Tuesday, July 31, 2012
Tuesday, July 17, 2012
Sunday, July 15, 2012
SSC Eastern Region Various Posts Recruitment
SSC (Eastern Region) has issued notification for the recruitment of Examiner, Wildlife Inspector and Fieldman. Eligible candidates may apply through prescribed application format on or before 27-08-2012. Particulars about age limit, educational qualification, no of posts and other are mentioned below:
SSCER Vacancy Details:
No of Posts: 05 Posts
Names of Posts:
1. Examiner: 03 posts
2. Wildlife Inspector: 01 post
3. Fieldman: 01 post
Age Limit:
Candidate age must be between 18-25 years for Examiner post, below 30 years for Wildlife Inspector post and below 28 years for Fieldman post as on 27-08-2012.
Educational Qualification:
Candidate must possess B.Sc Degree with honours in Chemistry Laboratory for Examiner post, Bachelor’s Degree in Science with Zoology as a subject & Diploma/Certificate in Wildlife Management awarded by the Wildlife Institute of India or equivalent for Wildlife Inspector post and Matriculation or equivalent for Fieldman post.
Application Fee:
Rs 50/- for General candidates (No fee for SC-ST-PH-EXSM-Women candidates). Pay fee through CRFS (Central Recruitment Fee Stamps) available in post offices.
Selection Procedure:
Candidates will be selected on the basis of Screening Test and Interview/Personality Test/Skill Test.
How to apply:
Eligible candidates may send their application in prescribed format, along with CRFs, recent passport size photograph pasted on application form, attested photo copies of all necessary certificates to the following address, Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Nizam Palace, Ist MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata-700020, on or before 27-08-2012
Last date for receipt of application: 27-08-2012 (For remote areas 03-09-2012), up to 5.00 PM.
For more particulars about age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, no. of posts, experience, application fee, how to apply, application format, selection procedure, last date for receipt of application and other particulars available at below given link.
Click here:http://www.sscer.org/
Friday, July 13, 2012
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2012
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will be conducting Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2012 for recruitment to different posts like Data Entry operators, Lower Division clerks(LDC).
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2012 will conduct on 21-10-2012 and 28-10-2012.
Post names:
Data Entry operators
Lower Division clerks(LDC)
Age Limit:
Candidates must have 18 years and the max age limit is 27 years as on 01-08-2011 for General category applicants
5 years upper age relaxation for SC/ST Candidates
3 years relaxation in upper age for OBC Candodates
10 years for PWD Candidates
Education qualifications required:
Candidates must pass in 12th class or it’s equivalent from any recognized board
Application fee:
100 rupees is the application fee ,must pay at any state bank of India by downloading the challan form or you can also pay by using SBI net banking/SBI Online Banking/SBI Internet banking
Selection Process:
Selection process is based on the performance in Written Exam and Skill test.
Important Dates to remember:
Starting Date for Online Registration: 14-07-2012
Last Date to Submission of Part I Application : 08-08-2012
Last Date to Submit Part II Application 10-08-2012
Last Date for Submission of Application (far flung areas): 17-08-2012
Written Examination date 2012: 21-10-2012 & 28-10-2012
Click here to download the advertisement/notification of ssc Combined Higher Secondary Level examination 2012
Tuesday, July 10, 2012
SSC CGL EXAM (TIER-I) GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 08-07-2012)
1. Which one of the following is an example of a non-economic good?
a) Doctor’s service
b) Teacher’s service
c) Mother’s service
d) Banker’s service
2. Which one of the following committee is associated with banking sector reforms in India?
a) L.C. Gupta
b) Narasimham
c) Chakravarty
d) Kelkar
.
3. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?
a) Fixing margin requirements
b) Variable interest rates
c) Open Market Operations
d) Credit rationing
4. The 13th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period
a) 2010 – 2015
b) 2011 – 2016
c) 2012 – 2017
d) 2013 – 2018
5. The national income of a nation is the
a) Government’s annual income
b) Sum total of factor incomes
c) Surplus of public sector enterprises
d) Export minus imports
6. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of
proclamation of national emergency is the
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 43rd Amendment Act
c) 44th Amendment Act
d) 45th Amendment Act
7. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the
a) Governor
b) President
c) Law Minister
d) Prime Minster
8. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is
a) Educational and economic bacwardness of minority groups
b) Political conscicousness
c) Social inequalities
d) Imposing ban on communal organizations
9. A retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in
a) Supreme Court
b) Any Court in India
c) High Courts
d) Except the High Court where he retired
10. Which one of the following does not match?
a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955
b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act : 1971
c) Domestic Violence on Women Act : 1990
d) Cruelty against Women : 1995
11. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Canning
12. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in Second Battle of Tarain by
a) Mahmud Ghazni
b) Muhammad Ghori
c) Qutbuddin Aibak
d) Yalduz
13. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was
a) Mahadaji Sindhia
b) Tukoji Holkar
c) Naryan Roy
d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu
14. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?
