SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination 2015 Notification

Staff Selection Commission invited applications for Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2015 (CGL Exam 2015) for recruitment to Group ‘B’ and Group ‘C’ posts. The eligible candidate can apply to the post through the prescribed format on or before 28 May 2015 for Part-I registration and on or before 01 June 2015 for Part-II registration.

Important Date

• Last Date of Online Application (Part-I): 28 May 2015
• Last Date of Online Application (Part-II): 01 June 2015

  Details of Post

Name of the Posts:

• Assistant (Central Secretariat Service)
• Assistant (Central Vigilance Commission)
• Assistant (Intelligence Bureau)
• Assistant (Ministry of Railway)
• Assistant (Ministry of External Affairs)
• Assistant- Cypher (Ministry of External Affairs)
• Assistant (AFHQ)
• Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations)
• Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations)
• Inspector of Income Tax (CBDT)
• Inspector- Central Excise (CBEC)
• Inspector- Preventive Officer (CBEC)
• Inspector- Examiner (CBEC)
• Assistant Enforcement Officer (Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue)
• Sub Inspector (Central Bureau of Investigation)
• Inspector of Posts (Department of Post)
• Divisional Accountant (Offices under CAG)
• Statistical Investigator Gr.II (M/o Statistics & Prog. Implementation)
• Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)
• Sub Inspector (National Investigation Agency (NIA))
• Auditor (Offices under C&AG)
• Auditor (Offices under CGA & others)
• Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under C&AG)
• Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under CGA & others)
• Upper Division Clerk (Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres.)
• Tax Assistant (CBDT)
• Tax Assistant (CBEC)
• Compiler (Registrar General of India)
• Sub Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)

Eligibility Criteria:  

Education Qualification:

• Compiler: Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University with Economics or Statistics or Mathematics as compulsory or Elective subject.
• Statistical Investigator Grade – II:     
  

1. Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a recognized University or Institute with at least 60% in Mathematics at 12th standard level or;
2. Bachelor’s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level.

• All other Posts: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent.
• Assistants (CSS): Computer Proficiency Test has also been prescribed as an Essential Qualification.

Age Limit:

• Assistant (Central Secretariat Service): 20-27 years
• Assistant (Intelligence Bureau): 21-27 Years
• Assistant Enforcement Officer (Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue): Up to 30 Years
• Sub Inspector (Central Bureau of Investigation): 20-30 Years
• Statistical Investigator Gr.II (M/o Statistics & Prog. Implementation): Up to 32 Years
• Sub Inspector (National Investigation Agency (NIA)): Up to 30 Years
• Tax Assistant (CBEC): 20-27 Years
• Sub Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics): 18-25 Years
• For all other posts: 18-27 Years

Selection Procedure

The candidates will be selected on the basis of their performance in the Tier-I and Tier-II Examination followed by Tier-III Exam.

How to Apply

Eligible candidates can apply online to the post through the prescribed format on or before 28 May 2015 for Part-I registration and on or before 01 June 2015 for Part-II registration.

Detailed Advertisement

Bihar SSC Graduate Level Preliminary Exam Solved General Knowledge Paper (Exam Held on 16-2-2015)

1. The green pigment found in plants that perform photosynthesis is– 
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Chloroplast (C) Chloroform (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

2. ‘Silent Valley’ is in– 
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Goa (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Kerala (Ans : D)

3. On which river is Goa located? 
(A) Narmada (B) Mandovi (C) Tapi (D) Pennar (Ans : B)

4. Xerophthalmia in human beings is caused due to deficiency of– 
(A) Vitamin-K (B) Vitamin-D (C) Vitamin-A (D) Vitamin-C (Ans : C)

5. Protein-Energy Malnutrition causes– 
(A) Marasmus (B) Rickets (C) Beri-beri (D) Pellagra (Ans : A)

6. At which of the following locations the value of ‘g’ is the largest? 
(A) On top of Mount Everest (B) On top of Qutub Minar 
(C) At a place on Equator (D) A camp site in Antarctica (Ans : D)

7. Malfunction of which organ causes diabetes? 
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Kidney (D) Heart (Ans : B)

8. EBOLA is a– 
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Protozoa (D) Fungi (Ans : A)

9. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of Iodine. It is prevalent in– 
(A) Coastal areas (B) Hilly areas (C) Desert areas (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

10. Vitamin-A is mainly stored in– 
(A) Lungs (B) Kidney (C) Breast (D) Liver (Ans : D)

11. Female Culex mosquito is vector of– 
(A) Malaria (B) Filariasis (C) Ring-worm (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

12. Isobars are lines displaying areas of equal– 
(A) humidity (B) temperature (C) rainfall (D) atmospheric pressure (Ans : D)

13. Which of the Rivers mentioned below flows into Rann of Kutchch? 
(A) Sabarmati (B) Luni (C) Betwa (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

