UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam 2012 General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Over 90% of the world’s biomass is in– 
(A) tropical rain forests (B) freshwater wetlands
(C) topsoils (D) oceans (Ans : D)

2. Which one of the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere ? 
(A) Automobile exhaust fume (B) Industrial chimney 
(C) Mining (D) Wetland (Ans : D)

3. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
(A) Trophic dynamics represents the transfer of energy from one trophic level to another in a food chain 
(B) In deeper parts of oceans, primary production remains almost nil 
(C) The primary consumers are called autotrophs 
(D) The decomposers are called saprotrophs (Ans : C)

4. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because– 
(A) its concentration remains always higher than other gases. (B) it is used in photosynthesis. 
(C) it absorbs infrared radiation. (D) it emits visible radiation. (Ans : C)

5. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of origin of– 
(A) birds from reptiles (B) mammals from reptiles 
(C) reptiles from amphibians (D) mammals from birds (Ans : A)

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. 
2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 
3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 (Ans : A)

7. When the productive capacity of the economic system of a State is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called– 
(A) seasonal unemployment. (B) structural unemployment. 
(C) disguised unemployment. (D) cyclical unemployment. (Ans : D)

8. Which one of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations? 
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty (B) Reduce birth rate and death rate 
(C) Improve maternal health (D) Promote gender equality (Ans : B)

9. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by– 
(A) the Reserve Bank of India (B) the Planning Commission 
(C) the Finance Ministry (D) the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Ans : B)

10. Which one of the following is not a clause of World Trade Organisation ? 
(A) Most favoured nation treatment 
(B) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations 
(C) Providing financial support to the countries having deficit balance of payments 
(D) Discouraging unfair trade practices such as anti-dumping and export subsidies (Ans : C)

11. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) relate to– 
(A) the World Bank. (B) the Reserve Bank of India.
(C) the World Trade Organisation. (D) the International Monetary Fund. (Ans : D)

12. Which one of the following is not a landlocked country in Africa ?
(A) Botswana (B) Zambia 
(C) Lesotho (D) Nigeria (Ans : D)

13. The imaginary line on the Earth’s surface that closely follows the 180° Meridian is– 
(A) Prime Meridian (B) Equator 
(C) International Date Line (D) Tropic of Cancer (Ans : C)

14. The country that shares longest border with India is– 
(A) China (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Nepal (D) Pakistan (Ans : B)

15. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91°E and 92° E) at the Poles is–
(A) 0 km (B) 18 km 
(C) 25 km (D) 111 km (Ans : A)

16. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to– 
(A) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(B) high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(C) low gravitational attraction only. 
(D) high escape velocity of air molecule only. (Ans : C)

17. Which one of the following correctly defines a unit magnetic pole in SI units? 
It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of– 
(A) 1 foot from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 pound. 
(B) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 newton. 
(C) 1 cm from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 dyne. 
(D) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force 
of 1 newton/m2. (Ans : C)

18. After rising a short distance, the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an ‘obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships, the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of– 
(A) laminar flow of air. (B) streamline flow of air. 
(C) turbulent flow of air. (D) viscous flow at low speed. (Ans : D)

19. Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency when kept under the same tension. What will happen if tension of one of the wires is slightly increased and both the wires are made to vibrate simultaneously ? 
(A) Noise (B) Beats 
(C) Resonance (D) Non-linear effects (Ans : B)

20. What is the major role of a greenhouse gas that contributes to temperature rise of the Earth’s surface? 
(A) Transparent to both incoming sunlight aria outgoing infrared radiation 
(B) Stops both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared radiation 
(C) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass through but stops incoming sunlight
(D) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation (Ans : D)

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing. 
2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation, its GDP must be decreasing. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

22. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through inflationary pressures? 
1. The direct taxes should be increased. 
2. The interest rate should be reduced. 
3. The public spending should be increased. 
Select the correct answer Using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2 (Ans : A)

23. The basis of European Union began with the signing of– 
(A) Maastricht Treaty (B) Treaty of Paris 
(C) Treaty of Rome (D) Treaty of Lisbon (Ans : A)

24. National income ignores– 
(A) sales of a firm. (B) salary of employees. 
(C) exports of the IT sector. (D) sale of land. (Ans : D)

25. What are G. arboreum, G. herbaceum, G. hirsutum and G. barbadense, whose all the four species are cultivated in India ? (G = Gossypium) 
(A) Species of wool (B) Species of cotton 
(C) Species of silk (D) Species of jute (Ans : B)

26. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called– 
(A) silty soil (B) loamy soil 
(C) sandy soil (D) loess soil (Ans : D)

27. Logically, what does a continually rising air pressure indicate ? 
(A) Advent of unsettled and cloudy weather (B) Advent of a cyclone 
(C) Fine and settled weather (D) Fine and unsettled weather (Ans : C)

28. The TEAM-9 initiative is a techno-economic cooperation venture between India and eight countries of– 
(A) West Africa (B) East Africa 
(C) North Africa (D) Central Africa (Ans : A)

29. Which one of the following is the type of the Comoros Islands which lie in the Indian Ocean between Northern Madagascar and the African Coast ? 
(A) Volcanic (B) Glacial eroded 
(C) Eolian deposited (D) Folded (Ans : A)

30. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
Code: 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

31. If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45° E) ? 
(A) 7:30 AM (B) 9:00 AM 
(C) 1:30 PM (D) 12:00 Noon (Ans : C)

32. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river– 
(A) Saraswati (B) Indus 
(C) Beas (D) Ravi (Ans : D)

33. Which one of the following statements regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak is not correct ? 
(A) He propounded the theory of the Arctic Home of the Aryans 
(B) He founded the Anti-Cow-Killing Society 
(C) He set up the Home Rule League at Poona 
(D) He supported the Age of Consent Bill (Ans : D)

34. Which one of the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society ? 
(A) Belief in Karma and Rebirth (B) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and Humanity 
(C) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy (D) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability (Ans : D)

35. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad 
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book, Unhappy India 
(C) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani of Jhansi 
(D) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi (Ans : A)

36. Who among the following Governors-General formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan ? 
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis 
(C) Lord Wellesley (D) Lord William Bentinck (Ans : B)

37. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help? 
(A) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislatures 
(B) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect
(C) Women in democracies are not subjected to sex discrimination in most aspects of social life 
(D) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity (Ans : D)

38. The Constitution of India is republican because it– 
(A) provides for an elected Parliament. (B) provides for adult franchise. 
(C) contains a bill of rights. (D) has no hereditary elements. (Ans : D)

39. Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A conventional war between both the countries is inevitable under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation, what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange ? 
(A) A first ‘use nuclear policy’ 
(B) A much larger nuclear arsenal than Pakistan 
(C) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability 
(D) An intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of 5000 km (Ans : C)

40. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Yudh Abhyas ? 
(A) It is an Indian military ‘war game’ with regard to Pakistan 
(B) It is an Indian military exercise with Oman 
(C) It is an Indian military exercise with Bhutan 
(D) It is an Indian military exercise with the US (Ans : D)

41. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? 
(A) It is a large military helicopter 
(B) It is a large military transport aircraft 
(C) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun 
(D) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014 (Ans : B)

42. Consider the following statements– 
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. 
2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

43. Which one of the following companies received Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011 ? 
(A) BCCL (B) NTPC 
(C) SAIL (D) TISCO (Ans : C)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Short-listed Book for DSC Prize for South Asian Literature, 2012) 
A. Bharathipura B. A Street in Srinagar 
C. Chinaman D. The Story that must not be told 
List-II (Author) 
1. Kavery Nambisan 2. Shehan Karunatilaka 
3. Chandrakanta 4. U.R. Ananthamurthy 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 3 1 
(B) 1 2 3 4 
(C) 4 3 2 1 
(D) 1 3 2 4 (Ans : C)

45. In which one of the following Latin American countries, a woman has for the first time won the presidential elections for the second term ? 
(A) Brazil (B) Venezuela 
(C) Uruguay (D) Argentina (Ans : D)

46. Which one of the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India ? 
(A) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countiies 
(B) To protect monuments of national importance 
(C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so 
(D) To know more and more about the history of India (Ans : C)

47. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) Due to border problems, India’s trade with China did not register a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010 
(B) The stand-off between India and China on Pakistan and Arunachal Pradesh did not let India’s trade to grow with China in the years 2001-2010 as much as it grew in the years 1991-2001 
(C) While India-China trade has registered a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010, both the countries have ensured parity of trade 
(D) In spite of border problems, India’s trade with China registered a quantum jump during the years 2001-2010 (Ans : D)

48. Which one of the following statements about globalisation is not correct? 
(A) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth 
(B) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity 
(C) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation 
(D) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation (Ans : D)

49. The best colours for a Sun umbrella will be– 
(A) black on top and red on inside. (B) black on top and white on inside. 
(C) red on top and black on inside. (D) white on top and black on inside. (Ans : D)

50. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because– 
(A) barium salts are white in colour and this helps stomach to appear clearly. 
(B) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear dearly. 
(C) barium salts are easily available. 
(D) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach. (Ans : B)

51. The elements of a group in the periodic table– 
(A) have similar chemical properties. (B) have consecutive atomic numbers. 
(C) are isobars. (D) are isotopes. (Ans : A)

52. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bulletproof material ? 
(A) Polyvinyl chloride (B) Polystyrene 
(C) Polyethylene (D) Polyamide (Ans : C)

53. The pH of human blood is normally around– 
(A) 4.5–5.5 (B) 5.5–6.5 
(C) 7.5–8.0 (D) 8.5–9.0 (Ans : C)

54. The pH of fresh groundwater slightly decreases upon exposure to air because– 
(A) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water. 
(B) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water. 
(C) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the groundwater escapes into air. 
(D) the dissolved oxygen of the groundwater escapes into air. (Ans : A)

55. Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men’s singles tide ? 
(A) Novak Djokovic (B) Roger Federer 
(C) Rafael Nadal (D) Andy Roddick (Ans : A)

56. Which among the following countries has recently decided to give a grant of US $1 billion for the reconstruction of the Nalanda University? 
(A) USA (B) China 
(C) UK (D) Japan (Ans : B)

