Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
• Tier II: Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
• Tier III: Personality Test/ Interview/ Computer Proficiency Test or Skill Test (wherever applicable)

Scheme of the Examination for different posts will be as followed
The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below: 

Post	Tier I Examination	Tier II Examination	Interview	Proficiency/ Skill Test	Total Marks
Posts for which Interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade-II	A. General Intelligence + Reasoning- 50 marks B. Gen. Awareness-50 marks C. Quantitative Aptitude- 50 marks D. English Comprehension- 50 marks Total Marks - 200 Duration: 2 hours For VH: 2 hours  40 minutes	I.Quantitative Abilities: 200 marks (100 Questions) Duration: 2 hours For VH: 2hours 40 minutes where eligible. II.English Language & Comprehension: 200 marks. Total Marks: 400 Duration : 2 hours For VH: 2 hours  40 minutes wherever eligible.	100 marks	Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) for post of Assistant in CSS only	700 marks
Posts for which no Interview is prescribed, other than Compiler	-do-	-do-	No	Data Entry Skill Test at Speed of 8000 key depression per hour for post of Tax Assistant	600 marks
Statistical Investigator Grade-II	-do-	Paper-I & II as above 400 marks Paper-III Statistics 200 mark	100 marks	-	800 marks
Compiler	-do-	-do-	No	-	900 marks

NOTE: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I. In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and III and 0.50 marks in Paper-I for each wrong answer.
Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
Personality/ Test/ Interview/ Computer Proficiency Test or Skill Test (wherever applicable): For posts for which Interview cum Personality Test is prescribed, the Personality Test/ interview will carry a maximum of 100 marks. The interview will be held at the Commission‘s Regional/Sub Regional Offices of the Commission or at any other place as decided by the Commission. The “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test at  2000 (two thousand) key depressions for a duration of 15 (fifteen) minutes will be of qualifying nature for Tax Assistant. There will be Physical Standard Test for the post of Inspector.

Sub-Inspector(Fire) in CISF Examination, 2012 Result

SSC: Common Screening Test held on 26.02.2012 for recruitment of Sub-Inspector(Fire) in CISF Examination, 2012 and other Selection Posts. Declaration of result of Sub- Inspector(Fire) in CISF- reg

SSC GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION 2012

 
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi - 110003

Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Examination-2012

Staff Selection Commission will hold on 01/07/2012 and 08/07/2012, an open competitive examination for recruitment to the following posts in various Ministries/Departments by selecting/ screening the candidates for the Main Examination. The Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination-2012 is likely to be held on 15/09/2012 and 16/09/2012 :

1. Inspectors of Income Tax / Inspector (Central Excise) / Inspector (Preventive Officer) / Inspector (Examiner) in Custom Houses (Group B Non-Gazetted) in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4600/-
2. Assistants (CSS) in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4600/- for Central Govt. Ministries/ Departments
3. Assistants in other Central Government Ministries/ Departments/ CVC etc. other than CSS cadre in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-
4. Inspector of Posts (Group B Non-Gazetted) in pay scales of Rs. Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-
5. Sub-Inspectors in CBI in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-
6. Assistant Enforcement Officers in Directorate of Enforcement in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4600/-
7. Divisional Accountants in CAG Offices  in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-
8. Statistical Investigators Gr.II in the pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-
9. Auditors/ Junior Accountants / Accountants/  in various CAG Offices in the pay scale of Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2800
10. Compilers in the office of RGI the pay scale of Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
11. UDCs (Upper Division Clerk) in various Central Government Offices/ Departments in the pay scale Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
12. Tax Assistants in various CBDT/ CBEC in the pay scale Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400 
13. Compiler in Registrar General of India in the pay scale Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400 

Age Limit: (i) 18-27 years as on  for Inspector of Income Tax/ Inspector (Central Excise)/ Inspector (Preventive Officer)/ Inspector (Examiner)/ Inspector of Posts / Ass.. Enforcement Officer and Divisional Accountants / Auditors /UDCs/ Tax Assistants (ii) 20 to 27 years as on  for posts of Assistants and Sub-inspectors in CBI. (iii) 26 years for Statistical Investigators Gr.II. Usual age relaxation to SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS etc. as per Govt. orders.)

Educational Qualification: Graduation in any discipline from any recognised University. (ii) Statistics/ Mathematics / Economics / Commerce subjects in Graduation for the post of Statistical Investigator Gr.II

Fee: Rs. 100/-. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women and Ex-Serviceman. Fee will be paid only in the form of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS)" These stamps are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. For the candidates who are applying online, should pay in the branches of SBI through payment challans which can be  printed online.

Closing Date: Last date for filling of the offline application is 20/04/2011 (5PM), last date is 27/04/2012 for candidates from far-flung areas. 

How to Apply : Either apply Offline through prescribed application format or   Apply Online from at SSC website (Pay fee st SBI in this case) at http://www.ssconline.nic.in/ or at http://www.sscregistration.sifyitest.com from 24/03/2012 to 17/04/2012 for Part-I registration and up to 20/04/2012 for Part-II Registration. (SSC online website works with Internet Explorer Browser only ?)

For further details and application format, view http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Final%20CGLE-2012%20Notice%20%201.pdf  and application format for Offline application is available at http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Final%20Application%20Form%20CGLE,2012.pdf