14. Thyroid gland is situated in our– 
(A) liver (B) neck (C) arm-pits (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

15. What is the chemical name of the common salt? 
(A) Calcium Carbonate (B) Sodium Carbonate 
(C) Sodium Chloride (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

16. The colour of stars depends upon their– 
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure 
(C) Age (D) Distance from Solar System (Ans : A)

17. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug belonged to– 
(A) Spain (B) Mexico (C) America (D) Austria (Ans : C)

18. Iodine test is used to detect– 
(A) Cholesterol (B) Fat (C) Protein (D) Carbohydrate (Ans : D)

19. Which Article of Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability? 
(A) Article-14 (B) Article-15 (C) Article-17 (D) Article-18 (Ans : C)

20. The chemical name of Plaster of Paris is– 
(A) Calcium Chloride (B) Calcium Nitrate 
(C) Calcium Sulphate Hydrate (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

21. Among the breeds of cows mentioned below which one is not indigenous? 
(A) Holstein-Friesian (B) Gir (C) Red-Sindhi (D) Tharparkar (Ans : A)

22. Under Bihar Panchayati Raj Act every Gram Panchayat has a life of five years. It is calculated from– 
(A) the date of notification of election (B) the date of first meeting 
(C) the date of result of panchayat election (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

23. In the context of Rajya ‘Sabha which one of the following statements is true? 
(A) Council of Ministers is responsible to Rajya Sabha. 
(B) Confidence vote can be introduced in Rajya Sabha also. 
(C) Parliament can enact laws for the State List subject if Rajya Sabha with two third majority approves that a subject pertaining to State List has gained national importance. 
(D) Money bill can be introduced in Rajya Sabha. (Ans : C)

24. From the following statements identify the incorrect statement pertaining to national symbols– 
(A) Ratio of width of national flag of India to its length is two to three. 
(B) The wheel in the national flag has 24 spokes. 
(C) State emblem is an adaptation from the Lauria Nandangarh Lion Capital. 
(D) Playing time of full version of national anthem is 52 seconds. (Ans : C)

25. In an election to the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly a candidate will lose his deposit if he fails to secure– 
(A) 1/5th of total valid votes (B) 1/7th of total valid votes
(C) 1/6th of total valid votes (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

26. First Convention of Indian National Congress was held in December 1885 at– 
(A) Calcutta (B) Bombay (C) Lahore (D) Madras (Ans : B)

27. A party claims status of opposition party in Lok Sabha. It should have at least member of Parliament in Lok Sabha– 
(A) 55 (B) 65 (C) 40 (D) 100 (Ans : A)

28. Under Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, a member of Gram Panchayat may resign his membership in writing under his hand addressed to Mukhiya. After submission in how many days the resignation will become effective? 
(A) 7 days (B) 15 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days excluding Sundays (Ans : A)

29. Post independence first General Elections in India was held in the year– 
(A) 1947 (B) 1948 (C) 1952 (D) 1956 (Ans : C)

30. Expenses of NREGS Programme is shared by Central Government and State Government in the ratio of– 
(A) 90 : 10 (B) 50 : 50 (C) 75 : 25 (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

31. Which of the five year plans mentioned below was badly hit by drought and two wars? 
(A) First Five Year Plan (B) Third Five Year Plan 
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan (D) Sixth Five Year Plan (Ans : B)

32. Who founded Kisan Sabha in Bihar? 
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Sahajanand Saraswati 
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan (D) Swami Agnivesh (Ans : B)

33. Nil Darpan, published in 1860 pot-rays the plight of indigo cultivators. Who wrote Nil Darpan ? 
(A) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (B) James Long 
(C) Dinbandhu Mitra (D) Bankim Chandra (Ans : C)

34. Among the committees mentioned below, which committee is related to Panchayati Raj ? 
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Shah Commission 
(C) M. C. Joshi Committee (D) Justice (Retd.) Mukul Mudgal Committee (Ans : A)

35. Crux of Community Development Programme was– 
(A) Construction of roads (B) Family Planning 
(C) Peoples participation (D) Irrigation (Ans : C)

36. Dronacharya Award is given in– 
(A) Literature (B) Peace (C) Sports Coaching (D) Bravery (Ans : C)

37. National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August, which is related to– 
(A) Dhyan Chand (B) Milkha Singh (C) Daleep Singh (D) C. K. Nayadu (Ans : A)

38. Magsaysay Award is given after Ramon Magsaysay. He was President of which nation ? 
(A) Myanmar (B) Malaysia (C) Philippines (D) Sweden (Ans : C)

39. XXII Winter Olympic Games were organized in which country ? 
(A) Russia (B) South Korea (C) United Kingdom (D) Switzerland (Ans : A)