a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Daynand Saraswati
15. Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Dandi March
2. Simon Commission
3. Poona Pact
4. Gandhi Irwin Pact
a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 4, 3
c) 4, 3, 1, 2 d) 4, 3, 2, 1
16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Darjeeling – West Bengal
b) Mount Abu – Rajasthan
c) Kodaikanal – Tamilnadu
d) Simla – Uttar Pradesh
17. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on
a) January 30th
b) December 22nd
c) September 22nd
d) July 4th
18. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary Main River
1. Chambal : Yamuna
2. Sone : Narmada
3. Manas : Brahmputra
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
19. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is
a) Dew
b) Frost
c) Smog
d) Mist
20. The total population divided by available land area is reffered to as
a) Population density
b) Nutritional density
c) Agricultural density
d) Industrial density
21. Green glands are associated with
a) Reproduction
b) Excertion
c) Respiration
d) Digestion
22. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of
a) Active transport
b) Diffusion
c) Diffusion and active transport
d) Osmosis
23. Heart is devoid of
a) Cardiac muscle
b) Involuntary muscle
c) Voluntary muscle
d) Smooth muscle
24. The soil salinty is measured by
a) Conductivity meter
b) Hygrometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Auxanometer
25. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
a) Leucoderma
b) Eczema
c) Ringworm
d) Elephantiasis
26. Chickenpox is caused by
a) DNA virus
b) Variola virus
c) Streptococcus
d) Vibrio cholera
27. Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with
a) Iron shield
b) Rubber shield
c) Brass shield
d) Glass shield
28. Find the odd one.
a) Marble
b) Chalk
c) Limestone
d) Slaked Lime
29. Which of the following is pseudo-force?
a) Centrepetal force
b) Centrifugal reaction force
c) Centrifugal force
d) Strong nuclear force
30. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of
a) Archimede’s principle
b) Torricellean law
c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
d) Pascal’s Law
31. Of the following, which is the fastest?
a) CD-ROM
b) RAM
c) Registers
d) Cache
32. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is
a) Mesh
b) Star
c) Tree
d) Ring
33. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named
a) Perkin
b) Claisen
c) Hoffman
d) Clemmensen
34. The base used as an antacid is
a) Calcium hydroxide
b) Barium hydroxide
c) Magnesium hydroxide
d) Silver hydroxide
35. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is
a) annealing
b) applying grease
c) galvanising
d) painting
36. Denatured alcohol
a) is a form of alcohol
b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances
c) contains coloured impurities
d) is sweet to tatse
37. Phenolics as pollutants can be remeoved from waste water by use of
a) Ion exchange resin technique
b) Electrolyte decomposition technique
c) Reverse osmosis method
d) Polymeric adsorbents
38. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on
a) micro-organisms and fishes
b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons
c) fishes and reptiles
d) Producers and consumers
39. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called
a) Transition wave
b) Ultrasound
c) Transverse wave
d) Sonic boom
40. The main factor which determines the balance of nature is
a) human activities
b) Rabit and habitat
c) environmental conditions
d) availability of food
41. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because
a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is visible from a distance.
b) scattering in yellow light is less than red
c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light
d) none of the above reasons
42. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”
a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
b) Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu
c) Jyoti Bosu of West Bengal
d) Late N.T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh
43. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied in the 2012 London Olympics in
400 meters race is
a) Oscar Pistorius
b) Walter Rallis
c) Raymond Irchovich
d) Gerald Hangovin
44. Which one of the following film-actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts
and Culture by the Bedford University, London?
a) Shahrukh Khan
b) Amir Khan
c) Saif Ali Khan
d) Anil Kapoor
45. The city of Prayag was named Allahbad – the city of Allah by
a) Aurangzeb
b) Akbar
c) Shahjahan
d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
46. Spot the odd one from the following:
a) Tsunami
b) Earthquakes
c) Windmills
d) Cyclones
47. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?
a) Prachi Misra
b) Vanya Misra
c) Rochella Maria
d) Sandhya Agarwal
48. Which one of the following statements is not correct about India’s population as per
the 2011 census?
a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%
b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate
c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate
d) Men outnumber women in growth literates
49. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty?
a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
b) Sri Abhijit Sen
c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
d) Prof. A. M. Patha
50. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact, not a garden?
a) Vrindavan Garden of Mysore
b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. A 50. C
a) Doctor’s service
b) Teacher’s service
c) Mother’s service
d) Banker’s service
2. Which one of the following committee is associated with banking sector reforms in India?
a) L.C. Gupta
b) Narasimham
c) Chakravarty
d) Kelkar
.
3. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?
a) Fixing margin requirements
b) Variable interest rates
c) Open Market Operations
d) Credit rationing
4. The 13th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period
a) 2010 – 2015
b) 2011 – 2016
c) 2012 – 2017
d) 2013 – 2018
5. The national income of a nation is the
a) Government’s annual income
b) Sum total of factor incomes
c) Surplus of public sector enterprises
d) Export minus imports
6. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of
proclamation of national emergency is the
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 43rd Amendment Act
c) 44th Amendment Act
d) 45th Amendment Act
7. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the
a) Governor
b) President
c) Law Minister
d) Prime Minster
8. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is
a) Educational and economic bacwardness of minority groups
b) Political conscicousness
c) Social inequalities
d) Imposing ban on communal organizations
9. A retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in
a) Supreme Court
b) Any Court in India
c) High Courts
d) Except the High Court where he retired
10. Which one of the following does not match?
a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955
b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act : 1971
c) Domestic Violence on Women Act : 1990
d) Cruelty against Women : 1995
11. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Canning
12. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in Second Battle of Tarain by
a) Mahmud Ghazni
b) Muhammad Ghori
c) Qutbuddin Aibak
d) Yalduz
13. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was
a) Mahadaji Sindhia
b) Tukoji Holkar
c) Naryan Roy
d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu
14. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?
