Sunday, July 27, 2014

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR SSC EXAMS

1. Which of the following are considered as the Alternative Nobel Prizes ? (a) Magsaysay Awards
(b) Right to Livelihood Awards
(c) Global Energy Awards
(d) Grammy Awards
2. In 2008 Bharat Ratna - India’s highest civilian award was given to(a) Narayan Murthy
(b) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(c) Ratan Tata
(d) B.R. Chopra
3. Traditionally, the first of Nobel Prizes awarded each year is in the category of (a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Medicine (d) Literature
4. World Forestry Day is observed on (a) January 21 (b) February 21 (c) March 21 (d) April 21
6. The first credit rating agency of India is (a) Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL)
(b) Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited
(c) Credit Analysis and Research Limited
(d) Duff Falps Credit Rating India Private Limited
7. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler(a) Qut-ub-uddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firoz Shah Tuglaq
(d) Alauddin Khilji
8. Security Printing Press is situated at (a) Dewas (b) Hyderabad (c) Nasik (d) Kolkata
9. The first classification of Pran (Respiration) is available in(a) Rig Veda
(b) Aitreye Brahman
(c) Chhandogya Upanishad
(d) Ish Upanishad
10. Asvaghosha wrote (a) Buddha Charita
(b) Sutta Pitak
(c) Abidhamma Pitak
(d) Vinay Pitak
11. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was(a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Badruddin Tayyabji
(c) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
12. Which principle was added by Mahavir Swami among the tenets of Jainism ? (a) Non-violence
(b) Non-Stealing
(c) Brahmacharya
(d) Non- Collection
13. The headquarters of ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian Nations) is situated in (a) Beijing (b) Manila (c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Jakarta
14. The Preamble to the Constitution of India reads as (a) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular, Republic
(b) Socialist, Democratic, Secular, Republic.
(c) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Republic
(d) Sovereign Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
15. Smog is a combination of (a) Air and Water Vapour
(b) Water and Smoke
(c) Fire and Water
(d) Smoke and Fog
16. Whose Prime Minister was Kautilya? (a) Harshvardhan
(b) Chandragupta-II
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Ashoka
17. Harijan Sangh was founded by (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
18. Vinegar is a commercial name of (a) Oxalic Acid (b) Hydrochloric Acid (c) Acetic Acid (d) Citric Acid
19. Dayana Mendoza was (a) Miss Universe 2008
(b) Miss Universe 2009
(c) Miss Universe 2010
(d) None of these
20. The Universe in a Single Atom, is a book by(a) Dr. Subhash C. Kashyap
(b) Dalai Lama
(c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) M.S. Swaminathan
21. Which one of the following is not written by Karl Marx ? (a) The Poverty of Philosophy
(b) Value, Price and profit
(c) State and Revolution
(d) The Critique of Political Economy
22. Zonal Councils have been created by(a) The Constitution
(b) Parliamentary Act
(c) Governments Declaration
(d) National Development Council
23. Who amongst the following founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal ?(a) J.A. Hickey
(b) Max Mueller
(c) Wilkins
(d) William Jones
24. The Book ‘Mother India’ was written by (a) Catherine Mayo
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
25. The first session of the all India Trade Union Congress held in Mumbai was presided over by (a) B. Shiva Rao
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) N.M. Joshi
(d) S.A. Dange
26. Which one of the following is associated with the Champaran Satyagraha of zMahatma Gandhi ? (a) Vallabha Bhai Patel
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(c) Shaukat Ali
(d) Raj kumar Shukla
27. The first newspaper published in English Language was(a) The Bengal Gazette (b) The Hindu (c) Young India (d) Native Opinion
28. The Corbett National Park gets its river from(a) Alaknanda (b) Ramganga river (c) Dhauliganga river (d) Sarda river
29. Which one of the following states is most urbanized as per 2001 Census Report ? (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal
30. According to 2001 Census, three states housing maximum urban population of the country are (a) Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
31. The Chaura-Chauri episode took place on (a) February Ist, 1922
(b) February 2nd, 1922
(c) February 4th, 1922
(d) February 6th, 1922
32. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose was born in the city of (a) Cuttack (b) Calcutta (c) Midnapore (d) Murshidabad
33. Which one of the following Mughal emperors was coronated twice ? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
34. The manuscript of which of the following scriputres has been included in the United Nations Heritage ? (a) Valmiki Ramayana (b) Rigveda (c) Mahabharat (d) Bhagwadgita
35. Which one of the following countries is credited with the establishment of Uranium city ? (a) Australia (b) Canada (c) Russia (d) U.S.A
36. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for outstanding contribution to (a) Afforestation and Conservation of wastelands
(b) Neat Technology and Development
(c) Wildlife Conservation
(d) Hindi Books on Environment
37. As per 2001 census, which one of the states of Indian has the highest literacy? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Mizoram (d) Punjab
38. As per Census 2001, the percentage of the Scheduled Tribes population in India is (a) 7.20 (b) 7.50
(c) 8.20 (d) 8.50
39. Pusa Sugandha - 5 is an aromatic variety of (a) Maize (b) Red gram (c) Rice (d) Sugarcane
40. The territory of Puducherry lies divided in the states of (a) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa
41. HBJ Pipeline transports natural gas from (a) Hazira (b) Kalol (c) Bassein (d) Godavari basin
42. About 30 per cent of India’s area lies in three states of (a) Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
43. The first woman to scale the World’s 14 highest mountains is (a) Dorothy Height
(b) Oh Eun-sun
(c) Aditi Malik
(d) None of the above
44. The first lok pal bill was introduced in the Parliment in (a) May 1968 (b) May 1980 (c) July 1982 (d) June 1985
45. Who said “the philosophers must be the Kings”? (a) Plato (b) Aristotle (c) Socrates (d) Bernard Shaw
46. Swarn Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) was introduced in (a) 1996 (b) 1998 (c) 1995 (d) 1997
47. Tungbhadra Project is joint river project between which pari of states ? (a) Andhra pradesh and Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(c) Himachal Pradesh and Punjab
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
48. The number of acknowledged indigenous breeds of cattle, India possesses is(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 26 (d) 29
49. D. Oliveira Trophy is associated with(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Chess (d) Football
50. The Attorney - General of India is appointed by the President of India under (a) Article 76 (b) Article 78 (c) Article 75 (d) Article 80
51. Kaveri is the longest river of (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
52. Falklands Islands has been a disputed territory between (a) Britain and Chile
(b) Britain and Agrentina
(c) Argentina and Chile
(d) Mexico and USA
53. The Sukhoi T-50 is the first fifth generation jet fighter which belongs to (a) Russia (b) USA (c) France (d) China
54. The Femina Miss India East 2010 is (a) Pooja Chopra (b) Unnati Davara (c) Rohini Mukherjee (d) Eram Karim
55. Earth Day is observed on (a) April 22 (b) April 18 (c) April 23 (d) April 30
56. Sachin Tendulkar became the first cricketer to score double century in One Day International against(a) South Africa (b) Zimbabwe (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan
60. As per the fourth advance estimate of Agriculture Ministry the total food grains production in 2008-09 was estimated at (a) 217.28 million tonne
(b) 233.88 million tonne
(c) 230.78 million tonne
(d) 98.83 million tonne
61. India’s rank in using the wireless network in the world is 
(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth
62. The author of ‘The Prince’ is (a) Justin (b) Herodotus (c) Niccolo Machiavelli (d) Megasthenes
63. How many ruling dynasties were there in the Delhi Sultanate ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
65. The runner-up in World Twenty 20 Cup was(a) England (b) Australia (c) Zimbabwe (d) New Zealand
66. National Sports day is observed on (a) August 30 (b) August 29 (c) August 24 (d) August 19
67. India’s biggest grid-connected solar power plant has been set up at(a) Bangalore (b) Khammam (c) Kolar District (d) Palakkad
68. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus ? (a) Plague (b) Cholera (c) Tetanus (d) Chicken Pox
69. Which of the following has implemented scheme FRIENDS for better deliverance of Services to the people? (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
70. Ka Pamblang Nongkrem festival is annually celebrated in (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Meghalaya (c) Sikkim (d) Manipur
71. Vantawng Falls is located in (a) Mizoram (b) Manipur (c) Arunachal Pradesh  (d) Tripura
72. JBSA does not have as its member (a) India (b) Brazil (c) China (d) South Africa
73. The First ASEAN Summit was held in (a) Bali (b) Hanoi (c) Manila (d) Bangkok
74. Mahatma Gandhi laid down four preconditions for a Satyagrahi (Passive Resistor) to fulfil. Which one of the following was not among them ? (a) Observe perfect chastity
(b) Embrace higher education
(c) Follow truth
(d) Cultivate fearlessness
75. Mughal Emperor Akbar divided his empire into (a) Fifteen Subas (provinces)
(b) Twelve Subas (provinces)
(c) Twenty Subas (provinces)
(d) Ten Subas (provinces) 