40. Sahara Desert is situated in– 
(A) Asia (B) Europe (C) Africa (D) Australia (Ans : C)

41. Durand Cup is associated with– 
(A) Tennis (B) Soccer (C) Hockey (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

42. Who won the Nobel Prize for Peace for the year 2014 ? 
(A) Barack Obama (B) Ban Ki Moon 
(C) Malala Yusufzai and Kailash Satyarthi (D) European Union (Ans : C)

43. ‘Bihu’ is a folk dance of– 
(A) Assam (B) Odisa (C) West Bengal (D) Tripura (Ans : A)

44. Capital of Peru is– 
(A) La Paz (B) Quito (C) Lima (D) Bogota (Ans : C)

45. Chernobyl Nuclear Plant, now decommissioned is in– 
(A) Russia (B) Ukraine (C) Belarus (D) Georgia (Ans : B)

46. What is the currency of Japan? 
(A) Dirham (B) Kroner (C) Yuan (D) Yen (Ans : D)

47. Which of the cyclones did not touch the Eastern Coast of India? 
(A) Nilofar (B) Hud Hud (C) Lehar (D) Helen (Ans : A)

48. Who wrote the book ‘Train to Pakistan’ ? 
(A) Mulk Raj Anand (B) Shobha Singh 
(C) Ruskin Bond (D) Khuswant Singh (Ans : D)

49. Who is the author of the book “Wings of Fire” ? 
(A) Abul Kalam Azad (B) Abdul Kalam 
(C) Arundhati Roy (D) Chetan Bhagat (Ans : A)

50. ‘The Discovery of India’ was written in Ahmadnagar Fort during imprisonment. Who wrote ‘The Discovery of India’ ? 
(A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Mahatma Gandhi 
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru (Ans : D)

51. Which country is known as Sugar Bowl of the World? 
(A) Cuba (B) India (C) Brazil (D) U.S.A. (Ans : A)

52. Water attains maximum density at– 
(A) 0°C (B) 4°F (C) 4K (D) 4°C (Ans : D)

53. In which year United Nations Organization was formed ? 
(A) 1945 (B) 1947 (C) 1954 (D) 1919 (Ans : A)

54. Who was the Viceroy of India on the eve of Indian Independence? 
(A) Lord Wave II (B) Lord Curzon (C) Lord Mountbatten (D) C. Raj Gopalachari (Ans : C)

55. Which ICS Officer was associated with the formation of Indian National Congress in 1885 ? 
(A) Macauley (B) Lord Simon (C) Lord Irwin (D) A. D. Hume (Ans : D)

56. New capital of Myanmar is– 
(A) Yangon (B) Mandalay (C) Naypyidaw (D) Kachin (Ans : C)

57. Who wrote the novel ‘Tamas’ ? 
(A) Bhisma Sahani (B) Balraj Sahani (C) Prem Chand (D) Amrita Pritam (Ans : A)

58. Which team won the Ranji Tropy for the year 2013-14 ? 
(A) Maharashtra (B) Railway (C) Karnataka (D) Punjab (Ans : A)

59. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain at the time of Indian Independence? 
(A) Harold Wilson (B) Winston Churchill 
(C) Clement Attlee (D) Macmillan (Ans : C)

60. Who is the current Governor of Reserve Bank of India? 
(A) Bimal Jalan (B) U.K. Sinha (C) Raghu Ram Rajan (D) Nandan Nilkeni (Ans : C)

61. Who is the current Chairperson of National Commission for Women of India? 
(A) Mamata Sharma (B) Lalitha Kumaramangalam 
(C) Girija Vyas (D) Krishna Tirath (Ans : B)

62. When was Panchsheel Treaty signed between India and China? 
(A) 1949 (B) 1962 (C) 1954 (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

63. Who is the father of Green Revolution in India? 
(A) Prakash Singh Kairon (B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 
(C) M.S. Swaminathan (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

64. Aung San Suu Kyi leader of NLO belongs to which country ? 
(A) South Korea (B) Sri Lanka (C) Thailand (D) Myanmar (Ans : D)

65. When was Poona Pact signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Baba Saheb Ambedkar ? 
(A) 1919 (B) 1932 (C) 1937 (D) 1935 (Ans : B)

66. Gir forests are famous for lions. They are located in– 
(A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Gujarat (D) Assam (Ans : C)

67. Famous painter Raja Ravi Verma belonged to the court of– 
(A) Mysore (B) Travancore (C) Coorg (D) Cooch Behar (Ans : B)

68. Which river flowing in Bihar originates at Amarkantaka ? 
(A) Koyal (B) Sone (C) Pun Pun (D) Karo (Ans : B)

69. Who among the following studied in the University of Nalanda ? 
(A) Megasthanese (B) Hiuen Tsang (C) Ibn Batuta (D) Al-Baruni (Ans : B)