57. Which one Of the following is the fastest Indian Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO ? 
(A) Aakash-A1 (B) Saga-220 
(C) Jaguar-Cray (D) Tianhe-lA (Ans : B)

58. The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years of Nobel Prize winning by Marie Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry—our life, our future. 
2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

59. In February 2011, which of the following countries has elected Mr. Thein Sein, a military general- turned-civilian leader, as its first President ? 
(A) Malaysia (B) Costa Rica 
(C) Thailand (D) Myanmar (Ans : D)

60. Which one of the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? 
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D 
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C (Ans : C) 

61. Indian Space Research Organisation and the Airport Authority of India have recently signed a memorandum of understanding to install a space-based augmentation system (SBAS) to render the Global Positioning System signal suitable for civil aviation over the Indian airspace. What is the name of the SBAS ? 
(A) GAGAN (B) PAWAN 
(C) AAKASH (D) NABH (Ans : A)

62. World’s first gold and jewellery-encrusted car—Gold Plus, was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of Indian jewellery making. Who among the following was the maker of the car? 
(A) Tata Motors (B) Maruti Suzuki 
(C) Hundai (D) Volkswagen (Ans : A)

63. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with–
(A) Article 39 (d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation laws 
(B) Article 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent 
(C) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article 
(D) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status (Ans : A)

64. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press. 
(B) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31B. 
(C) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. 
(D) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article 19 of the Constitution. 
(Ans : B)

65. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one of the following statements is not correct ? 
(A) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 
(B) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill 
(C) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. 
(D) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants (Ans : C)

66. The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development guided the planning practice in India from the– 
(A) First Five-Year Plan to the Sixth Five-Year Plan. 
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. 
(C) Second Five-Year Plan to the Seventh Five-Year Plan. 
(D) First Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. (Ans : C)

67. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period– 
(A) not exceeding three months (B) not exceeding nine months 
(C) of one year at a time (D) of two years at a time (Ans : C)

68. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Joint Naval Exercise) 
A. Konkan B. Malabar C. Varuna D. Indra 
List-II (Countries) 
1. India-France 2. India-United Kingdom 
3. India-Russia 4. India-United States 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 3 4 1 2 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 2 4 1 3 (Ans : D)

69. If you travel along the Suez Canal from Port Said to Suez, you will come across several lakes. Which of the following lakes is not on this Canal? 
(A) Great Bitter Lake (B) Little Bitter Lake 
(C) Lake Gatun (D) Lake Timsah (Ans : C)

70. Xerophytes represent the class of vegetation found in– 
(A) tropical rain forest. (B) humid micro-thermal climate. 
(C) semi-arid steppes. (D) tundra region. (Ans : C)

71. What is a clud burst ? 
(A) It refers to sudden and copious rainfall over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes 
(B) It refers to 50 mm rain over a period of time 
(C) It is caused by rapid condensation of very high clouds 
(D) It refers to a thunderstorm with little rain (Ans : A)

72. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Tsunami ? 
(A) Tsunamis have a very long wavelength 
b) Tsunamis have a slight swell of about twelve inches above the normal sea surface 
(C) Tsunamis grow in height when they reach shallower water 
(D) Tides also play an important role in the generation of Tsunamis (Ans : D)

73. Which one of the following statements regarding India’s coal is not correct? 
(A) 98 percent of reserves of coal in India belongs to Gondwana period 
(B) Unknown amount of coal lies buried under the Ganga alluvium and the Deccan Trap 
(C) Bituminous coal is found in both lower Gondwana rocks and in Tertiary rocks 
(D) Gondwana coal is mainly found in the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari 
(Ans : C)

74. Consider the following statements– 
1. Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator. 
2. Coriolis effect is more towards the Poles. 
3. Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
4. Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 only (Ans : A)

75. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct ? 
1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. 
2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne. 
3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only (Ans : B)

76. The macro-nutrients provided by inorganic fertilisers are– 
(A) carbon, iron and boron. (B) magnesium, manganese and sulphur. 
(C) magnesium, zinc and iron. (D) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. (Ans : D)

77. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is– 
(A) osmosis (B) transpiration 
(C) photosynthesis (D) diffusion (Ans : B)

78. Vermicompost is a/an– 
(A) inorganic fertiliser (B) toxic substance 
(C) organic biofertiliser (D) synthetic fertiliser (Ans : C)

79. In wildlife conservation, which one of the following best defines an ‘endemic’ species? 
(A) When the critical number of a species declines in a forest due to parasitic attack 
(B) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be commonly found in a biosphere 
(C) An endangered species which is found in a few restricted areas on the Earth 
(D) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else (Ans : D)

80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists–
List-I (Tiger Reserve) 
A. Indravati B. Periyar C. Simlipal D. Bandipur 
List-II (State) 
1. Karnataka 2. Odisha 3. Kerala 4. Chhattisgarh 
Code: 
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1 (Ans : C)

81. Duncan Passage is located between– 
(A) South and Little Andaman. (B) Little and Great Nicobar. 
(C) North and Middle Andaman. (D) Middle and South Andaman. (Ans : A)