a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Daynand Saraswati
15. Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Dandi March
2. Simon Commission
3. Poona Pact
4. Gandhi Irwin Pact
a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 4, 3
c) 4, 3, 1, 2 d) 4, 3, 2, 1
16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Darjeeling – West Bengal
b) Mount Abu – Rajasthan
c) Kodaikanal – Tamilnadu
d) Simla – Uttar Pradesh
17. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on
a) January 30th
b) December 22nd
c) September 22nd
d) July 4th
18. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary Main River
1. Chambal : Yamuna
2. Sone : Narmada
3. Manas : Brahmputra
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
19. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is
a) Dew
b) Frost
c) Smog
d) Mist
20. The total population divided by available land area is reffered to as
a) Population density
b) Nutritional density
c) Agricultural density
d) Industrial density
21. Green glands are associated with
a) Reproduction
b) Excertion
c) Respiration
d) Digestion
22. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of
a) Active transport
b) Diffusion
c) Diffusion and active transport
d) Osmosis
23. Heart is devoid of
a) Cardiac muscle
b) Involuntary muscle
c) Voluntary muscle
d) Smooth muscle
24. The soil salinty is measured by
a) Conductivity meter
b) Hygrometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Auxanometer
25. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
a) Leucoderma
b) Eczema
c) Ringworm
d) Elephantiasis
26. Chickenpox is caused by
a) DNA virus
b) Variola virus
c) Streptococcus
d) Vibrio cholera
27. Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with
a) Iron shield
b) Rubber shield
c) Brass shield
d) Glass shield
28. Find the odd one.
a) Marble
b) Chalk
c) Limestone
d) Slaked Lime
29. Which of the following is pseudo-force?
a) Centrepetal force
b) Centrifugal reaction force
c) Centrifugal force
d) Strong nuclear force
30. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of
a) Archimede’s principle
b) Torricellean law
c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
d) Pascal’s Law
31. Of the following, which is the fastest?
a) CD-ROM
b) RAM
c) Registers
d) Cache
32. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is
a) Mesh
b) Star
c) Tree
d) Ring
33. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named
a) Perkin
b) Claisen
c) Hoffman
d) Clemmensen
34. The base used as an antacid is
a) Calcium hydroxide
b) Barium hydroxide
c) Magnesium hydroxide
d) Silver hydroxide
35. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is
a) annealing
b) applying grease
c) galvanising
d) painting
36. Denatured alcohol
a) is a form of alcohol
b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances
c) contains coloured impurities
d) is sweet to tatse
37. Phenolics as pollutants can be remeoved from waste water by use of
a) Ion exchange resin technique
b) Electrolyte decomposition technique
c) Reverse osmosis method
d) Polymeric adsorbents
38. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on
a) micro-organisms and fishes
b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons
c) fishes and reptiles
d) Producers and consumers
39. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called
a) Transition wave
b) Ultrasound
c) Transverse wave
d) Sonic boom
40. The main factor which determines the balance of nature is
a) human activities
b) Rabit and habitat
c) environmental conditions
d) availability of food
41. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because
a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is visible from a distance.
b) scattering in yellow light is less than red
c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light
d) none of the above reasons
42. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”
a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
b) Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu
c) Jyoti Bosu of West Bengal
d) Late N.T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh
43. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied in the 2012 London Olympics in
400 meters race is
a) Oscar Pistorius
b) Walter Rallis
c) Raymond Irchovich
d) Gerald Hangovin
44. Which one of the following film-actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts
and Culture by the Bedford University, London?
a) Shahrukh Khan
b) Amir Khan
c) Saif Ali Khan
d) Anil Kapoor
45. The city of Prayag was named Allahbad – the city of Allah by
a) Aurangzeb
b) Akbar
c) Shahjahan
d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
46. Spot the odd one from the following:
a) Tsunami
b) Earthquakes
c) Windmills
d) Cyclones
47. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?
a) Prachi Misra
b) Vanya Misra
c) Rochella Maria
d) Sandhya Agarwal
48. Which one of the following statements is not correct about India’s population as per
the 2011 census?
a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%
b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate
c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate
d) Men outnumber women in growth literates
49. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty?
a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
b) Sri Abhijit Sen
c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
d) Prof. A. M. Patha
50. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact, not a garden?
a) Vrindavan Garden of Mysore
b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir
ANSWERS:
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. A 50. C
SSC CGL (TIER-I) 2012 GENERAL AWARENESS PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 01-07-2012)
1. Who will head the Jury of the Awards Committees of Padms, Ratna and other highest
honorary awards?
a) Home Minister
b) Prime Minister of India
c) President of India
d) Vice-President of India
2. Most important responsibility of a Welfare State is
a) to check exploitation
b) to check eneroachments on Fundamental Rights
c) to preserve private property
d) to promote the religion of people
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and Bhutan.
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
c) Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar
a) 2, 3 b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2
4. Arrange the following Presidents in chronological order as to who came first and who came later:
1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
2. Zakir Hussain
3. Justice Hidayatullah
4. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
a) 2, 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4, 1
c) 3, 2, 1, 4
d) 2, 3, 1, 4
5. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of
a) goods produced for the market only
b) goods produced for the market and self consumption
c) stock of goods and services
d) all final goods and services produced in a year
6. Which one of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve?
a) Oligopoly
b) Monopolistic compitition
c) Perfect compitition
d) Monopoly
7. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) XI Plan - (2007 - 2012)
b) VI Plan - (1980 - 1985)
c) I Plan - (1951 - 1956)
d) III Plan - (1966 - 1971)
8. Which of the following instituions deals with credit to Agriculture and Rural Development?
a) SIDBI
b) ICICI
c) IDBI
d) NABARD
9. As per the results of 2011 Population Census, which of the following groups occupies the
three top places in respect of literacy?
a) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram
b) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura
c) Kerala, Goa, West Bengal
d) Chandigarh, Goa, Kerala
10. District Judges in a State are appointed by the
a) Governor
b) Chief Justice of High Court
c) Advocate-General of the State
d) Council of Ministers of the State
11. Which one of the following is called the ‘Crossroads to Pacific’?
a) Hawaii
b) Ellice
c) Tonga
d) Fiji
12. Which of the following is an act of man that distrubs the ecological balance?
a) Lumbering
b) Social forestry
c) Vanamohtasv
d) Afforestation
13. Which one is not correctly matched?
a) Glasgow - Great Britain
b) Pittsburg - U.S.A
c) Longcoy - Russia
d) Rhine - Germany
14.How many States in India are coastal?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 7
d) 8
15. International boundary between India and Pakistan is demaracted by
a) Redcliffe Line
b) Maginot Line
c) McMahon Line
d) Durand Line
16. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plant kingdom?