70. When was the resolution of ‘Poorna Swaraj’ passed by the Congress? 
(A) 26th February, 1930 Karachi (B) 26th January, 1930 Lahore 
(C) 26th November, 1931 Calcutta (D) 26th January, 1930 Bombay (Ans : B) 

S.S.C. Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Second Shift Exam General Awareness Solved Paper (Exam Held on 2-11-2014)

1. Who was the contemporary South Indian ruler of Harshavardhana ? 
(A) Krishnadevaraya (B) Pulakeshin II 
(C) Mayuravarma (D) Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar (Ans : B)

2. Nappe is a kind of– 
(A) fluvial feature (B) folded structure 
(C) erosional plain (D) delta region (Ans : B)

3. The Panama Canal is different from the Suez Canal as it has– 
(A) Lock system (B) Shorter route
(C) Busy route (D) Less busy route (Ans : A)

4. The area which is resistant to any massive structural transformation is called– 
(A) rigid mass (B) ancient landmass (C) tectonic plate (D) shield (Ans : A)

5. Llanos are the grasslands of– 
(A) Guyana Highlands (B) Brazilian Highlands (C) Argentina (D) Chile (Ans : A)

6. The areas marked by internal drainage– 
(A) Plateau (B) Plains (C) Deserts (D) Mountains (Ans : C)

7. The space retaining life in any form is called– 
(A) Biomass (B) Biosphere (C) Lithosphere (D) Hydrosphere (Ans : C)

8. Rhizobium is a kind of– 
(A) Photosynthetic bacteria (B) Symbiotic bacteria 
(C) Parasitic bacteria (D) Saprophytic bacteria (Ans : D)

9. A Parenchyma cell which stores ergastic substance is known as– 
(A) Phragmoblast (B) Idioblast (C) Conidioplast (D) Chloroplast (Ans : B)

10. Root Hairs arise from– 
(A) Cortex (B) Pericycle (C) Epidermis (D) Endodermis (Ans : C)

11. The gametophyte is called prothallus in– 
(A) Pteridophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Spermatophyta (D) Thallophyta (Ans : A)

12. The best example of Poly-embryony is– 
(A) Cocoa (B) Capsicum (C) Citrus (D) Cycas (Ans : C)

13. A moving neutron collides with a stationary a-particle. The fraction of the kinetic energy lost by the neutron is– 
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 9/25 (D) 16/25 (Ans : D)

14. Which of these waves can be polarized ? 
(A) Sound waves in air (B) Longitudinal waves on a string 
(C) Transverse waves on a string (D) Light waves (Ans : D)

15. The unit of Planck’s constant is– 
(A) Js (B) Js^–2 (C) J/s (D) Js² (Ans : A)

16. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast to half of its length, then the new resistance of the wire will be– 
(A) R/4 (B) R/2 (C) R (D) 2R (Ans : A)

17. Hard copies can be obtained from– 
(A) Scanner (B) Speaker (C) Printer (D) Recorder (Ans : C)

18. In an E-R diagram, ellipse represents– 
(A) relation (B) entity (C) fields (D) key (Ans : D)

19. Chemical name of common salt is– 
(A) Sodium Chloride (B) Sodium Bicarbonate (C) Sodium (D) Sodium Oxide (Ans : A)

20. Which one of the following mine-rai does not contain oxygen? 
(A) Haematite (B) Bauxite (C) Cryolite (D) Calcite (Ans : C)

21. Non-conductor of electricity is– 
(A) Iron (B) Gas Carbon (C) Copper Sulphate (D) Mercury (Ans : C)

22. Which of the following will replace hydrogen from acids to form salts? 
(A) S (B) Na (C) Ag (D) P (Ans : B)

23. Which type of lake is formed by volcanic activities? 
(A) Lagoon (B) Fresh water lake (C) Cladera lake (D) Karst lake (Ans : C)

24. Green manure is obtained from– 
(A) Domestic vegetable waste (B) Oil seed husk cakes 
(C) Fresh animal excreta (D) Decomposing green legume plants (Ans : D)

25. The environment includes– 
(A) Abiotic factors (B) Biotic factors 
(C) Oxygen and Nitrogen (D) Abiotic and Biotic factors (Ans : D)

26. The temperate grasslands of North America are known as– 
(A) Pampas (B) Downs (C) Steppes (D) Prairies (Ans : D)

27. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port is located at– 
(A) Paradip (B) Cochin (C) Mumbai (D) Kolkata (Ans : C)

28. How many islands are there in Lakshadweep ? 
(A) 17 (B) 27 (C) 36 (D) 47 (Ans : C)

29. Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony 2013 has been given to– 
(A) Zubin Mehta (B) Narendra Kohli (C) Shalini Singh (D) Arvind Aadiga (Ans : A)