82. Consider the following statements– 
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere. 
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the Earth. 
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. 
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 (Ans : B)

83. The main area of production of icebergs is found in– 
(A) the West Coast of Greenland. (B) the East Coast of Japan. 
(C) the North Coast of Siberia. (D) the West Coast of Africa. (Ans : A)

84. Match List-I with List-II (and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists –
List-I (Battle) 
A. The Third Carnatic War B. The Third Mysore War 
C. The First Maratha War D. The First Anglo-Sikh War 
List-II (Treaty) 
1. Treaty of Salbai 2. Treaty of Lahore 
3. Treaty of Paris 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 2 4 1 3 
(C) 3 4 1 2 
(D) 3 1 4 2 (Ans : C)

85. The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of which one of the following Princely States into Indian Union? 
(A) Kashmir (B) Junagadh 
(C) Travancore (D) Hyderabad (Ans : D)

86. The name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with–
(A) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (B) Alipore Conspiracy Case 
(C) Kakori Conspiracy Case (D) Meerut Conspiracy Case (Ans : C)

87. Which one of the following was not a demand of the Prarthana Samaj ? 
(A) Women education (B) Widow remarriage 
(C) Raising the age of marriage for boys and girls (D) Abolition of untouchability (Ans : D)

88. Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct? 
1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants. 
2. The Zamindars were recognised as the proprietors of land. 
3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand. 
4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government. 
Select the correct answer using-the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 only 
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 (Ans : A)

89. Which one of the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? 
(A) Acetylene (B) Ethane 
(C) Methane (D) Carbon dioxide (Ans : B)

90. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are– 
(A) C-12 and C-13 (B) C-13 and C-14 
(C) C-12 and C-14 (D) C-12 and carbon black (Ans : C)

91. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the kingdoms of Harshavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? 
(A) I-tsing (B) Fa-Hien 
(C) Hiuen Tsang (D) Sun Shuyun  (Ans : C)

92. Which one of the following Indus cities was known for water management? 
(A) Lothal (B) Mohenjo-Daro 
(C) Harappa (D) Dholavira (Ans : B)

93. Consider the following statements– 
According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as
1. a contract 2. a sacrament 
3. mutual understanding 4. indissoluble 
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 (Ans : D)

94. Which one of the following States was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse ? 
(A) Nagpur (B) Jhansi 
(C) Sambalpur (D) Satara (Ans : D)

95. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history (starting with the earliest)– 
1. The Doctrine of Lapse 2. The Subsidiary Alliance 
3. The Treaty of Lahore 4. The Pitt’s India Act 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (B) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 
(C) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (D) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 (Ans : A)

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Social Reformer) 
A. Iyothee Thass B. Jyotiba Phule 
C. John Rathinam D. E.V. Ramaswami Naickar 
List-II (Association) 
1. Satyashodhak Samaj 2. Dravida Kazhagam 
3. Self-Respect Movement 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4 (Ans : C)

97. Which one of the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ? 
(A) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the nuclear zone of Jorwe Culture 
(B) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa 
(C) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological evidence of symbolic burial 
(D) Practically all Jorwe settlements in the Northern Deccan were suddenly deserted (Ans : D)

98. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in– 
(A) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script. (B) Prakrit language, Brahmi script. 
(C) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi script. (D) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script. (Ans : A)

99. Who among the following scholars were contemporary of Kanishka ? 
1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna 
3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 and 4 
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

100. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of– 
(A) amphibians (B) reptiles 
(C) birds (D) corals (Ans : A)

101. The Indian research station Himadri is located at– 
(A) Siachen (B) Darjeeling 
(C) Arctic Region (D) Antarctica (Ans : C)

102. The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one of the following policy-making bodies of the Government of India in scientific research and development ? 
(A) ISRO (B) ICAR 
(C) ICMR (D) CSIR (Ans : C)

103. In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the Moon from ‘crust to core’ through its– 
(A) Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory 
(B) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer Spacecraft 
(C) Ultraviolet Spec troscopic Explorer Spacecraft 
(D) Transition Region and Coronal Explorer Spacecraft (Ans : A)

104. In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered ‘BISIN’, which– 
(A) is a natural preservative and can extend food’s life for several years. (B) can insulate cells of brain. 
(C) claims for fastest prevention of bacterial infection. (D) is a distant galaxy. (Ans : A)

105. In the year 2011, a missile named ‘PRAHAR’, developed by DRDO, was test-fired, This is a– 
(A) short-range surface to air missile. (B) long-range surface to air missile. 
(C) short-range surface to surface missile. (D) long-range surface to surface missile. (Ans : C)

106. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) All proteins are enzymes (B) All enzymes are proteins 
(C) None of the enzymes is protein (D) None of the proteins is enzyme (Ans : B)

107. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) All bases are alkalis (B) None of the bases is alkali 
(C) There are no more bases except the alkalis (D) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis 
(Ans : D)

108. Suppose a terrorist group has laid siege to the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, Kashmir. They have also taken around 80 civilians hostage. Which one of the following will be the best response by the security forces in this situation ? 
(A) Threaten the terrorists using loudspeakers with immediate military action, unless they surrender 
(B) Surround the mosque with visible army deployment and then attack the mosque 
(C) Carry out a joint army-air force raid on the mosque 
(D) Negotiate with the terrorists by utilising a local mediator to buy time and then send in special National Security Guard (NSG) commandos (Ans : D)

109. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct? 
(A) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe (B) The US is an ex-officio member of NATO 
(C) Turkey is a member of NATO (D) NATO has 28 independent member States (Ans : B)

110. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a– 
(A) Federation (B) Confederation 
(C) Unitary form of Government (D) Union of States (Ans : A)

111. The National Commission for Women was created–by 
(A) an amendment in the Constitution of India. (B) a decision of the Union Cabinet. 
(C) an Act passed by the Parliament. (D) an order of the President of India. (Ans : C)

112. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language? 
(A) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (B) A Legislation made by the Parliament 
(C) Article 145 of the Constitution of India (D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India (Ans : D)

113. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the Sun? 
(A) Fusion reaction (B) Fission reaction 
(C) Chemical reaction (D) Diffusion reaction (Ans : A)

114. In SONAR, we use– 
(A) ultrasonic waves. (B) infrasonic waves. 
(C) radio waves. (D) audible sound waves. (Ans : A)

115. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel up to a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel, having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will– 
(A) remain unaffected. (B) be reduced to half the earlier pressure. 
(C) be increased to twice the earlier pressure. (D) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier pressure. 
(Ans : C)

116. The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be– 
(A) more than 2 s (B) 2 s 
(C) 1 s (D) less than 1 s (Ans : B)

117. Which one of the following statements about an atom is not correct? 
(A) Atoms always combine to form molecules 
(B) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed 
(C) A toms are always neutral in nature 
(D) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel and touch (Ans : C)

118. China recently objected to the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. Which one of the following is that country? 
(A) Myanmar (B) South Korea 
(C) Taiwan (D) Vietnam (Ans : D)

119. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
The current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr. Baburam Bhattarai is heading a 
(A) consensus government of all major political parties of Nepal. 
(B) Nepali Congress-Maoist-U’ML coalition government. 
(C) Nepali. Congress-Maoist coalition government. 
(D) Maoist-Madhesi coalition government. (Ans : D)

120. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its– 
(A) agricultural product (B) minerals 
(C) forest product (D) fishery product (Ans : A) 

SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ and ‘D’) Examination 2012 General Awareness Solved Paper

1. The present monetary system in India is managed by– 
(A) Nationalised Banks (B) The State Bank of India 
(C) The Central Finance Ministry (D) The Reserve Bank of India 
(Ans : D)

2. What is a Multinational Company? 
(A) A joint venture among more than two countries 
(B) A company set up with foreign capital 
(C) A company having operations in many countries. 
(D) A company holding a monopoly over the sale of a certain commodity in several countries. (Ans : C)

3. Explicit + Implicit Costs = 
(A) Private Costs (B) Accounting Costs (C) Economic Costs (D) Social Costs 
(Ans : C)

4. Which of the following is not relevant to Human Resource Development ? 
(A) Education (B) Women and Child Development 
(C) Caste System (D) Youth Affairs and Sports 
(Ans : C)

5. A Trade Cycle consists of– 
(A) Three Phases (B) Four Phases (C) Five Phases (D) Six Phases 
(Ans : B)

6. The Khilafat Movement was organised to protest against– 
(A) religious interference by the British (B) Russian Revolution 
(C) dismemberment of Turkey (D) suppression of Pathans 
(Ans : C)

7. Planning Commission was established in the year– 
(A) 1980 (B) 1970 (C) 1950 (D) 1960 
(Ans : C)

8. India witnessed single party domination till– 
(A) 1962 (B) 1967 (C) 1971 (D) 1977 
(Ans : B)

9. Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution ? 
(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy 
(C) Preamble (D) Panchayats 
(Ans : C)

10. Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on– 
(A) 15th August 1947 (B) 26th November 1949 
(C) 26th January 1950 (D) 30th January 1948 
(Ans : B)

11. The rustless Iron Pillar at Mehrauli (Delhi) was erected by the– 
(A) Mauryas (B) Kushans (C) Guptas (D) Satavahanas 
(Ans : C)

12. The famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ has been taken from– 
(A) Rigveda (B) Samaveda (C) Yajurveda (D) Atharvaveda 
(Ans : A)

13. The Rajput King who was defeated by Babur in the battle of Khanwa was– 
(A) Udai Singh (B) Rana Pratap Singh (C) Rana Sanga (D) Rudra Deva 
(Ans : C)

14. Who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission ? 
(A) Sri Ramakrishna (B) Swami Shraddhananda 
(C) Keshab Chandra (D) Swami Vivekananda 
(Ans : D)

15. Who led the Mutiny at Kanpur ? 
(A) Begum Hazrat Mahal (B) Nana Sahib 
(C) Tantia Tope (D) Rani Laxmibai 
(Ans : B)

16. Which ‘Water Body’ separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands ? 
(A) Andaman Sea (B) Bay of Bengal 
(C) Ten Degree Channel (D) Eleventh Degree Channel 
(Ans : C)