ANSWERS:
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. A 
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. C 
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. A 
51. B 52. B 53. A 54. B 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. C 60 B 
61. A 62. C 63. D 64. A 65. B 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. A 70. B 
71. A 72. C 73. A 74. B 75. B

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE MCQs

1. Which of the following is know as the Act for the Good Government of India? (a) Indian Councils Act 1861
(b) Government of India Act 1858
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Government of India Act 1919
2. Which British Prime Minister announced a scheme of representation of the minorities which came to be known as Communal Award in 1932? (a) Ramsay Mac Donald
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) None of the above
3. Which of the following words was not added to the Preamble of the Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976? (a) Sovereign (b) Socialist
(c) Secular (d) Integrity
4. Which of the following Articles provides for securing all citizens, a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India? (a) Article 44 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 46 (d) Article 47
5. Who said that Directive Principles are “aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution or to foster this revolution by establishing the conditions necessary for its achievement” ? (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) M.C. Chagla
(c) Granville Austin
(d) B.N. Rau
6. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act, was it provided that Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by the enactment of Constitutional Amendment Act? (a) The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971)
(b) The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971)
(c) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976)
(d) None of the above
7. The provision of Contingency Fund of India has been made under (a) Article 266
(b) Article 265
(c) Article 267
(d) Article 268
8. Who was the first scholar to use the term ‘Indus Civilization’ ? (a) John Marshall
(b) Rakhal Das Bannerjee
(c) R.S. Bist
(d) Dayaram Sahni
9. National Food for work Programme was launched on (a) November 20, 2004
(b) December 1, 2005
(c) November 14, 2004
(d) October 5, 2007
10. The recommendations of the 11th Finance Commission covered the period (a) April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2007
(b) April 1, 2002 to March 31, 2005
(c) April 1, 2007 to March 31, 2012
(d) None of the above
11. Which of the following committees is associated with reforms in small industries? (a) K.L. Rekhi Committee
(b) R. Chelliah Committee
(c) Abid Hussain Committee
(d) None of the above
12. Which of the following awards is associated with Agriculture ? (a) Bourlog Award
(b) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar
(c) Arjun Award
(d) Vyasa Samman
13. Who is known as the Father of Sanskrit Grammar ? (a) Panini (b) Patanjali
(c) Kalidas (d) None of the above
14. Who among the following is known as the Morning Star of Indian Renaissance? (a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
15. Who among the following is the recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke Award ?(a) Javed Akhtar
(b) Akkineni Nageshwar Rao
(c) Manoj Kumar
(d) Subhash Ghai
16. ‘Romanching with Life’ is a book written by(a) Dilip Kumar
(b) Debasheesh Dutta
(c) Dev Anand
(d) Hema Malini
17. Which of the following won women’s hockey Gold in Olympic Games 2008? (a) Holland (b) Australia
(c) Germany (d) USA
18. Uranium Corporation of India is located in (a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Jadugoda
19. Phylloquinone is the chemical name of (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin C
20. The Copenhagen Award related to Climate Change was adopted on (a) December 15, 2009
(b) December 19, 2009
(c) December 10, 2009
(d) December 30, 2009
21. The Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2008 came into effect in (a) January 2010
(b) January 2009
(c) January 2008
(d) None of these
22. The CNN-IBN Indian of the year 2009 is (a) A. R. Rahman
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Mukesh Ambani
(d) Sania Mirza
23. Who received the Best Actor Award at the 56th National Film Awards? (a) Upendra Limaye
(b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Arjun Rampal
(d) None of the above
24. B.C. Roy Trophy is associated with (a) Cricket (b) Football
(c) Chess (d) Hockey
25. India’s first Special Economic zone dedicated to the aerospace industry has been launched at (a) Hyderabad
(b) Hallargi
(c) Shimla
(d) Ahmedabad
26. Which Indian Golf player has been named rookie of the year 2009?(a) Rashid Khan
(b) Anirban Lahiri
(c) Gaganjeet Bhullar
(d) C. Muniyappa
27. Who among the following clinched Junior Boy’s singles title in Australian Open 2010 (Tennis Championship)? (a) Leander Paes
(b) Tiago Fernandes
(c) Bob Bryan
(d) Meke Bryan
28. As per the 2009 Human Development India’s rank in Human Development Index is (a) 135th (b) 134th
(c) 133th (d) 130th
29. Who among the following is not the winner of the Nobel Prize 2009 for Medicine? (a) Elizabeth H. Blackburn
(b) Carol W. Greider
(c) Jack W. Szostak
(d) Elinor Ostrom
30. National Youth Day is observed on (a) January 15
(b) January 12
(c) January 20
(d) January 28
31. The Hockey World Player for 2009 is (a) Rajpal Singh
(b) Jamie Dwyer
(c) Grant Shubert
(d) None of the above
32. Theorphrastus is called the Father of (a) Botany (b) Zoology
(c) Anatomy (d) Astrology
33. Matatilla Multi-purpose Project is located on (a) River Betwa (b) River Rihand
(c) River Tapi (d) River Mahi
34. Dakar is the capital of (a) Romania (b) Senegal
(c) Syprus (d) Mozambique
35. Which of the following cities is situated on the river Hudson? (a) Paris (b) New York
(c) London (d) Montreal
36. Which of the following cities is famous for Tobacco industry? (a) Jharia (b) Khetri