30. Winner of the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize 2013– 
(A) Ela Bhatt (B) Angela Merkel (C) Lydia Davis (D) Christina Legarde (Ans : B)

31. Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is an exponent of– 
(A) Mandolin (B) Santoor (C) Sitar (D) Veena (Ans : B)

32. Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields? 
(A) Literature (B) Films (C) Journalism (D) Music (Ans : A)

33. Nobel Prizes are distributed annually at– 
(A) Manila (B) Stockholm (C) Geneva (D) New York (Ans : B)

34. ‘Freedom From Fear’ is a book written by– 
(A) Benazir Bhutto (B) Corazon Aquino 
(C) Aung San Suu Kyi (D) Nayantara Sehgal (Ans : C)

35. Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty Four’ ? 
(A) J.M. Barrie (B) Walter Scott (C) George Orwell (D) Thomas Hardy (Ans : C)

36. The 28th Annual Lata Mangeshkar Sam man Alankaran 2013 was conferred to– 
(A) Sonu Nigarm (B) Kailash Kher (C) Hariharan (D) A.R. Rahman (Ans : C)

37. The internal rate of return– 
(A) must be less than the interest rate if the firm is to invest 
(B) makes the present value of profits equal to the present value of costs 
(C) falls as the annual yield of an investment rises 
(D) is equal to the market interest rate of all the firm’s investment (Ans : B)

38. As the number of investments made by a firm increases, its internal rate of return– 
(A) declines due to diminishing marginal productivity 
(B) declines because the market rate of interest will fall, ceteris paribus 
(C) increases to compensate the firm for the current consumption foregone 
(D) increase because the level of savings will fall (Ans : C)

39. Capacity utilisation– 
(A) is usually near 100 per cent 
(B) represents the per cent of the labour force. that is employed 
(C) is a measure of the proportional of the existing capital stock used for current production 
(D) rises as the economy moves into a recession, since firms must replace unemployed workers with some other resources to maintain production (Ans : C)

40. The theory of ‘Maximum Social Advantage’ in Public Finance was given by– 
(A) Robbins (B) Musgrave (C) Findley (D) Dalton (Ans : D)

41. The value of investment multiplier relates to– 
(A) change in income due to change in autonomous investment 
(B) change in autonomous investment due to change in income 
(C) change in income due to change in consumption 
(D) change in the income due to change in induced investment (Ans : A)

42. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem? 
(A) 25th January, 1950 (B) 26th January, 1950 
(C) 24th January, 1950 (D) 29th January, 1950 (Ans : C)

43. The President of India is an integral part of the– 
(A) The Parliament (B) The Lok Sabha 
(C) Rajya Sabha (D) Council of Ministers (Ans : A)

44. Union Public Servic Commission has to submit the report to the– 
(A) President (B) Parliament (C) Lok Sabha (D) Rajya Sabha (Ans : A)

45. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended? 
(A) Three times (B) Two times (C) Once (D) Not amended (Ans : C)

46. An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval by– 
(A) The President (B) The State Legislature 
(C) The State Council of Ministers (D) The Parliament (Ans : A)

47. Which rebellion in Bengal was highlighted by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel ‘Anand Math’ ? 
(A) Chaur Uprising (B) Sanyasi Rebellion 
(C) Kol Uprising (D) Santhal Uprising (Ans : B)

48. Name the Greek Ambassador at the Mauryan Court– 
(A) Alexander (B) Megasthanese (C) Plato (D) Aristotle (Ans : B)

49. When the rule of the Delhi Sultan began? 
(A) 1106 A.D. (B) 1206 A.D. (C) 1306 A.D. (D) 1406 A.D. (Ans : B)

50. Who introduced leather token currency in India? 
(A) Akbar (B) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq (C) Babur (D) Humayun (Ans : D)

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam (II Shift) English Language Solved Paper (Exam Held on 2-11-2014

Directions-(Q. 1-5) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (●) in the Answer Sheet. 

1. The priest was innocent ………. he could not prove it. 
(A) and (B) but (C) for (D) so (Ans : B)

2. Many people who ………. practising photography as a hobby turn it eventually into a livelihood. 
(A) resume (B) prefer (C) imply (D) start (Ans : D)

3. She is ……….of lizards. 
(A) fearful (B) frightened (C) afraid (D) terrified (Ans : C)

4. His path was beset ………. . difficulties. 
(A) by (B) with (C) of (D) from (Ans : B)

5. The plan is worth considering, think it ……….carefully. 
(A) of (B) on (C) off (D) over (Ans : D)

Directions-(Q. 6-10) In these question choose the word Opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 