a) Bryophyta
b) Pteridophyta
c) Algae
d) Fungi
17. Find the odd one out.
a) Tapeworm
b) Ringworm
c) Hookworm
d) Guinea worm
18. National Institute of Nutrition is a research institute located in the State of
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttra Pradesh
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Himachal Pradesh
19. Which one of the following events are chronologically correct?
a) Quit India Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
b) Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan – Quit India Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
d) The Cabinet Mission Plan – Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement
20. Who founded the Vikramasila University?
a) Dharmapala
b) Mahipala
c) Dhruva
d) Devapala
21. Which of the following was not known during the Rigvedic period?
a) Varna system (Caste)
b) Marriage system
c) Joint family system
d) Agriculture
22. Match the following:
Dynasty Founder
A. Pallavas 1. Dantidurg
B. Chalukyus 2. Vishnuvardhan
C. Rashtrakutas 3. Simhavishnu
D. Hoysalas 4. Pulakisin I
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 4 1 2
23. Abul Fazl wrote
a) Akbar-Nama
b) Alamgir-Nama
c) Babar-Nama
d) Humayun-Nama
24. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time?
a) Half duplex
b) Full duplex
c) Super duplex
d) Simplex
25. What does the acronym ISDN stands for?
a) Intelligent Services Digital Network
b) Integrated Services Data Network
c) Indian Standard Digital Network
d) Integrated Services Digital Network
26. Darkening property of photochromatic glass is due to presence of
a) silver nitrate
b) silver chloride
c) silver bromide
d) silver oxide
27. Supersonic aircrafts discharge the following substances into the stratosphere:
a) CO2
b) H2
c) NOx
d) SOx
28. Chemical nature of laughing gas is:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Hydrogen chloride
29. The difference between isotopes of an element is due to the presence of a different number of
a) electrons
b) photons
c) protons
d) neutrons
30. The increasing abundance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects
excepts:
a) Oxygen fertilization effect
b) Cabon dioxide fertilization effect
c) Global warming
d) Depletion of Ozone layer in the stratosphere
31. A tree’s age can be found by
a) counting the number of branches
b) no means
c) measuring its height
d) counting the number of annual rings
32. The left aortic arch is observed in
a) Reptiles
b) Aves
c) Amphibians
d) Mammals
33. Tendon connects
a) bone to muscle
b) muscle to muscle
c) bone to bone
d) muscle to bone
34. Mercury is generally used in thermometers because it has a
a) high conductivity
b) high specific heat
c) high fludity
d) high density
35. To an observer on the lunar surface during day time, the sky will appear to be
a) Orange
b) Black
c) Light Yellow
d) Blue
36. Which of the following quantities is measure of ‘inertia’?
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Acceleration
37. The intensity of a wave
1. follows Inverse Square Law.
2. is proportional to its amplitude.
3. is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
a) Only 2 is true
b) 1 and 3 are true
c) 1 and 2 are true
d) 2 and 3 are true
38. In which of the following States, is the child sex-ratio the lowest as per the 2011 census?
a) Chattisgarh
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Punjab
39. Kaziranga Natrional Park is situated in:
a) Rajasthan
b) Assam
c) Odisha
d) Gujarat
40. Who is the author of the book ‘If Cricket is Religion, Sachin is God’?
a) Vijai Santhanam
b) Shyam Balasubramaniam
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
41. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sunder Lal Bahuguna?
a) He started the ‘Chipko Movement’ to create the awareness of deforestation.
b) He was elected to Lok Sabha from Uttarkashi in Uttarakhand
c) He is an eminent environmentalist.
d) He was awarded Padama Bhushan in 2009
42. The three countries, in serial order, who won the highest number of gold medals in the Beijing
Olympics Games are:
a) China, Germany, Australia
b) China, Germany, USA
c) China, USA, Russia
d) China, USA, Germany
43. The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is
a) Sister Alphonsa
b) Sister Nirmala
c) Sister Disouza
d) Sister Madorana
44. Which of the following fules causes minimum environmental pollution?
a) Hydrogen
b) Coal
c) Diesel
d) Kerosene
45. Minimata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution
in water by
a) Fluoride
b) DDT
c) Lead
d) Mercury
46. Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of
a) 3.0 ppm
b) 9.0 ppm
c) 0.2 ppm
d) 0.3 ppm
47. The first President to sail in a submarine in India was
a) V.V. Giri
b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
c) K. R. Narayanan
d) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
48. Cooking vessels have wooden or bakelite handles because
a) the handle must be strong
b) the handle should be attractive
c) wood and bakelite are bad conductors of heat
d) None of the above
49. ‘Deshbandhu’ is the title of
a) B.C. Pal
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) C.R. Das
50. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
a) Abhinav Bindra – Rifle Shooting
b) Sania Mirza – Badminton
c) Jeev Milkha Singh – Golf
d) Irfan Pathan – Cricket
ANSWERS:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. B
honorary awards?
a) Home Minister
b) Prime Minister of India
c) President of India
d) Vice-President of India
2. Most important responsibility of a Welfare State is
a) to check exploitation
b) to check eneroachments on Fundamental Rights
c) to preserve private property
d) to promote the religion of people
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and Bhutan.