17. State Highways are maintained by– 
(A) Individual States (B) Central Government 
(C) Central and State Governments jointly (D) Private parties selected by the State Governments 
(Ans : A)

18. The first port developed after Independence was– 
(A) Nhava Sheva (B) Kandla 
(C) New Mangalore (D) Mumbai
(Ans : B)

19. The neighbouring country of India which has the smallest area is– 
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Bhutan (D) Nepal 
(Ans : C)

20. Kaziranga Wild Life Sanctuary is in the State of– 
(A) Bihar (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Assam (D) Kerala 
(Ans : C)

21. Resin is extracted from– 
(A) Papaya (B) Pine (C) Rubber (D) Banyan 
(Ans : B)

22. A common plant found in tropical rainforest is– 
(A) Pine (B) Eucalyptus (C) Orchid (D) Fir 
(Ans : C)

23. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for clotting of blood ? 
(A) K (B) C (C) A (D) B 
(Ans : A)

24. Influenza virus contains– 
(A) RNA only (B) DNA only 
(C) Both RNA and DNA in equal proportion. (D) DNA with very small proportion of RNA. 
(Ans : A)

25. Lung fish is a link between– 
(A) Amphibia and Birds (B) Reptiles and Birds 
(C) Amphibia and Reptiles (D) Reptiles and Mammals 
(Ans : C)

26. Green gland is the excretory organ of– 
(A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach (C) Prawn (D) House-fly 
(Ans : C)

27. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of water– 
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains the same (D) depends on the volume of vapour formed 
(Ans : B)

28. In the treatment of skin disease the radio isotope used is– 
(A) Radio phosphorous (B) Radio iodine (C) Radio lead (D) Radio cobalt 
(Ans : A)

29. Rainbow has: (Choose incorrect statement)– 
(A) red light as its outer-most colour towards sky 
(B) red light as its inner-most colour towards earth 
(C) violet light as its inner-most colour towards earth 
(D) its curvature bent towards earth 
(Ans : B)

30. A cyclist in circular motion should lean– 
(A) Forward (B) Backward (C) Sideways towards the centre (D) Sideway away from the centre 
(Ans : C)

31. The monitor of a computer is– 
(A) an input device (B) an output device (C) a storage device (D) a processing device 
(Ans : B)

32. ……….. is a collection of wires through which data is transmitted from one part of a computer to another part– 
(A) Port (B) Channel (C) Bus (D) Add on card 
(Ans : C)

33. Amalgam is an alloy in which the base metal is– 
(A) Copper (B) Zinc (C) Aluminium (D) Mercury 
(Ans : D)

34. The physical method commonly used to purify sea water is– 
(A) Evaporation (B) Sedimentation (C) Filtration (D) Distillation 
(Ans : A)

35. The chemical name of ‘oil of vitriol’ is– 
(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Nitric acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Hydrochloric acid 
(Ans : C)

36. Cathode rays are– 
(A) Electromagnetic waves (B) Radiations 
(C) Stream of α-particles (D) Stream of electrons 
(Ans : D)

37. The National Park ‘Valley of Flowers’ lies in the State of– 
(A) Kerala (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Uttarakhand (D) Jammu and Kashmir 
(Ans : C)

38. Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by– 
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Methyl isocyanite (D) Cyanide 
(Ans : C)

39. The example of a secondary pollutant is– 
(A) CFC (Chloro fluoro carbon) (B) PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate) 
(C) CH4 (Methane) (D) Cl2 (Chlorine) 
(Ans : B)

40. In big cities, air pollution is mainly due to– 
(A) burning of fossil fuel (B) thermal power plant (C) sewage (D) suspended particles 
(Ans : A)

41. The term ‘Let’ is associated with– 
(A) Badminton (B) Chess (C) Hockey (D) Football 
(Ans : A)

42. The oral polio vaccine was discovered by– 
(A) Alexander Flemming (B) Jonas Salk (C) Edmond Fischer (D) Joseph E. Murray 
(Ans : B)

43. Who among the following Nobel Laureates for their relentless struggle for peace, was awarded 2010 Nobel Prize? 
(A) Barack H. Obama (B) Liu Xiaobo (C) Martti Ahtisaari (D) Shirin Ebadi 
(Ans : B)

44. The Umiam Hydel Project dam is located a few kilometres north of– 
(A) Guwahati (B) Shillong (C) Kohima (D) Imphal 
(Ans : B)

45. The expenses of the Government of India are the highest on account of subsidy on– 
(A) Fertilisers(B) Oil (C) LPG (D) Food 
(Ans : D)

46. In accordance with the directions of RBI, banking facilities are required to be provided at all places having population of more than 2000 by the end of– 
(A) March 2015 (B) March 2014 (C) March 2013 (D) March 2012 
(Ans : C)

47. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC), an autonomous self-governing body, was created within the State of– 
(A) Nagaland (B) Meghalaya (C) Assam (D) Mizoram 
(Ans : C)

48. ‘Simla Pact’ between India and Pakistan was signed in the year– 
(A) 1965 (B) 1971 (C) 1972 (D) 2001 
(Ans : C)

49. In which of the following States are Garo and Khasi tribes found ? 
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Nagaland (C) Meghalaya (D) Mizoram 
(Ans : C)

50. Manipur has common boundaries with the group of States of– 
(A) Nagaland, Assam and Mizoram (B) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura 
(C) Meghalaya, Mizorarn and Tripura (D) Nagaland, Mizoram and Meghalaya 
(Ans : A) 

SSC STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C & D EXAM SOLVED PAPER

SSC Grade C & D Stenographer Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission will hold on Sunday, the 27th December 2015,
an All India Open Competitive Examination for recruitment to the posts of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ ( Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted ) and Stenographer Grade ‘D’(Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted).