6. Reluctant 
(A) Hesitant (B) Reserved (C) Anxious (D) Willing (Ans : C)

7. Novel 
(A) Naughty (B) Novelist (C) Banal (D) Nasty (Ans : D)

8. Eloquent 
(A) Elegant (B) Lucid (C) Articulate (D) Inarticulate (Ans : D)

9. Fluent 
(A) Inappropriate (B) Halting (C) Degrading (D) Insensitive (Ans : B)

10. Adversity 
(A) Prosperity (B) Curiosity (C) Animosity (D) Sincerity (Ans : A)

Directions-(Q. 11-15) In these question out of the four alternatives, choose the Same word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 

11. Amiable 
(A) Rude (B) Curt (C) Friendly (D) Annoyed (Ans : C)

12. Curious 
(A) Doubtful (B) Inquisitive (C) Sad (D) Suspicious (Ans : B)

13. Candid 
(A) Honest (B) Greedy (C) Dishonest (D) Secretive (Ans : A)

14. Forsaken 
(A) Nurtured (B) Neglected (C) Pardoned (D) Abandoned (Ans : D)

15. Vivacious 
(A) Lonely (B) Lively (C) Beautiful (D) Bravely (Ans : B)

Directions-(Q. 16-20) In these question four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 

16. The detective went abroad in search of a culprit but his journey proved to be a wild goose chase. 
(A) expensive (B) full of difficulties (C) unprofitable adventure (D) ill advised (Ans : C)

17. A close shave. 
(A) A narrow escape from danger. (B) Stubble 
(C) Very short hair (D) Hairless skin (Ans : A)

18. Please be as brief as you can, I have other fish to fry. 
(A) to cook the food (B) to take rest 
(C) some important work to attend to (D) to attend the friends (Ans : C)

19. His argument does not hold water. 
(A) to have effect (B) to influence 
(C) to check the flow of water (D) sound logical fact (Ans : D)

20. It was her maiden speech on the stage and she performed well. 
(A) unprepared speech (B) sudden speech 
(C) primary speech (D) first speech (Ans : D)

Directions-(Q. 21-25) In these question a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. 

21. When the little girl losses her doll, she began to cry. 
(A) losing her doll (B) loss her doll 
(C) lost her doll (D) No improvement (Ans : C)

22. I brushed my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning. 
(A) I brushes my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning. 
(B) I brush my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning. 
(C) I brush my tooth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning. 
(D) No improvement (Ans : B)

23. More than 60% of India’s population live under the poverty line. 
(A) live by the poverty line (B) live below poverty line 
(C) live beside the poverty line (D) No improvement (Ans : B)

24. Only me I can solve the problem. 
(A) Only me can (B) Only I can (C) I can only (D) No improvement (Ans : B)

25. They congratulated me for my victory in the debate competition. 
(A) about (B) at (C) on (D) No improvement (Ans : B)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) In these question out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 

26. Beyond correction– 
(A) Inverterate (B) Glib (C) Incorrigible (D) Incongruous (Ans : C)

27. Widespread scarcity of food– 
(A) Hunger (B) Drought (C) Poverty (D) Famine (Ans : B)

28. Inflammation of gums– 
(A) Gangerene (B) Gingivitis (C) Conjunctivitis (D) Orchitis (Ans : B)

29. A book written by an unknown author– 
(A) Anonymous (B) Acrimonious (C) Audacious (D) Assiduous (Ans : A)

30. An event that causes great harm or dams– 
(A) Problem (B) Disaster (C) Pain (D) Relief (Ans : B)

Directions-(Q. 31-35) In these question four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. 

31. (A) nuisense (B) nuisanse (C) nuissance (D) nuisance (Ans : D)

32. (A) saimultaneous (B) simultaenous (C) simultaneous (D) simultanious (Ans : C)

33. (A) honourarium (B) honorarium (C) honourerium (D) honourrarium (Ans : B)

34. (A) fortuneate (B) fortuneit (C) forchunate (D) fortunate (Ans : D)

35. (A) misfourtune (B) miscelaneous (C) misdemenour (D) misspell (Ans : B)

Directions-(Q. 36-45) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks. Rajan is a salesman. He goes from door to door ..... (36) ..... vacuum cleaners. On his first day of work, he ..... (37) ..... to sell his goods by ..... (38) ..... on the doors of a private housing estate. “My first ..... (39) ..... ,” he thought as he ..... (40) ..... the doorbell of the first house. A middle-aged woman with curlers in her hair opened the door. Rajan began to (41) ..... who he was and the ..... (42) he was selling. The ..... (43)..... minute, the door was ..... (44) ..... shut. “Not interested !” John heard her shout ..... (45) ..... the closed door. 