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
c) Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar
a) 2, 3 b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2
4. Arrange the following Presidents in chronological order as to who came first and who came later:
1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
2. Zakir Hussain
3. Justice Hidayatullah
4. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
a) 2, 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4, 1
c) 3, 2, 1, 4
d) 2, 3, 1, 4
5. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of
a) goods produced for the market only
b) goods produced for the market and self consumption
c) stock of goods and services
d) all final goods and services produced in a year
6. Which one of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve?
a) Oligopoly
b) Monopolistic compitition
c) Perfect compitition
d) Monopoly
7. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) XI Plan - (2007 - 2012)
b) VI Plan - (1980 - 1985)
c) I Plan - (1951 - 1956)
d) III Plan - (1966 - 1971)
8. Which of the following instituions deals with credit to Agriculture and Rural Development?
a) SIDBI
b) ICICI
c) IDBI
d) NABARD
9. As per the results of 2011 Population Census, which of the following groups occupies the
three top places in respect of literacy?
a) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram
b) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura
c) Kerala, Goa, West Bengal
d) Chandigarh, Goa, Kerala
10. District Judges in a State are appointed by the
a) Governor
b) Chief Justice of High Court
c) Advocate-General of the State
d) Council of Ministers of the State
11. Which one of the following is called the ‘Crossroads to Pacific’?
a) Hawaii
b) Ellice
c) Tonga
d) Fiji
12. Which of the following is an act of man that distrubs the ecological balance?
a) Lumbering
b) Social forestry
c) Vanamohtasv
d) Afforestation
13. Which one is not correctly matched?
a) Glasgow - Great Britain
b) Pittsburg - U.S.A
c) Longcoy - Russia
d) Rhine - Germany
14.How many States in India are coastal?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 7
d) 8
15. International boundary between India and Pakistan is demaracted by
a) Redcliffe Line
b) Maginot Line
c) McMahon Line
d) Durand Line
16. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plant kingdom?
a) Bryophyta
b) Pteridophyta
c) Algae
d) Fungi
17. Find the odd one out.
a) Tapeworm
b) Ringworm
c) Hookworm
d) Guinea worm
18. National Institute of Nutrition is a research institute located in the State of
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttra Pradesh
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Himachal Pradesh
19. Which one of the following events are chronologically correct?
a) Quit India Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
b) Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan – Quit India Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan
d) The Cabinet Mission Plan – Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement
20. Who founded the Vikramasila University?
a) Dharmapala
b) Mahipala
c) Dhruva
d) Devapala
21. Which of the following was not known during the Rigvedic period?
a) Varna system (Caste)
b) Marriage system
c) Joint family system
d) Agriculture
22. Match the following:
Dynasty Founder
A. Pallavas 1. Dantidurg
B. Chalukyus 2. Vishnuvardhan
C. Rashtrakutas 3. Simhavishnu
D. Hoysalas 4. Pulakisin I
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 4 1 2
23. Abul Fazl wrote
a) Akbar-Nama
b) Alamgir-Nama
c) Babar-Nama
d) Humayun-Nama
24. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time?
a) Half duplex
b) Full duplex
c) Super duplex
d) Simplex
25. What does the acronym ISDN stands for?
a) Intelligent Services Digital Network
b) Integrated Services Data Network
c) Indian Standard Digital Network
d) Integrated Services Digital Network
26. Darkening property of photochromatic glass is due to presence of
a) silver nitrate
b) silver chloride
c) silver bromide
d) silver oxide
27. Supersonic aircrafts discharge the following substances into the stratosphere:
a) CO2
b) H2
c) NOx
d) SOx
28. Chemical nature of laughing gas is:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Hydrogen chloride
29. The difference between isotopes of an element is due to the presence of a different number of
a) electrons
b) photons
c) protons
d) neutrons
30. The increasing abundance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects
excepts:
a) Oxygen fertilization effect
b) Cabon dioxide fertilization effect
c) Global warming
d) Depletion of Ozone layer in the stratosphere
31. A tree’s age can be found by
a) counting the number of branches
b) no means
c) measuring its height
d) counting the number of annual rings
32. The left aortic arch is observed in
a) Reptiles
b) Aves
c) Amphibians
d) Mammals
33. Tendon connects
a) bone to muscle
b) muscle to muscle
c) bone to bone
d) muscle to bone
34. Mercury is generally used in thermometers because it has a
a) high conductivity
b) high specific heat
c) high fludity
d) high density
35. To an observer on the lunar surface during day time, the sky will appear to be
a) Orange
b) Black
c) Light Yellow
d) Blue
36. Which of the following quantities is measure of ‘inertia’?
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Acceleration
37. The intensity of a wave
1. follows Inverse Square Law.
2. is proportional to its amplitude.
3. is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
a) Only 2 is true
b) 1 and 3 are true
c) 1 and 2 are true
d) 2 and 3 are true
38. In which of the following States, is the child sex-ratio the lowest as per the 2011 census?
a) Chattisgarh
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Punjab
39. Kaziranga Natrional Park is situated in:
a) Rajasthan
b) Assam
c) Odisha
d) Gujarat
40. Who is the author of the book ‘If Cricket is Religion, Sachin is God’?
a) Vijai Santhanam
b) Shyam Balasubramaniam
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
41. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sunder Lal Bahuguna?
a) He started the ‘Chipko Movement’ to create the awareness of deforestation.
b) He was elected to Lok Sabha from Uttarkashi in Uttarakhand
c) He is an eminent environmentalist.