(c) Ferozabad (d) Guntur
37. Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth schedule to the Constitution of India by 21st Constitutional Amendment Act 1967? (a) Sindhi (b) Punjab
(c) Malyalam (d) Tamil
38. Which of the following states does not have legislative council? 
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
39. Which of the following is known as ‘Queen of the Adriatic’ ? (a) Stockholm (b) Chicago
(c) Venice (d) Strait of Gibraltar
40. Which of the following organisations has its headquarters in Rome? (a) World Food Programme
(b) Food and Agriculture Organisation (c) International Labour Organisation
(d) European Free Trade Association
41. The most worshipped God in later Vedic period (100 BC-600 BC) was (a) Indra (b) Agni
(c) Varuna (d) Prajapati
42. The capital of Mahajanpad Vatsa was (a) Kausambi (b) Mathura
(c) Varanasi (d) Viratnagar
43. Four Noble Truths are associated with (a) Jainism
(b) Hinduism
(c) Buddhism
(d) None of these
44. Alexander, the Great invaded India In (a) 325 BC (b) 326 BC
(c) 327 BC (d) 330 BC
45. The second Buddhist Council was held in 383 BC in (a) Saptaparni (b) Vaishali
(c) Patliputra (d) Kundala Van
46. Rishabhadeva was Jainism (a) First Tirthankar
(b) Second Tirthankar
(c) Last Tirthankar
(d) None of the above
47. Kundgram is the birth place of (a) Lord Mahavira
(b) Lord Buddha
(c) Lord Krishna
(d) Guru Nank
48. Who was the founder of Mimansa Darshan (Philosophy) ?(a) Jamini (b) Badarayana
(c) Patanjali (d) Kapila
49. Which of the following rivers was known by the name Vitasta in ancient Vedic period? (a) Jhelum (b) Chenab
(c) Parushani (d) Beas
50. Who established Nalanda (Buddhist) University ? (a) Gopala (Pala ruler)
(b) Dharampla (Pala ruler)
(c) Kumargupta I (Gupta ruler)
(d) Rampal (Pala Ruler)
51. Harisena who wrote prayaga Prasasti / Allahabad Pillar inscription was the court poet of (a) Chandragupta - I
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Kumargupta - II
(d) Chandragupta-II
52. Harsh era began in (a) 706 AD (b) 606 AD
(c) 8056 AD (d) 506 AD
53. Who among the following was not the part of tripartite struggle which took place towards the end of the 8th Century ?(a) Pallavas (b) Palas
(c) Partiharas (d) Rashtrakutas
54. Who among the following created the department of Agriculture Diwan-i-Kohi? (a) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(d) Ibrahim Lodhi
55. Which Sultanate ruler assumed the title Zille-Ilahi (Shadow of God)?(a) Alaudding Khilji
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban
56. Who wrote Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi giving an account of Firoz Shah Tughlaq’s reign ?(a) Alberuni
(b) Zia Uddin Barni
(c) Amir Khusrau
(d) Minhaj-us-Siraj
57. The most famous sufi saint of Naqshbandi order of Sufism is (a) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhind
(b) Shaikh Badruddin Samar Kandi
(c) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya
(d) Khwaja Baqi Billah
58. Akbar proclaimed new religion Din-i-Ilahi in (a) 1560 (b) 1570
(c) 1581 (d) 1590
59. In India, the first Portuguese governor of was (a) Alfonso d Albuquerque
(b) Francisco de Almeida
(c) Nino da Cunha
(d) Martin Alfonso de Souza
60. The headquarters of Central Water Tribunal is located in(a) Kolkata (b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
61. By which Constitutional Amendment Act was Article 19 amended to impose restrictions on the freedom of expression? (a) 16th Constitutional Amendment Act 1963
(b) 19th Constitutional Amendment Act 1966
(c) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act 1963
(d) 14th constitutional Amendment Act 1962
62. The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Article 5 to 11 under (a) Part III (b) Part II
(c) Part IV (d) Part V
63. Traffic in human beings and forced labour has been prevented under (a) Article 24 (b) Article 26
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 27
64. Who among the following has called the Constitution of India a paradise for lawyers? (a) Lvor Jennings
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Dr. B.N. Rao
65. Who was the chairman of Special Committee to Examine the Draft Constitution of India? (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Sir Alladi Krisnaswamy lyer
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
66. The Final session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on (a) January 20,1950
(b) January 25,1950
(c) January 24,1950
(d) January 15,1950
67. The ideal of justice as enshrined in the preamble to the Constitution of India has been taken from (a) Irish Constitution
(b) Russian Constitution
(c) Japanese Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution
68. In which of the following cases did Supreme Court of India hold that Preamble is a part of the Constitution ? (a) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
(b) Berubar Union Case (1960)
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
69. Under which Article can the Martial law be imposed? (a) Article 35 (b) Article 34
(c) Article 36 (d) Article 38
70. The Protection of Civil Rights Act which provides for punishments for offences related to caste and religion was passed in (a) 1955 (b) 1960
(c) 1965 (d) 1970
71. Who among the following has never been Chairman of Finance Commission of India?(a) N.K.P. Salve (b) Y.B. Chavan
(c) A.M. Khusro (d) B.B. Tandon
72. On behalf of the government which of the following decides Minimum Support Prices? (a) Planning Commission
(b) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) Agriculture Cost and Price Commission
73. Tarapore Committee Submitted its report on full convertibility on Rupee in (a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Both in Current as well as in capital account
(d) Speical Drawings Rights (SDR)
74. SEBI is a (a) Statutory Body
(b) Advisory Body
(c) Constitutinal Body
(d) Non - Statutory Body
75. When was SAARC established ? (a) On December 8, 1984
(b) On January 1, 1984
(c) On December 8, 1985
(d) On January 1, 1985