Number of Posts: 1064

Eligibility criteria for SSC Stenographer Recruitment 2015
Education Qualification: Candidate should have passed 12th Standard or Equivalent from a recognized Board or University.

Age Limit: As on 01st August 2015, candidates age should be above 18 years and not more than 27 years (born after 02-08-1988 and not later than 01-08-1997).

Pay Scale: Stenographer Grade C in Pay Band 2 plus Grade Pay as admissible and Stenographer Grade D in Pay Band 1.
Selection Criteria: Selection of the applicants will be done through a competitive written examination. Qualified applicants in the written examination will be called for Skill Test/ Typing Test and Stenography Test.

Application Fee: Payment of Application fee is exempted for all women candidates and SC/ ST with Disability and Ex-Servicemen Eligible for reservation, as per Government orders. The Candidates Submitting application offline (paper mode) should pay the fee of Rs. 100/- by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) Only. SSC Stenographer Grade C D Notification 2015 Apply Online

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can submit their application through online mode only before last date.

Important Dates:
Last date to apply online form 07th September, 2015

Date of Exam: 27-12-2015
Important Links:Official Notification for Click Here

Official Website for Click Here 

SSC Stenographers Exam (Grade 'C' & 'D') Syllabus 2015

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 Marks) :
 It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

General Awareness (50 Marks): 
Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its Neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability /cerebral palsy affected candidates and opting for scribe there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence and Reasoning / General Awareness Paper.

English Language and Comprehension (100 Marks): 
In addition to the testing of candidates' understanding of the English, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability, would also be tested.

Skill test in Stenography:Candidates who obtain the qualifying marks in the Written Examination as may be prescribed by the Commission will only be called for the Skill Test. It may also prescribe qualifying marks in each part of the Written Examination. THE SKILL TEST WILL BE OF QUALIFYING NATURE and the Commission will fix the qualifying standards in the skill test for different categories of candidates.

The candidates will have to appear for the stenography test. The candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English / Hindi at the speed of 100 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer  Grade ‘C’ and 80 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’. The matter will have to be transcribed on computer only. The evaluation of transcription will be done electronically only. The transcription time is as follows–

● For Stenographer Grade ‘D’ : 50 minutes ( English ) 65 minutes ( Hindi )
● For Stenographer Grade ‘C’: 40 minutes ( English ) 55 Minutes ( Hindi ) 

General Science (Physics) Practice Questions for all Exams

1. Which mirror is to be used to obtain a parallel beam of light from a small lamp ? – Concave mirror 
2. The focal length of the lens in a photographic camera is 5 cm. What is the power of the lens? – + 20 D 
3. When viewed in white light, why do soap bubbles show colours? – Because of interference 
4. Angular separation between two colours of the spectrum depends upon which thing? – Angle of deviation 
5. Total internal reflection of light is possible when light enters from which thing? – Water to air 
6. Which is used to remove astigmatism for a human eye? – Cylindrical lens 
7. Why does diffusion of light in the atmosphere take place? – Due to dust particles 
8. Which phenomena can not be attributed to the refraction of light? – Redshift 
9. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from which thing? – Diamond to glass 
10. The refractive index of a given piece of transparent quartz is greatest for which light? – Violet light 