d) He was awarded Padama Bhushan in 2009
42. The three countries, in serial order, who won the highest number of gold medals in the Beijing
Olympics Games are:
a) China, Germany, Australia
b) China, Germany, USA
c) China, USA, Russia
d) China, USA, Germany
43. The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is
a) Sister Alphonsa
b) Sister Nirmala
c) Sister Disouza
d) Sister Madorana
44. Which of the following fules causes minimum environmental pollution?
a) Hydrogen
b) Coal
c) Diesel
d) Kerosene
45. Minimata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution
in water by
a) Fluoride
b) DDT
c) Lead
d) Mercury
46. Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of
a) 3.0 ppm
b) 9.0 ppm
c) 0.2 ppm
d) 0.3 ppm
47. The first President to sail in a submarine in India was
a) V.V. Giri
b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
c) K. R. Narayanan
d) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
48. Cooking vessels have wooden or bakelite handles because
a) the handle must be strong
b) the handle should be attractive
c) wood and bakelite are bad conductors of heat
d) None of the above
49. ‘Deshbandhu’ is the title of
a) B.C. Pal
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) C.R. Das
50. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
a) Abhinav Bindra – Rifle Shooting
b) Sania Mirza – Badminton
c) Jeev Milkha Singh – Golf
d) Irfan Pathan – Cricket
ANSWERS:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. B
Monday, July 2, 2012
Wednesday, June 13, 2012
Scheme and Syllabus of Examination for SSC Sub Inspector (Executive) Recruitment 2012
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will conduct All India Examination for Sub Inspector (Executive) recruitment in Delhi Police on 19 August 2012. The minimum qualification needed for the same is Graduation from a recognized university or equivalent.
The examination will consist of a Written Examination, Physical Efficiency Testand Interview/ Personality Test. The written examination will consist of one objective type paper only comprising of 2 sets; Part I and Part II with deduction of 0.25 marks for each incorrect answer marked on OMR Answer Sheet. The candidate's overall performance will be judged for final recruitment. The candidates will have to undergo the following recruitment tests.
- Written Examination
a) Part I (200 marks, 200 questions, 10 am to 12 noon)
Part A: General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 marks)
Part B: General Knowledge & General Awareness (50 marks)
Part C: Quantitative Aptitude (50 marks)
Part D: English Comprehension (50 marks)
b) Part II: English Language & Comprehension (200 marks, 200 questions, 10 am to 12 noon) - Physical Standard Test (PST)/ Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
- Detailed Medical Examination (DME)
- Interview/ Personality Test
SSC Declared Result of Recruitment in Assam Rifles 2012 against unfilled posts in Deficit State /UT
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) declared result of male candidates qualified for recruitment of Constables (GD) and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles 2012 on 8 June 2012. A total of 29594 candidates have qualified for Medical Examination for recruitment against unfilled posts in deficit State /UT.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination on 22 April 2012 and will declare final result on 30 September 2012. The minimum qualification to take this exam was Matriculation or Xth class pass from a recognized board/ University.
To know the results CLICK HERE
SSC Declared Result of Recruitment in Assam Rifles 2012 for Border Districts
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) declared result of male candidates qualified for recruitment of Constables (GD) and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles 2012 on 8 June 2012. A total of 4096 candidates have qualified for Medical Examination for recruitment in Border Districts.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination on 22 April 2012 and will declare final result on 30 September 2012. The minimum qualification to take this exam was Matriculation or Xth class pass from a recognized board/ University.
To know the results CLICK HERE
Saturday, June 9, 2012
SSC Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police 2012
Staff Selection Commission will hold on19/08/2012, an All India Examination for recruitment to the following posts in Delhi Police :
- Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police : 335 posts (Male-324, Female-11) (Open-260, Departmental-32, Ex-SM-32), Age : 20-25 years as on 01/08/2012, relaxation in age as per rules, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs.420, Qualification : Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent and (B) Male candidates must possess a valid Driving License for LMV (Motor Cycle and Car) on the date fixed for Physical Endurance & Standard Tests.
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Regional / Sub Office of the SSC depending upon the choice of the exam centre by the candidates.
Candidates can apply Online at SSC Websitehttp://ssconline.nic.in ORhttp://www.sscregistration.sifyitest.com up to 04/0/720125.00 only for Part-I registration and up to 06/07/2012 5.00 pm for Part-II registration.
For further details, please view http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Notice%20for%20%20DELHI%20POLICE.pdf
Wednesday, June 6, 2012
Monday, May 21, 2012
SSC Released Marks List of candidates for Constable (GD) Recruitment in ITBPF
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) released Marks List of candidates for Constable (GD)
Recruitment in Indo Tibetan Border Police Force (ITBPF), 2011 on 15 May
2012. This marks awards list contains name and roll number of 5371
candidates whose marks were not placed on website earlier.
To know the Marks Award List CLICK HERE
To know the Marks Award List CLICK HERE
Saturday, May 19, 2012
SSC Declared Written Result for Assistant Grade III (General and Depot) Recruitment in FCI 2012
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) declared list of candidates qualified in Written
Examination for Assistant Grade III (General and Depot) recruitment in
Food Corporation of India (FCI) 2012 on 18 May 2012. A total of 7948
candidates were selected for Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) which is
qualifying in nature.
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
SSC Declared Written Result for Assistant Grade III (Accounts) Recruitment in FCI 2012
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) declared list of candidates qualified in Written
Examination for Assistant Grade III (Accounts) recruitment in Food
Corporation of India (FCI) 2012 on 18 May 2012. A total of 2197
candidates were selected for Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) which is
qualifying in nature.
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
SSC Declared Written Result for Assistant Grade III (Technical) Recruitment in FCI 2012
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) declared list of candidates qualified in Written
Examination for Assistant Grade III (Technical) recruitment in Food
Corporation of India (FCI) 2012 on 18 May 2012. A total of 5857
candidates were selected for Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) which is
qualifying in nature.
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
The candidates selected through this recruitment for posts in FCI will NOT, however, have the status of Central Government Civilian Employees.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted examination for AG-III posts (General/ Depot/ Technical/ Account) on 4 February 2012 and 5 February 2012 on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government. In addition, examination for AG-II and Typist (for Hindi Posts) was conducted on 22 January 2012. The recruitment will be done for 3755 vacant posts in 5 zones across India.