36. (A) purchasing (B) buying (C) gifting (D) selling (Ans : D)

37. (A) decided (B) undecided (C) finalized (D) cancelled (Ans : A)

38. (A) hacking (B) knocking (C) breaking (D) shaking (Ans : B)

39. (A) consumer (B) customer (C) supplier (D) manufacturer (Ans : B)

40. (A) pressed (B) impressed (C) depressed (D) suppressed (Ans : A)

41. (A) complain (B) explain (C) refrain (D) plain (Ans : B)

42. (A) produce (B) material (C) product (D) ingredients (Ans : C)

43. (A) after (B) before (C) next (D) subsequent (Ans : C)

44. (A) slammed (B) damned (C) tamed (D) crammed (Ans : A)

45. (A) before (B) on (C) aside (D) behind (Ans : D)

Directions-(Q. 46-50) In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval (●) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet. 

46. (A) No sooner did the rabbit (B)/ come out of the bush (C)/ when the hunter killed it. (D) No error (Ans : C)

47. (A) ‘The Arabian Nights’ (B)/ are enjoyed (C)/ by all kinds of readers. (D) No error (Ans : B)

48. (A) She has not completed (B)/ her course. (C)/ Isn’t it ? (C) No error (Ans : C)

49. (A) Every citizen is (B)/ entitled to (C)/ the voting. (D) No error (Ans : C)

50. (A) The collector (B)/ visits the office regularly (C)/ Isn’t it ? (D) No error (Ans : D) 

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier I) Examination 2012 General Awareness Solved Question Paper

1. Earth is a very big magnet. In which direction does its magnetic field extend? (A) east to west (B) west to east 
(C) north to south (D) south to north (Ans : C)

2. Which of the following is meant for the ex-situ conservation of various species? (A) Herbarium (B) Sperm bank 
(C) Blood bank (D) Germplasm bank (Ans : D)

3. Drying oils contain a fairly large proportion of– (A) Saturated fatty acids (B) Unsaturated fatty acids 
(C) Fats (D) Proteins (Ans : B)

4. Human Development Index was formulated by– (A) UNCTAD (B) ASEAN 
(C) IBRD (D) UNDP (Ans : D)

5. The infective stage of Malaria is– (A) Merozoite (B) Gametocyte 
(C) Ring stage (D) Sporozoite (Ans : D)

6. Who said that the Directive Principles of State Policy are just like "a cheque on bank payable at the convenience of the bank". (A) N.G. Ranga (B) Pandit Nehru 
(C) KT. Shah (D) B.R. Ambedkar (Ans : C)

7. Consumption for the sake of enjoying social acknowledgement is called– (A) Demonstration consumption (B) Rational consumption 
(C) Social consumption (D) Conspicuous consumption (Ans : D)

8. The red, orange and yellow colours of leaves are due to– (A) Lignins (B) Carotenoids 
(C) Aldehydes (D) Tannins (Ans : B)

9. The state which has registered the highest population growth rate according to 2001 Census is– (A) Sikkim (B) Kerala 
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Nagaland (Ans : D)

10. Torah is the sacred book of– (A) Judaism (B) Zoroastrianism 
(C) Confucianism (D) Taoism (Ans : A)

11. Pyroligneous acid obtained from wood contains– (A) 10% ethanol (B) 10% Formaldehyde 
(C) 10% Acetic acid (D) 10% Formic acid (Ans : C)

12. The treaty of Versailles restored Alsace-Lorraine to– (A) Belgium (B) Italy 
(C) Britain (D) France (Ans : D)

13. The seat of Kerala High Court is located at– (A) Ernakulam (B) Kottayam 
(C) Thiruvananthapuram (D) Kollam (Ans : A)

14. Polar-bears hold cures for– (A) Kidney failure (B) Type II diabetes 
(C) Osteoporosis (D) Breast cancer (Ans : B)

15. India is making 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements' (DTAA) with other countries for the promotion of– (A) Foreign institutional investment (B) Bilateral trade 
(C) External commercial borrowings (D) Foreign direct investments (Ans : B)

16. Low cost housing is an example for– (A) Merit wants (B) Mixed wants 
(C) Social wants (D) Private wants (Ans : C)

17. The disease that kills more people than lung cancer as a consequence of air pollution is– (A) heart attack (B) chronic bronchitis 
(C) asthma (D) emphesema (Ans : D)

18. Peninsular India has the following zonal soil types– (A) Alluvial soil (B) Red and yellow soil 
(C) Forest soil (D) Saline soil (Ans : B)

19. Mamta Sharma was appointed in 2011 as the Chairperson of– (A) National Commission for BCs (B) National Commission for Minorities 
(C) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (D) National Commission for Women (Ans : D)

20. "Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth" is the guiding principle of–(A) Reformative theory of Justice (B) Attributive theory of Justice 
(C) Retributive theory of Justice (D) Deterrent theory of Justice (Ans : C)

21. The proposal for the creation of new All-India Services can be considered only– (A) if majority of State Legislatures make such demand 
(B) if Lok Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority 
(C) if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority 
(D) None of the above (Ans : C)