ANSWERS: 
1. b 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. b 
11. c 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. b 
21. a 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. b 
31. b 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. b 
41. d 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. c 
51. b 52. b 53. a 54. a 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. b 
61. a 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. a 
71. d 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c

Staff Selection Commission Stenographers (Grade 'C' & 'D') Examination General Awareness Solved Paper (Exam held on December 2013)

1. Hexachlorobenzene is known as
(A) Pyrene
(B) Artificial silk
(C) Gammexane
(D) Artificial camphor

2. The percentage of fresh water on the Earth's surface is nearly
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 5

3. Which of the following is not an operating system from Microsoft?
(A) Windows NET
(B) Windows 7
(C) Windows 2000
(D) Windows XP

4. Electromagnetic wave coming out of the nucleus of a natural radioactive atom is
(A) Alpha ray
(B) Beta ray
(C) Gamma ray
(D) Microwave

5. In contact process, the gas produced is
(A) Nitric oxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Sulphur trioxide
(D) Ammonia

6. The name of Lavoisier is associated with the gas
(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrogen

7. The principle of light based on which shadow is formed, is
(A) Rectilinear propagation
(B) Diffraction
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction

8. If a light and a heavy body have equal momentum, then kinetic energy is
(A) greater for heavier body
(B) independent of momentum
(C) greater for lighter body
(D) lesser for lighter body

9. The distance between two crests in a wave is given by
(A) Wave number
(B) Wave velocity
(C) Amplitude
(D) Wavelength

10. Acting on a non-rigid body, a force can
(A) produce dimensional change
(B) Produce change in direction of motion
(C) start motion
(D) stop motion

11. Four bits in a computer memory is equal to a
(A) Kilobyte
(B) Megabyte
(C) Nibble
(D) Byte

12. In which phylum of animals does respiration take place by gill, called Ctenidia?
(A) Echinodermata
(B) Chordata
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Mollusca

13. Who among the following was not a member of Subhas Chandra Bose's Azad Hind Fauj?
(A) Captain Mohan Singh
(B) G.S. Dhillon
(C) P.K. Sahgal
(D) Shah Nawaz Khan

14. Which of the following foreign banks has the maximum number of branches in India?
(A) City Bank
(B) ABN - Amro Bank
(C) Standard Chartered Bank
(D) HSBC

15. Which of the following has been the fastest growing State during the last seven
years (2005-06 to 2011-12) ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Bihar
(D) Gujarat

16. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered in 1898 A.D. by
(A) Henri Becquerel
(B) J.J. Thomson
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Pierre Curie

17. Television was discovered by
(A) Marconi
(B) J.L. Baird
(C) Humphrey Duguit
(D) Peterson

18. The Prime Minister of Japan is
(A) Yoshihiko Noda
(B) Naoto Kan
(C) Shinzo Abe
(D) None of these

19. At the oscar Awards ceremony in 2012, the Best Picture Award was given for the film
(A) The Artist
(B) The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo
(C) Rango
(D) Hugo

20. Who composed "Ai - hole" prasasti?
(A) Harisena
(B) Nayanikar
(C) Kautilya
(D) Ravikirti

21. Buddha was born in
(A) 623 B.C.
(B) 602 B.C
(C) 523 B.C.
(D) 563 B.C.

22. 'Chhau' dance is a form of dancing found in
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal

23. Which among the following is the renewable source of energy?
(A) Petroleum
(B) Coal
(C) Wood
(D) Atomic fuel

24. In pitcher plant, pitcher is developed from
(A) Flower
(B) Apical bud
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf

25. Which one of the following is a bio-fertiliser?
(A) Bone meal
(B) Rhizobium cultures
(C) Green manure
(D) Vermi compost

26. Swami Vivekananda was associated with
(A) Ramakrishna Mission
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Prarthana Samaj

27. Which of the following countries has a Presidential form of Government?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) Nepal

28. According to Gandhiji, Satyagraha may take the form of
(A) Coercion
(B) Civil disobedience
(C) Violent strike
(D) revolution

29. Who will legislate on the subjects which have not been mentioned in any of the three lists of the Indian Constitution?
(A) State Legislatures
(B) Parliament
(C) Both Parliament and State Legislatures
(D) None of the above

30. The last ruler of Delhi Sultanate was
(A) Jalal Khan Lodi
(B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bahlul Lodi
(D) Sikander Lodi

31. Who was the guardian of Akbar?
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Amir Khusrau
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Bahlul Lodi

32. Which one of the following pairs is an example for joint supply?
(A) Tea and coffee
(B) Pen and pencil
(C) Paddy and straw
(D) Car and petrol

33. The concept of 'Sarvodaya' is commonly associated with
(A) Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Gandhi
(D) Nehru

34. Who had said, "Property is theft"?
(A) Prince Kropotkin
(B) Michael Bakunin
(C) Thomas Moore
(D) Prodhon

35. In economics, the central problem is
(A) Population
(B) Consumption
(C) Allocation
(D) Scarcity

36. Extension in demand occurs when the
(A) price increases
(B) price of the substitute increases
(C) quantity demand increases
(D) demand increases

37. In case of perfectly inelastic demand, the degree of elasticity is
(A) = 0
(B) = 1
(C) > 0
(D) < 0

38. An indifference curve with 'L' shape represents
(A) Perfect substitutability
(B) Perfect complementarily
(C) Imperfect substitutability
(D) No complementarily

39. Gene is
(A) Particular DNA segment which determines heredity of a particular trait
(B) Half DNA segment of somatic cells
(C) Whole DNA
(D) Half DNA segment

40. The percentage of tribal population to total population is maximum in
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

41. "Origin of Species" is written by
(A) Darwin
(B) Weismann
(C) Muller
(D) Mendel

42. An orchid is considered to be a/ an
(A) symbiont
(B) endophyte
(C) parasite
(D) epiphyte

43. 'Amniocentesis' should be strictly followed to
(A) improve the health of the foetus
(B) provide for easy birth of the child
(C) detect hereditary abnormalities of the foetus
(D) determine the sex of the foetus

44. The confirmatory test for HIV virus causing AIDS is
(A) CDR Count
(B) Western blot test
(C) ELISA test
(D) PCR

45. Which one of the following is an example of igneous rock?
(A) Marble
(B) Sandstone
(C) Gabbro
(D) Limestone

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Bushmen - Atacama
(B) Tuaregs - Kalahari
(C) Bedouins - Sahara
(D) Binidibus - Australian desert

47. Name a cold desert region of India.
(A) Baramulla
(B) Dun Valley
(C) Ladakh
(D) Shillong Plateau

48. The largest number of Roman coins have been found from
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Both ((A) and ((B) above
(D) West Bengal

49. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over Sindh at the time of Arab invasion?
(A) Brahman
(B) Pratihar
(C) Shahiya
(D) Rai

50. Which State has the largest population of Scheduled Tribes?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Odisha
(D) Rajasthan

ANSWERS:
1-C; 2-B; 3-A; 4-C; 5-C; 6-A; 7-A; 8-C; 9-D; 10-A;
11-C; 12-D; 13-A; 14-C; 15-C; 16-A; 17-B; 18-C; 19-A; 20-D;
21-A; 22-D; 23-C; 24-D; 25-B; 26-C; 27-B; 28-C; 29-B; 30-B;
31-C; 32-C; 33-C; 34-D; 35-D; 36-C; 37-C; 38-B; 39-A; 40-B;
41-A; 42-A; 43-C; 44-C; 45-C; 46-D; 47-C; 48-C; 49-D; 50-A;

Saturday, July 19, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2014

The Staff Selection Commission will hold the Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2014 for recruitment to the Group-“C” posts of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerk.
Vacancies/Reservation: Tentative vacancies for the post of Data Entry Operators and Lower Divisional Clerk are 1006 and 991 respectively.

Qualification (As on 01/08/2014): Must have passed 12th standard or equivalent examination from a recognised board or university.

Age Limit (As on 01/08/2014): 18-27 years 

Fee: Rs. 100/- payable through CRF stamps for offline application or SBI Challan or Online payment through SBI payment portal in the case of online application. Fee is exempted for all Women, SC, ST, Physically Handicapped and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation, as per Government orders.

Scheme of Written Examination: The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below:

Date of ExamPartSubjectMax MarksTotal Duration/ TimingTotal Duration/ Timing for Visually Handicapped/ Cerebral Palsy candidates including compensatory time.
02.11.14 & 09.11.14IGeneral Intelligence (50 questions)502 Hours 10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon or 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM2 Hours 40 Minute 10.00 A.M. to 12.40 Noon or 2:00 PM to 4:40 PM
IIEnglish Language (Basic Knowledge) (50 questions)50
IIIQuantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) (50 questions)50
IVGeneral Awareness (50 questions)50

How to Apply:
 The applications should be addressed to the Regional/ Sub-Regional Offices of the Commission as indicated in the notification. 

