SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper

GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam Held On: 04-11-2012 (Morning Shift)

1. Who are the price-takers under Perfect Competition?
    a) buyers
    b) industry
    c) government
    d) firms
2. Open market operation refers to:
    a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
    b) borrowing by scheduled banks to industry and trade
    c) purchase and sale of government  securities
    d) deposit mobilisation
3. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of agricultural labour is zero
    is known as:
    a) Structural unemployment
    b) Seasonal unemployment
    c) Cyclical unemployment
    d) Disguised unemployment
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian Economy?
    a) low per capita income
    b) primacy of agriculture
    c) balance between heavy industry and wage goods.
    d) population pressure
5. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of the State Policy are
    like a “Cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
    a) K.T. Shah
    b) K.M. Munshi
    c) B.R. Ambedkar
    d) Austin
6. Term ‘Federal’ has been used in the Indian Constituion in:
    a) Preamble
    b) Part III
    c) Article 368
    d) Nowhere in the Constitution
7. Which of the following is associated with panchayati Raj?
    a) Shah Commission
    b) Nanavati Commission
    c) Balwant Rai Committee
    d) Liberhan Commission
8. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes distribution of seats in Rajya Sabha?
    a) 3rd schedule
    b) 4th schedule
    c) 5th schedule
    d) 6th schedule
9. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
    a) Inter-State rivers
    b) Trade Unions
    c) Citizenship
    d) Local Government
10. Which Amendment of the Constituion deals with Political defections?
      a) 44th
      b) 50th
      c) 52nd
      d) 60th

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper

GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam held on: 21-10-2012 (Evening Shift)

1. The Kharif crops are harvested in:
    a) June – July
    b) October – November
    c) May – June
    d) March – April
2. Which of the following cost curve is never “U” shapped?
    a) Average cost curve
    b) Marginal cost curve
    c) Average variable cost curve
    d) Average fixed cost curve
3. Hydro-electric power is a:
    a) renewable-natural resource
    b) non-renewable-natural resource
    c) a mixture of renewable and non-renewable natural resource
    d) neither renewable nor non-renewable resource
4. National Income is also called as:
    a) NNP at Market Price
    b) GNP at Factor Cost
    c) GNP at Market Price
    d) NNP at Factor Cost
5. The Members and Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, are
    appointed by the:
    a) Prime Minister of India
    b) President of India
    c) Chief Justice of India
    d) Parliament of India
6. At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals
    was not included in the Preamble?
    a) Equality
    b) Justice
    c) Socialist
    d) Liberty
7. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of:
    a) The President
    b) The Parliament
    c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
    d) The Comptroller and Auditor General
8. Which of the following is not a Union Territory?
    a) Lakshadweep
    b) Pondicherry
    c) Nagaland
    d) Daman and Diu
9. India was granted freedom during the British Prime Minister:
    a) William Pitt
    b) Clement Attlee
    c) Winston Churchill
    d) Ramsay MacDonald
10. In which of the following list does the subject ‘planning’ figure?
     a) Union List
     b) State List
     c) Concurrent List
     d) Residuary List

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Solved Paper

GENERAL AWARENESS
Exam Held On: 21-10-2012 (Morning Shift)