To know the results CLICK HERE
Friday, May 18, 2012
SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination Syllabus
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will conduct Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted) for recruitment in various Government Offices on 22 July 2012.
The examination will consist of a written examination (300 marks) and interview (100 marks).
Written Examination: The papers will be of 150 marks each of 90 minutes duration. The paper-I will consist of 150 questions of objective multiple choice. Paper-II will be descriptive type carrying maximum marks of 150.
Papers
|
Subject
|
Maximum Marks
|
Total Duration/ Timing for General candidates
|
Paper I Objective Type (OMR Answer Sheets will be provided for this Paper)
|
General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 questions)
|
50
|
One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (10.00 am to 12.00 pm)
|
General English (50 questions)
|
50
| ||
General Awareness (50 questions)
|
50
| ||
Paper II (Descriptive)
|
150
|
One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (1.30 pm to 3 pm)
|
Note: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I of written examination. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
Interview: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview. The interview will be held at places as may be decided by the Commission.
SSC to notify recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police on 2 June 2012
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will announce recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police through Delhi Police Examination 2012 on 2 June 2012 tentatively. The written examination is scheduled on 19 August 2012 and stages & scheme of recruitment will be identical to those of Sub- Inspector in CAPFs Examination.
A total of 335 vacancies will be notified for recruitment which includes 324 for male and 11 for female candidates with Degree in any subject as the minimum educational qualification.
The recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police will have three stages viz., Written Examination, Physical Endurance Test & Medical Examination, and Interview- cum- Personality Test. The recruitment will be on All-India basis and Interview will be conducted at Regional Offices for the convenience of the candidates.
Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, had requested SSC to undertake recruitment of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police.
Friday, May 4, 2012
SSC Declared Result of Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Paper I) for Civil discipline
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) declared result of candidates qualified in paper-I
(Junior Engineer Examination 2012) for evaluation of paper-II on 2 May
2012. A total of 5025 candidates were selected for evaluation of
paper-II for recruitment of 429 vacant posts of Junior Engineer (Civil).
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) on 8 April 2012 in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) on 8 April 2012 in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.
SSC Declared Result of Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Paper I) for Electrical & Mechanical
Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) declared result of candidates qualified in paper-I
(Junior Engineer Examination 2012) for evaluation of paper-II on 2 May
2012. A total of 1986 candidates were selected for evaluation of
paper-II for recruitment of 313 vacant posts of Junior Engineer
(Electrical & Mechanical).
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination on 8 April 2012 for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination on 8 April 2012 for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.
Tuesday, May 1, 2012
SSC – Constable (GD) Exam held on 22-April-2012 (SET – KI 2012 ) General Awareness Solved Paper
| 1. | Mohenjo-daro is situated in the district of A) Larkana B) Montgomery C) Sind D) Udhampur |
||||
| 2. | Tansen, afamous musician , was in court of A) Babar B) humayun C) Akbar D) Jahangir |
||||
| 3. | Wage fund theory was propounded by A) J.B.Say B) J.S. Mill C) J.R. Hicks D) J.M. Keynes |
||||
| 4. | The expenses on advertising is called A) Implicit cost B) Surplus cost C) Fixed cost D) Selling cost |
||||
| 5. | Price mechanism is a feature of A) Capitalist economy B) Barter economy C) Mixed economy D) Socialist economy |
||||
| 6. | The Ministers in the Union Government hold office during the pleasure of the A) Lok Sabha B) Parliament C) President D) Prime Minister |
||||
| 7. | The governor of an Indian State is appointed by the A) President of India B) Prime Minister of India C) Chief Justice of High Court D) Chief Minister of the state |
||||
| 8. | A micron is equal to A) 0.1 mm B) 0.01 mm C) 0.001 mm D) 0.0001 mm |
||||
| 9. | Itai- Itai disease is due to poisoning caused by A) Mercury B) Arsenic C) Cadmium D) Asbestos |
||||
| 10. | Blue-green algae are included in the group A) Eubacteria B) Cyanobacteria C) Protozoa D) Fungi |
||||
| 11. | Who introduced the Doctrine of Lapse ? A) Lord Harding B) Robert Clive C) William Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie |
||||
| 12. | Bailing , mustering and shearing are some activities connected with A) Rearing of Lama B) Cotton cultivation C) Sheep rearing D) Poultry farming |
||||
| 13. | Rubber plantations are found in A) Temperate forests B) Mountain regions C) Polar regions D) Equatorial regions |
||||
| 14. | Tides in the sea are caused by A) effect of Sun B) effect of Moon C) combined effect of Moon and Sun D) gravitational force of Earth and Sun |
||||
| 15. | Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use A) convex lens B) concave lens C) plano-convex lens D) plano- concave lens |
||||
| 16. | A light year is a unit of A) Time B) Distance C) Speed of Light D) Intensity of Light |
||||
| 17. | A "Bit" refers to A) Binary informatics B) Bilingual information C) Binary terminator D) Binary digit |
||||
| 18. | Iron is extracted from A) Cinnabar B) Haematite C) Bauxite D) Dolomite |
||||
| 19. | Which of the following imparts a blue colour to glass ? A) Cobalt oxide B) Copper oxide C) Iron oxide D) Nickel oxide |
||||
| 20. | The Magsaysay Award for social service was instituted by A) the Government of India B) The UNO C) The ILO D) Philippines Government |
||||
| 21. | Cauvery water sharing is a disputer between A) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh B) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka D) Karnataka and Maharashtra |
||||
| 22. | With which sport do you associate the name of Rod Laver ? A) Field Hockey B) Football C) Water-Polo D) Lawn Tennis |
||||
| 23. | Tundras are A) Deciduous forests B) Tropical rain forests C) Cold deserts D) Hot deserts |
||||
| 24. | In how many denominations is Indian paper currency printed at present ? A) 9 B) 8 C) 7 D) 6 |
||||
| 25. | The Indian representing an international organization who shared the Nobel Peace Prize with AL Gore of U.S. was A) Rajendra Pachauri B) Viswanathan Subramaniam C) R.N. Tagore C) Mother Teresa |
||||
| Ans. | 1.C 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.B | 11.D 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.B 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.D | 21.C 22.D 23.C 24.C 25.A | ||
SSC Stenographer Grade-c and Grade-D Recruitment
Stenographer Grade-C and Grade-D Examination-2012
Staff Selection Commission will hold on 29/07/2012, an examination for recruitment to the following posts:
- Stenographer Grade-c and Grade-D, Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27 years as on 01/08/2012, Relaxation in age as per rules.,Pay Scale : PB-2 Rs.9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4600 for Grade-C and PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs.2400/- for Grade-D
Closing Date: Last date for filling of the application is 25/05/2012 (5PM) (01/06/2012 for the candidates of far-flung areas)
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Regional / Sub Office of the SSC depending upon the choice of the exam centre by the candidates.