22. The Asokan Edicts were deciphered first by– (A) James Prinsep (B) Sir John Marshall 
(C) Sir William Jones (D) Charles Wilkins (Ans : A)

23. An algae type ocean deposit is– (A) Pelagic deposits (B) Neritic remains 
(C) Diatom ooze (D) Pteropod ooze (Ans : C)

24. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) Gypsum - calcium hydroxide (B) Milk of lime - sodium sulphate 
(C) Glauber's salt - calcium sulphate (D) Salt petre - potassium nitrate (Ans : D)

25. Which is not a correct statement? (A) Dilute solutions contain less amount of solute (B) Phenols are acidic 
(C) In benzene all the atoms lie in one plane (D) Methylated spirit contains only methanol (Ans : D)

26. The most densely populated state in India is– (A) Tamil adu (B) Kerala 
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) West Bengal (Ans : D)

27. The first Speaker of Lok Sabha was– (A) G.V Mavlankar (B) S. Radhakrishnan 
(C) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar (D) Sardar Hukam Singh (Ans : A)

28. Who was the teacher of Gautama Buddha? (A) Patanjali (B) Panini 
(C) Alara Kalama (D) Kapila (Ans : C)

29. Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world? (A) Citi Bank (B) Hong Kong Bank 
(C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) Bank of America (Ans : A)

30. Which colour/ colours of light has the highest velocity through vacuum ? (A) Blue (B) Red 
(C) Green (D) All of these (Ans : D)

31. The 98th Indian Science Congress was held in 2011 at– (A) Bhubaneswar (B) Bengaluru 
(C) Bhopal (D) Chennai (Ans : D)

32. The 34th National Games were held in 2011 in– (A) Jharkhand (B) Uttarakhand 
(C) Kerala (D) Karnataka (Ans : A)

33. The iron and steel plant in Bihar is at– (A) Vijay Nagar (B) Visakhapatnam 
(C) Bokaro (D) Burnpur (Ans : C)

34. The ultimate source of energy in a hydroelectric power station is– (A) the electro-chemical energy of water (B) solar energy 
(C) the potential energy of water (D) the kinetic energy of water (Ans : B)

35. Union Carbide India Ltd. manufactured essentially– (A) Leather goods (B) Heavy water 
(C) Petrochemicals (D) Fertilisers (Ans : C)

36. Photosynthetic vesicle found in bacteria is called a– (A) Pneumatophore (B) Mesosome 
(C) Chromatophore (D) Genophore (Ans : C)

37. What type of mirror is used in a view finding mirror of a vehicle? (A) Paraboloidal mirror (B) Convex mirror 
(C) Plane mirror (D) Concave mirror (Ans : B)

38. We receive sunlight on earth surface. What type of light beams are these ? (A) Diverging (B) Random 
(C) Parallel (D) Converging (Ans : C)

39. Who is the author of the book 'Pakistan : Beyond the Crisis State' ? (A) M.J. Akbar (B) Khuram Iqbal 
(C) Maleeha Lodhi (D) Arnir Mir (Ans : C)

40. The biggest planet in the solar system is– (A) Uranus (B) Venus 
(C) Jupiter (D) Saturn (Ans : C)

41. The authority to specify which castes shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes rests with the– (A) Governor (B) Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Tribes 
(C) Prime Minister (D) President (Ans : D)

42. Ram Sharan Sharma, who died in 2011 was an eminent– (A) Archaeologist (B) Chemist 
(C) Economist (D) Indologist (Ans : D)

43. Of the following economists, whom do you consider to be the Master of "Partial Analysis" ? (A) Lionel Robbins (B) Leon Walras 
(C) Alfred Marshall (D) J.M. Keynes (Ans : C)

44. Brain drain has been caused by– (A) socio-economic instability. (B) failure to recognise talent in the originating country. 
(C) the lure of high living standards. (D) lack of employment opportunities. (Ans : D)

45. What is m-commerce ? (A) marketing commerce (B) machine commerce 
(C) mobile commerce (D) money commerce (Ans : C)

46. The study of population is known as– (A) Hydrology (B) Demography 
(C) Climatology (D) Petrology (Ans : B)

47. The prose collection of the vedic poems are– (A) Brahmanas (B) Samhitas 
(C) Upanishads (D) Aranyakas (Ans : B)

48. A plant known only in cultivation having arisen under domestication is referred to as– (A) Clone (B) Scion 
(C) Cultigen (D) Cultivar (Ans : C)

49. Who favoured the Artic Home theory of the Aryans ? (A) Jacobi (B) Pargiter 
(C) A.C. Das (D) B.G. Tilak (Ans : D)

50. Wheat, Barley, Lemon, Orange, rye, and peamillet belong to– (A) four plant families (B) the same plant family 
(C) two plant families (D) three plant families (Ans : C)