1. The basic characteristic of a capitalistic economy is
    a) full employment
    b) the private ownership of the means of production
    c) absence of monopoly
    d) large-scale production in primary industries
2. Which of the following taxes is not a direct tax?
    a) Gift tax
    b) Wealth tax
    c) Sales tax
    d) Estate duty
3. UNDP prepares
    a) Index Number of Price Level
    b) Physical Quality Index
    c) Human Development Index
    d) Standard of Living Index
4. Fiscal policy refers to
    a) Sale and purchase of securities by RBI
    b) Government taxes, expenditure and borrowings
    c) Government borrowings from abroad
    d) Sharing of its revenue by Central Government with States
5. Public opinion gets an authoritative expression in a democracy through
    a) Newspapers
    b) Parliament
    c) Pressure groups
    d) Public meetings
6. Which one of the following is not a determining factor of a country’s foreign policy?
    a) National interests
    b) Interdependence
    c) Cultural conditions
    d) Religious conditions
7. Who will act as the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee?
    a) The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha                    
    b) The Leader of the House
    c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    d) The Vice-President of India
8. Who was chosen unanimously as the President of India?
    a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
    b) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
    c) K.R. Narayanan
    d) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
9. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constitutent Assembly on
    a) 17th October, 1949
    b) 14th November, 1949
    c) 26th November, 1949
    d) 26th January, 1949
10. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
     a) Parliament
     b) Supreme Court
     c) High Court
     d) Election Commission

SSC EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is—
(A) Sleet
(B) Smog
(C) Snow-line
(D) Fog
Ans : (A)

2. ‘Operation Flood’ was launched in 1970 to—
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
Ans : (B)

3. Photogrammetry is—
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geometrical problems
(D) Use of photography in surveying and mapping
Ans : (D)

4. The spice State of India is—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans : (D)

5. Jog Falls is found across the river—
(A) Cauvery
(B) Kabini
(C) Krishna
(D) Sharavati
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following sea ports of India is the main outlet for export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

7. The International Date Line passes through the—
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snowfall
(C) Fog
(D) Hail
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following is a Great Circle ?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)

10. Tides in the sea have stored in them—
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the above
Ans : (D)

SSC Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Regional Offices of the Commission have advertised recruitment to Group ‘C’ posts of Multi Tasking Staff for which Matriculation or equivalent is the minimum qualification in various Central Government Ministries / Departments / Offices, in different States / Union Territories:

Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff  in various States and UTs, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1800, Age : 18-25 years as on 01/01/2013, Qualification : Matriculation or equivalent.

Fee Payable : Rs.100/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

 Date of Examinations : 10/03/2013 & 17/03/2013

How to Apply : .  Application in the prescribed format should be sent on or before07/12/2012 (14/12/2012 for candidates from far-flung areas) to various regional offices of the SSC where candidate wants to apply.  Candidates may apply online at SSC website only up to 05/12/2012 for part-I registration and 07/12/2012 for Part-II registration. 

For further details and application form, please viewhttp://www.sscner.org.in/MTS%20ADV.htm

SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS

The  written examination will consist of (Paper-I)   objective type paper  and (Paper-II)  descriptive type as shown below :

Paper-I:

             

Part	Subject	Maximum Mark	Total Duration / Timing for General candidates	Total Duration/ Timing for Visually Handicapped/   Cerebral Palsy  candidates
A	General  Intelligence  &    Reasoning       ( 25questions)	25	2 Hours 10.00 A.M. to  12.00  Noon                    or     2:00 PM to 4:00 PM	2 Hours 40 mins 10.00 A.M. to 12.40 PM                              or     2:00 PM to 4:40 PM
B	Numerical Aptitude ( 25 questions)	25
C	General English ( 50 questions)	50
D	General Awareness (50 questions)	50

Paper-II:

Subject	Maximum Marks	Total Duration / Timing for General candidates	Total Duration/ Timing for Visually Handicapped/ Cerebral Palsy  candidates
Short Essay/Letter in  English and Vernacular language	50	30 minutes	45 minutes

NOTE-I :  Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only.    The questions will be set both in English & Hindi, except Part III. The Commission reserves the right to set the questions additionally in regional languages subject to technical feasibility.

NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.  Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

NOTE-III: Paper-II will be descriptive in which the candidate will be required to write short essay/letter in English andone language included in the 8th schedule of the Constitution.

NOTE-IV: Paper-II will only be of qualifying nature and is intended to test elementary language skills in view of recategorization of the post as Group-C and in view of job requirements.