Candidates can apply Online at SSC Website http://ssconline.nic.in OR http://www.sscregistration.sifyitest.com up to 23/05/2012 for Part-I and up to 25/05/2012 only.
For further details, please view http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Steno_C_D_Exam2012.pdf and application format is available at http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Steno%20C&D%202012%20appl.pdf OR Online at http://ssconline.nic.in
SSC Recruitment of Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
Staff Selection Commission invites application from eligible
candidates for recruitment to the post of Junior Grade of Indian
Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted). The commission
will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for the recruitment.
Name of the Post for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted): 134 vacancies
Important Dates for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
The examination will consist of a written examination (300 marks) and interview (100 marks).
Written Examination: The papers will be of 150 marks each of 90 minutes duration. The paper-I will consist of 150 questions of objective multiple choice. Paper-II will be descriptive type carrying maximum marks of 150.
Note: There will be negative marking of
0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I of written examination.
Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering
the questions.
Interview: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview. The interview will be held at places as may be decided by the Commission.
How to Apply for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012: Applications must be submitted ON LINE only in the format available on SSC website http://ssc.nic.in/SSC.html A candidate must select only one of the centres given below for the examination and must submit his/ her online application. Entire work relating to this recruitment will be handled on behalf of the Commission by the Kerala- Karnataka (KKR) Regional Office situated at Bangalore. Therefore, all correspondence relating to the examination clearly mentioning the Registration id should be addressed to:-
The Regional Director (KKR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor,'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan,
Koramangala, Bangalore,
Karnataka-560034
Helpline Numbers of the Regional Office are: 09483862010 and 09483862020
Examination Centres
Apply Online
Application Fee: No application fee will be charged from Women candidates, SC, ST, Physically handicapped and Ex-servicemen and fee for General Category candidate is Rs 100.
The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee only through State Bank of India challan or using on-line payment facility of State Bank of India.
Challan Print
For more details, please CLICK HERE
Name of the Post for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted): 134 vacancies
Important Dates for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
- Opening date for online registration: 28 April 2012
- Closing date for Part I registration: 23 May 2012 upto 5 pm
- Closing date for Part II registration: 25 May 2012 upto 5 pm
- Date of Exam: 22 July 2012
- Educational Qualification
- a) Degree of a recognized University or equivalent
- b) Diploma in Journalism from a recognized University or equivalent
- Desirable Qualification: Three years experience of Journalistic, Publicity or Public relations work in a Government Department or any Newspaper/ News agency.
- Age Limit (as on 1 August 2012): Maximum 30 years
The examination will consist of a written examination (300 marks) and interview (100 marks).
Written Examination: The papers will be of 150 marks each of 90 minutes duration. The paper-I will consist of 150 questions of objective multiple choice. Paper-II will be descriptive type carrying maximum marks of 150.
| Papers | Subject | Maximum Marks | Total Duration/ Timing for General candidates |
| Paper I Objective Type (OMR Answer Sheets will be provided for this Paper) | General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 questions) | 50 | One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (10.00 am to 12.00 pm) |
| General English (50 questions) | 50 | ||
| General Awareness (50 questions) | 50 | ||
| Paper II (Descriptive) | 150 | One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (1.30 pm to 3 pm) |
Interview: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview. The interview will be held at places as may be decided by the Commission.
How to Apply for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012: Applications must be submitted ON LINE only in the format available on SSC website http://ssc.nic.in/SSC.html A candidate must select only one of the centres given below for the examination and must submit his/ her online application. Entire work relating to this recruitment will be handled on behalf of the Commission by the Kerala- Karnataka (KKR) Regional Office situated at Bangalore. Therefore, all correspondence relating to the examination clearly mentioning the Registration id should be addressed to:-
The Regional Director (KKR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor,'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan,
Koramangala, Bangalore,
Karnataka-560034
Helpline Numbers of the Regional Office are: 09483862010 and 09483862020
Examination Centres
| 1 | Delhi - 2201 |
| 2 | Chennai - 8201 |
| 3 | Kolkata - 4410 |
| 4 | Mumbai - 7204 |
| 5 | Allahabad - 3003 |
| 6 | Guwahati (Dispur) - 5105 |
| 7 | Bangalore - 9001 |
| 8 | Raipur - 6204 |
| 9 | Chandigarh - 1601 |
Apply Online
Application Fee: No application fee will be charged from Women candidates, SC, ST, Physically handicapped and Ex-servicemen and fee for General Category candidate is Rs 100.
The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee only through State Bank of India challan or using on-line payment facility of State Bank of India.
Challan Print
For more details, please CLICK HERE
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)