Last Date: 19-Aug-2014

For more details, please visit: 

Saturday, July 12, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (West Region) Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
  1. Assistant Epigraphist (Arabic and Persian Inscriptions): 03 Posts
    Qualification:
    Masters degree in Persian or Arabic with Medieval Indian History as subjects at the Bachelors degree level or equivalent. Or Masters degree in History with Medieval Indian History as a subjects and Arabic or Persian as one of the subjects at the Bachelor degree level or equivalent. 
  2. Dietician Grade-III: 15 Posts
    Qualification: i). Postgraduate degree in Food Nutrition or Dietetics and Food Service management from a recognised university or institute ii). Two years experience as a Dietician in Hospital or Medical Institute. Or i). Degree in Home Science along with Diploma in Dietetics from a recognised university or institute. ii). Two years experience as a Dietician in Hospital or Medical institute.
  3. Bosun: 05 Posts
    Qualification: i) 12th Standard pass or equivalent. ii). Possession of a Certificate of Competency as Mate Fishing Vessel issued by Mercantile Marine Department.
  4. Sr. Scientific Assistant: 08 Posts
    Qualification:
    Master degree in Marine Biology or Zoology or Oceanography or Fishery Science or Fisheries Management or Industrial Fisheries or Aquatic Biology in Fisheries from a recognised university. Or Postgraduate Diploma in Fishery Science of the Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai.
  5. Clerk: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Matriculate or equivalent. ii). One years experience in Government Department/ Undertaking. 
  6. Assistant Manager cum Storekeeper: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Matriculate or equivalent with one year Diploma in Book-Keeping or Store Keeping. ii). Three years experience.
  7. Photographer Grade-III: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Must have passed Matriculation or equivalent examination. ii). Knowledge of practical experience of photography and photomicrography, developing, printing, enlarging, copying and preparation of lantern slides. iii). Two years experience of taking indoor and outdoor photographs of zoological objects. 
  8. Junior Cartographic Assistant: 01 Post
    Qualification: Masters degree in Geography.
  9. Jr. Technical Assistant: 21 Posts
    Qualification: Degree in Commerce or Economics or degree in Law from a recognised university. Qualifications are relax able at the discretion of Staff Selection Commission in case of candidates otherwise well qualified. 
  10. Accountant: 01 Post
    Qualification: Degree from a recognised university or institution with Commerce or Accounts as one the subject. Qualification is relax able at the discretion of the Staff Selection Commission, for reasons to be recorded in writing, in case of candidates otherwise well qualified. 
  11. Scientific Assistant: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Bachelors degree in Science with Chemistry as a main Subject. Or Diploma in Chemical Engineering/ Chemical Technology. ii). Two years experience in Quality Assurance of Explosives or Chemicals. 
  12. Store Superintendent: 01 Post
    Qualification: Diploma in Material Management or any Diploma having Material Management as a subject or Diploma in Pharmacy from a recognised university or institution or equivalent. 
  13. Sr. Library and Information Assistant: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Degree of recognised university or equivalent. ii). Bachelors degree or equivalent Diploma in Library Science of a recognised university or equivalent diploma in Library Science of a recognised university/ institute or equivalent. iii). Professional experience in a Library of standing or Certificate in Computer Applications from a recognised institute. 
  14. Draughtsman Grade-I: 06 Posts
    Qualification: i). Higher Secondary (10+2). ii).Three years Diploma in Mechanical Engineering from a recognised university/ or equivalent. 
  15. Draughtsman Grade-I: 28 Posts
    Qualification:
     i). Higher Secondary (10+2). ii). Three years Diploma in Electrical/ Mechanical Engineering from a recognised university or equivalent.
For More Posts: Refer Notification.

Examination Fee: Rs.50/-.

How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (WR), 1st floor, Pratishtha Bhavan, 101, Mk Road, Mumbai-400020.

Last Date: 14-Aug-2014

For more details, please visit:
http://sscnr.net.in/newlook/downloads/2014/WR_1_2014_ENGLISH_27_
JUN_final_3714.pdf

Wednesday, July 2, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (Madhya Pradesh) Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
  1. Junior Chemist: 02 Posts
    Qualification:
     i). Masters degree in Chemistry or Dairy Chemistry or Oil Technology or Food Technology from a recognised university. Or ii). B.Sc. degree with Chemistry as one of the subject or B.Sc. (Hons.) in Chemistry with two years experience in analytical work. 
  2. Junior Technical Assistant: 01 Post
    Qualification: Degree in Commerce or Economics or degree in Law. (Qualifications are relax able at the discretion of Staff Selection Commission/ Competent Authority in case of candidates otherwise well qualified).
  3. Storekeeper Grade-II: 01 Post
    Qualification:
     Degree in Agriculture or in Science with Chemistry as one of the subject.
  4. Horticulture Assistant Grade-I: 01 Post
    Qualification: Master degree in Agriculture with specialization in Horticulture. Or Master degree in Horticulture or Floriculture or Pomology. Or B.Sc. degree in Agriculture or Horticulture with 03 years service.
  5. Scientific Assistant: 01 Post
    Qualification:
     B.Sc. with Botany or Zoology or B.Sc. in Agriculture.
  6. Sr. Technical Assistant (Hydrogeology): 03 Posts 
    Qualification: i). Masters degree in Geology or Hydrogeology or Applied Geology or Marine Geology or Geo-exploration or Earth Science and Resources Management; Or ii). Master of Technology (Engineering Geology).
Fee: Rs. 50/-

How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the "Deputy Director, Staff Selection Commission (MPR), J-5, Anupam Nagar, Raipur (C.G)–492007".

Last Date: 18/07/2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.sscmpr.org/noticeboard/Advt.1-2013.pdf 

Tuesday, May 6, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (Karnataka-Kerala Region) Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
1. Assistant Epigraphist (Dravidian Inscriptions): 01 Post
Qualifications:
 i). Masters degree in Tamil/ Malayalam/ Telugu/ Kannada with Ancient Indian History as a subject at Bachelors degree level from a recognised university or equivalent; or ii). Masters degree in History with Ancient Indian History as a subject and Tamil/ Malayalam/ Telugu/ Kannada as one of the subjects at Bachelor’s degree level from a recognised university or equivalent.

2. Scientific Assistant: 05 Posts
Qualification: B.Sc., with Botany or Zoology or B.Sc., in Agriculture.

Fee: Rs.50/-. No fee for Woman candidates, Physically Handicapped, SC, ST and Ex-Ser.