NOTE-V: Paper-II will be held only for such candidates who meet the cut-off prescribed by the Commission in Paper-I for different categories. The date and time of the Paper will be communicated to shortlisted candidates in due course.  Commission reserves the right to set separate qualifying standard in any Part of Paper-I.

SYLLABUS :

Paper-I Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post.  Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably.  Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard. 

 General Intelligence:     It would include questions of non-verbal type.  The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc.  The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

English Language : Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.  

Numerical Aptitude:  This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.

General Awareness:  Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society.  Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person.  The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

SSC FCI Grade-II Exam 2012 Paper-I Solved Paper

     

SSC FCI Assistant Grade-3 Exam 2012 Paper

     

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012 Paper

     

Revised Negative Marking Scheme by SSC for FCI Assistant Grade III Exam

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) notified for Combined Recruitment to Category III in the FCI 2013. SSC will conduct a written examination for the posts, on behalf of FCI under special dispensation given by the Government, on 11 November 2012.
Initially it was decided, for every answer wrongly replied, 0.25 would be deducted in regard to all multiple choice questions. However, now it has been notified that instead of  the earlier mentioned mark 0.50 marks would be deducted .

SSC EXAMS SCHEDULE 2013

SSC CORRECT KEYS

•  Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Re-exam. 2012 - Correct keys regarding.
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•  Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (Executive) in Delhi Police, 2012 - correct keys regarding.
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•  Re-examination for Steno. Grade C&D Exam.,2012 held on 26.8.2012- keys regarding - reg.
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•  Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF
Examination, 2012 held on 27.05.2012
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•  RE-EXAMINATION FOR THE RECRUITMENT OF SEPOY IN NCB EXAM. 2012 -keys regarding.
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•  RECRUITMENT OF CONSTABLES (GD) IN CAPFS AND RIFLEMAN (GD) IN
ASSAM RIFLES, 2012- KEYS USED BY THE COMMISSION IN THE DIFFERENT
TEST FORMS- reg.
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•  COMBINED RECRUITMENT FOR ASSTT. GRADE III IN GENERAL/
TECHNICAL AND ACCOUNTANT CADRES) IN THE FCI,2012- CORRECT KEYS REG
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•  Junior Engineers (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and
Contract) Exam., 2012- Correct keys reg.
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•  Common Screening Test for recruitment of Sub-Inspector(Fire) in CISF
Examination, 2012 and various selection posts held on 26.02.2012-regarding
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•  Combined Recruitment for Asstt. Grade III in General /Technical and
Accountant Cadres) in the FCI, 2012- keys used by the Commission for the
different question paper/Test Forms Booklets
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•  Key For FCI Examination-2012 (AG-II/ Hindi Typist) held on 22 January 2012
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• Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator(in Subordinate Offices)and
Hindi Pradhyapak(Central Hindi Training Institute)etc.Examination,2011.
Keys used by the Commission reg.
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• Recruitment of the post of Scientific Assistant in Indian Metrological Department
Examination,2011 Keys used by the Commission reg
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• Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Exam.,2011 - KEYS USED BY
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• KEY USED BY THE COMMISSION FOR CONSTABLE (G.D.) IN CISF, BSF, CRPF AND
SSB,2011 HELD ON 5.6.2011
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•  COMMON SCREENING TEST DATED 16/10/2011 FOR RECRUITMENT TO THE DIFFERENT 
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• EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT OF SUB-INSPECTORS IN CPOS, ASSISTANT
SUB INSPECTORS IN CISF AND INTELLIGENCE OFFICER IN NCB, 2011-KEY USED BY
THE COMMISSION FOR THE DIFFERENT QUESTION PAPER/TEST FORMS BOOKLET PAPER-II -REG.
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THE COMMISSION FOR THE DIFFERENT QUESTION PAPER /TEST FORMS BOOKLET-REG.
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THE COMMISSION FOR THE DIFFERENT QUESTION PAPER /TEST FORMS BOOKLET-REG.
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SSC DELHI EXAM GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)