How to Apply: The application, complete in all respects, should reach the Regional Director (KKR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, 'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore–560034.

Last Date: 30/05/2014

For more details, please visit:
http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in/ENGLISH VERSION OF ADVERTISEMENT.pdf

Friday, May 2, 2014

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. United Nation has released “One Women” Album on the occasion of International Women’s Day. Name the Indian artist of that Album?
A) Mallika Sarabhai
B) Amjed Ali Khan
C) A. R. Rahman
D) Anoushka Shankar

2. Bula Chaudhary is related to which sport event
A) Cricket
B) Badminton
C) Swimming
D) Golf

3. How many districts of the country were initially covered under the Direct Benifit Transfer Scheme started from January 1st , 2013?
A) 43
B) 34
C) 20
D) 29

4. Which sport personality has won the Indian Grand Prix 2012 at the Buddha International Circuit for the second time?
A) Mark Weber
B) Lewis Hamilton
C) Sebastian Vettel
D) Fernando Alonso

5. Which among the following have been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2012?
A) Mary Kom and Anup Kumar
B) Saina Nehwal and Sushil Kumar
C) Deepika Kumari and Yuvraj Singh
D) Yogeshwar Dutt and Vijay Kumar

6. Rath Yatra - This famour festival is held in?
A) Odisha
B) West Bengal
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Karnataka

7. With the 92nd constitutional amendment, how many languages were added to the 8th schedule of the constitution?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5

8. Which of the following act as decomposers in an ecosystem?
A) Putrefying bacteria
B) Rhizobium bacteria
C) Lactobacillus bacteria
D) Cyanobacteria

9. What is Basel III norms?
A) The Global Capital norms for banks
B) The Global Pollution Norms for Auto Manufacturer
C) The Global Norms for Cyber World
D) The Global Pollution Norms for Heavy Industries

10. President appoints Chief Election Commissioner & Election Commissioners. They have tenure of?
A) Upto the age of 65 years
B) 6 years, or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
C) Of 5 years
D) Of 6 years

11. This State contributes 70% of India’s Coffee and Silk. Name this state?
A) Rajasthan
B) Punjab
C) Karnataka
D) Assam

12. Ebb & Flow is
A) Adiscovery of a new star
B) A system of measurement of a liquid
C) A missile recently launched from Odisha
D) A Gravity Mapping satellites of NASA

13. Who has been appointed as chairman of 14th Finance Commission?
A) Sam Pitroda
B) P. Chidambaram
C) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
D) Dr. Y.V.Reddy

14. As per Protocol Second highest post after President in India
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Vice President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Leader of opposition of Lok Sabha

15. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha at present?
A) Najma Heptulla
B) Pratibha Patil
C) K. Rahman khan
D) P. J. Kurien

16. Finance Ministry has kept some services under the negative list which means
A) Service tax would be levied @ 2% on those services
B) Service tax would be levied by State Government on the services in negative list
C) Service tax would not be levied against those services
D) Service tax would be levied at highest rate on those services

17. What is the status of India in the world in terms of Steel production?
A) 7th
B) 10th
C) 5th
D) 6th

18. Which among these is a credit rating agency.
A) NSE
B) BSE
C) ICRA
D) SEBI

19. Which of the following gases are given out during Photosynthesis?
A) Nitrogen
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon dioxide

20. Name the king of Kannauj whose daughter Sanyogita was abducted by Prithviraj Chauhan from her ‘Swayamvar’?
A) Jayadev
B) Lakshman sen
C) Bhoj
D) Jaychand

21. The thumb nail gets fixed easily into the wood because.
A) More force works on less area
B) Less force works on more area
C) More area works on less force
D) More area works on more force

22. The minimum number of members whose presence is essential for transacting the business of either house-Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha shall be:
A) 100 members
B) 1/2 of the total number of members of the house
C) 1/4 of the total number of members of the house
D) 1/10 of the total number of members of the house

23. When the branch of a tree is shaken violently, the leaves fall. This happening can be explained by:
A) Joules 2nd law motion
B) Newton’s 3rd law of motion
C) Joules 1st law motion
D) Newton’s 1st law of motion

24. When ‘Sepoy Mutiny or the Great Revolt’ took place, who was the Viceroy of India?
A) Lord Canning
B) Lord Minto
C) Lord Ripon
D) Lord Curzon

25. Layer of the atmosphere is closest to the Earth:
A) Stratosphere
B) Ionosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Troposphere

ANSWERS:

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. D

Sunday, April 6, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (Southern Region) Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts:
  1. Medical Compounder: 01 Post
    Qualification:
     i). Matric/ Higher Secondary or equivalent examination. ii). Training as Compounder at a recognised institute of the State or Central Government.
  2. Scientific Assistant: 03 Posts
    Qualification: B.Sc. with Botany or Zoology or B.Sc. in Agriculture from a recognised university.
  3. Assistant Central Intelligence Officer Grade-I (Documents): 02 Posts
    Qualification: M.Sc. Chemistry or Physic.
  4. Instructor (Marine Engineering): 02 Posts
    Qualification: i). Degree in Marine Engineering or Mechanical Engineering or Automobile Engineering from a recognised university or institute. ii). One years experience in operation and maintenance of Diesel Engines in a recognised Mechanical or Marine Workshop or institution.
  5. Instructor (Drawing): 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Degree in Mechanical Engineering or Marine Engineering from a recognised university or institute. ii). One year experience in the field of Engineering drawing and machine drawing in a recognised Mechanical or Marine Workshop or institution.
  6. Senior Research Assistant: 06 Posts
    Qualification: Masters degree in Chemistry from a recognised university or institution.
  7. Quarantine Inspector: 01 Post
    Qualification: i). Bachelor of Science with Zoology or Microbiology as one of the essential subjections from a recognised university or institution. ii). Two years experience of conducting research or experiments or measurement in a veterinary laboratory of Central or State Government or any University of Indian Council of Agricultural Research or of any autonomous body.
Fee: Rs.50/- in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps which are available in all Post Offices. All Female, SC/ ST/ PH and Ex-Servicemen who have not already secured employment under the Central Govt. in civil side after availing the benefit given to them as ExS for their re-employment are exempted from payment of fee.

How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach "The Regional Director (SR) Staff Selection Commission, 2nd Floor, EVK Sampath Building, College Road, Chennai- 600006."

Last Date: 21/04/2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.sscsr.gov.in/Advt%20No.%20SSC-SR-1
%20of%202014%20English.pdf
  

Wednesday, March 26, 2014

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined All India Open Examination-2014

Staff Selection Commission will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts of Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices), Hindi Pradhyapak in Central Hindi Training Institute and Senior/ Junior Translators under Ministry of Defence.
  1. Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices) (Group B Non-Technical)
    Qualifications:
     i). Masters degree of a recognised university or equivalent in English/ Hindi with Hindi/ English as a compulsory or elective subject at degree level. Or ii). Bachelors degree of a recognised university or equivalent with Hindi and English as main subjects (which includes the term compulsory and elective).
  2. Sr. Translator (Group "B" Non- Gazetted)
  3. Junior Translator (Group "B" Non-Gazetted)
    Qualifications: i). Masters degree of a recognised university in Hindi with English as a compulsory or elective subject or as medium of examination at the degree level; or Masters degree or a recognised university in English with Hindi as compulsory or elective subject or as a medium of examination at degree level; or Masters degree of a recognised university in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi or English medium and English or Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as medium of examination at degree level; or Masters degree of a recognised university in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi or English as a compulsory or elective subject or either of the two medium of examination and the other as a compulsory or elective subject at the degree level. And ii). Recognised diploma or certificate course in translation from Hindi to English and vice versa or two years’ experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice versa in Central or State Govt. Offices, including Govt. of India undertakings.
  4. Hindi Pradhyapak (Group "B" Non-Gazetted):
    Qualifications: i). Masters degree in Hindi with English as one of the subjects at degree level either as compulsory or optional or as a language paper from a recognized university or equivalent. ii). Bachelors degree in Education from a recognised university/ institute & equivalent. iii). Two years experience of Teaching Hindi at Senior Secondary Level.
Age Limit (As on 01/01/2014): 30 years 

Fee: Rs. 110/-. Women, SC, ST Tribe, Physically Handicapped and Ex-Servicemen candidates are exempted from payment of fee.

Scheme of Examination: The examination will consist of two parts: 
Part-I: Written Examination carrying 400 marks
  • Paper- I (Objective Type): Subject: i). General Hindi. ii). General English, Number of Questions/ Marks: 100 & Duration: 2 Hours
Paper- II (Conventional Type): Subject: Translation & essay, Number of Questions/ Marks: 200 & Duration: 2 Hours Part-II: Personality Test (Interview) carrying 100 Marks.

How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification.

Important Dates:
  • Last date for submission of application 18/04/2014
  • Date of written examination 08/06/2014

Monday, March 17, 2014

SSC Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, Central Armed Police Forces & Central Industrial Security Force

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will organise an All India Examination on 22/06/2014 (Part-I and 21/09/2014  on Paper-II for Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police (DP) and Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), Assistant Sub-Inspectors in Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). SSC invites application Offline/ Online  for the above posts :

  1. Sub-Inspector in Central Armed Forces (CAPFs)  : 2197 posts (CRPF-194, CISF-1023, ITBP-138, SSB-70, BSF-772), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200 /-, Age : 20-25 years
  2. Sub-Inspector (Executive) in Delhi Police (Male) : 131 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200 /-, Age : 20-25 years
  3. Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI-Executive) (CISF) : 564 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.5200–20200/- Grade Pay Rs.2800 /-, Age : 20 - 25  years
Qualification : Graduation. 

Fee Payable : Rs.100/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country OR SBI challan OR Online payment through SBI online payment.

How to Apply : Online - Candidates can apply Online athttp://ssconline.nic.in and http://ssconline2.gov.in upto 09/04/2014 for Part-I Registration and up to 11/04/2014 for Part-II registration..  

Offline - Application in prescribed format should be sent on or before 11/04/2014 (18/04/2014 for candidates from far-flung areas) and should be send to any of the 9 regional/sub-offices of SSC where candidates want to apply. 

For further details and application form, please viewhttp://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/NoticeSIinCAPFsASIandDelhiPolice2014.pdf

Offline Application form is available at http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/ApplicationFormSI2014.pdf

and Online submission is available at http://ssconline.nic.in

Sunday, March 2, 2014

SSC Junior Engineers Examination 2014

Staff Selection Commission invites applications for conducting Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment of Junior Engineer Posts.

Junior Engineer Post Details:
1. Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical), CPWD
Qualification: Diploma in Civil, Electrical or Mechanical Engineering.
2. Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical), Department of Posts 
Qualification: Three years Diploma or equivalent in Civil Engineering or Electrical Engineering.
3. Junior Engineer(Civil),Border Roads Organisation(BRO) Ministry of Defence 
Qualification: Three years Diploma in Civil Engineering.
4. Junior Engineer(Electrical and Mechanical), Border Roads Organisation(BRO) Ministry of Defence. 
Qualification: Three years Diploma in Engineering (Electrical or Mechanical).
5. Junior Engineer (Civil), MES 
Qualification: Degree in Civil Engineering.
6. Junior Engineer (Electrical & Mechanical), MES 
Qualification: Degree in Electrical or Mechanical Engineering 
7. Junior Engineer (QS&C) MES 
Qualification: 3 years Diploma in Civil engineering.
8. Junior Engineer (Civil & Mechanical), CWC and Farakka Barrage. 
Qualification: Degree or Diploma in Civil or Mechanical Engineering.


How to Apply: Candidates can apply online from website.


Last Date for Submission of Online Application: 26.03.2014 


Date of Written Examination: 25.05.2014


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