36. Why is In a hydel station the motion produced in turbines? – Due to the flow of water 
37. What is most suitable for the core of an electromagnet? – Soft iron 
38. At a grid sub stations the voltage is stepped up to reduce loss of which thing? – Power 
39. Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. What will the potential be? – More on smaller sphere 
40. Two electron beams are travelling parallel to each other. What will be their reactions? – Repel each other 
41. Instrument used to store the electric charge is known by which name? – Capacitor 
42. When an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, which charge acquired by the fur? – Positive 
43. Conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy occurs in which thing? – Battery 
44. What is the temperature at which a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic? – Curie temperature 
45. A magnetic needle is kept in non uniform magnetic field. What does itexperiences? – A force and a torque 
46. Where will be the Time period in a vibration magnetometer infinite? – At magnetic pole 
47. The north pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographical which direction? – South 
48. If the current in the core decreases, what will the strength of the magnetic field be? – Decreases 
49. The intensity of a magnetic field is defined as the force experienced by which pole? – Unit north pole 
50. If a material, placed in a magnetic field is thrown out of it, then how is the material? – Diamagnetic 
51. The capacity of a pure capacitor is 1 farad. In D.C. circuit, what will its effective resistance be? – Infinite 
52. If a bar magnet is cut length wise into 3 parts, what will the total number of poles be? – 6 
53. For electroplating a spoon, it is placed in the voltameter at which postion? – The position of cathode 
54. A substance, when inserted between the poles of a magnet, is pushed out, what is it? – Diamagnetic 
55. By inserting a soft iron piece into solenoid, what does the strength of the magnetic field? – Increase 
56. The magnetic induction associated with currents flowing in a hollow copper tube, how will be? – only out side 
57. How is the electric potential at the centre of a charged conductor? – Same as on the surface 
58. What is not the cause of low conductivity of electrolyte? – Ionisation of salt 
59. What is Electric field intensity at a point a hollow charged spherical conductor? – Is zero 
60. Which property is processed by the ferromagnetic substance? – Hysterasis 
61. Which type of cell can be used if a device requires 75 A of current for 15 seconds? – Lead-acid cell 
62. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic. What is a hydrogen molecule? – Diamagnetic 
63. In nuclear fission, how many percentage of mass is converted into energy? – 0.1% 
64. X210 has half life of 5 day. What is the time taken for seven-eights of sample of X210 to decay? – 15 days 
65. If a U-238 nucleus splits into two identical parts, how will the two nuclei be so produced? – Stable 
66. What is the half-life of a radioactive element which has only 1/32 of its original mass left after a lapse of 60 days? – 12 days 
67. If a proton of mass m is moving with the velocity of light, what will its mass be? – Infinite 
68. What was the fissionable material used in the bomb dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945? – Plutonium 
69. Energy transferred to a person through gamma rays is measured in by which unit? – Roentgens 
70. Which field is used to produce deflection in a television picture tube? – A magnetic fields 
71. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from where? – Inner orbits of atoms 
72. From which the cathode ray particles originate in a discharge tube? – Cathode 
73. Einstein’s mass energy relation is given by which expression? – E = mc2 
74. Which rays will deflect in electric field? – Cathode rays 
75. What percentage of the original quantity of a radioactive material is left after five half lives approximately? – 3% 
76. What is the important conclusion given by Millikan’s experiment about the charge? – Charge is quantized 
77. What are Alpha rays emitted from a radioactive substance? – Helium nuclear 
78. Which are the Particles that can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties? – Neutrons 
79. Which particle has similar mass to that of the electron? – Positron 
80. When the speed of electrons increases, then what happens in the value of the specific charge on an electron? – Decreases 
81. The colour of the +ve column in a gas discharge tube depends on which thing? – The gas in the tube 
82. The first explosion of an atomic device in India was carried out in which state? – Rajasthan 
83. Direct conversion of solar energy with the use of photovoltaic cell results in the production of which energy? – Electrical energy 
84. Why is energy is continuously generated in the sun? – Due to nuclear fusion 
85. What is the ratio of specific charges of an á-particle to that of a proton? – 1/2 
85. Long distance short-wave radio broad casting uses which waves? – Ionospheric wave 
86. Which satellite is used in ship-to-shore and shore-to-shore and shore-to-ship communication? – Marisat 
87. Which is electrical circuits used to get smooth de output from a rectified circuit called? – Filter 
88. When the temperature of semiconductor is increased, what will happen in its electrical conductivity? – Increases 
89. With the rise of temperature, what will happen in the specific resistance of semiconductor? – Decreases 
90. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on which thing? – Their frequency 
91. Which are the space waves are affected seriously by atmospheric conditions? – UHF 
92. With which can Radio wave of constant amplitude be generated? – Oscillator 
93. What is the electrical circuit used to get smooth DC output from a rectifier circuit called? – Filter 
94. If germanium has to be doped with a donor impurity, how should the foreign atom be? – Pentavalent 
95. In a p-type semiconductor, Which are the majority charge carriers? – Holes 
96. The unidirectional property of a pn-junction is useful for its use as which thing? – Rectifier 
97. Which energy of the electron at absolute zero is called? – Fermi energy 
98. For television broadcasting, what frequency is employed normally? – 30-300 MHz 
99. A zener diode is also a p – n junction diode. It can be used as which regular? – DC voltage regulator 100. Which effect shows particle nature of height? – Photoelectric effect

General Science (Chemistry) Practice Questions

1. What is the name of the scientist who stated that matter can be converted into energy? – Einstein 
2. The isotopes of chlorine with mass number 35 and 37 exist in which ratio? – 3 : 1 
3. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)n. Its vapour density is 70. What must the value of n be? – 5 
4. Which law directly explains the law of conservation of mass? – Avogadro’s law 
5. To whom the credit for the discovery of transuranic element goes? – Seaborg 
6. How many moles are there is 140 g of Si (atomic mass of silicon is 28)? – 5 
7. Which substance does not have a melting point? – Glass 
8. By which a mixture of sand and naphthalene can be separated? – sublimation 
9. An element X forms an oxide X03. What is the valency of X? – 610. Sodium carbonate crystals lose water molecules. What is this property called? – Efflorescence 

44. Red litmus paper is changed into blue in solution of which thing? – Base 
45. What is formed by dissolution of base or acid in water? – Exothermic 
46. Blue litmus paper is converted into red in solution of which thing? – acid 
47. According to Arrhenius theory of an acid and base, an acid is a substance that gives which ions in water? – H+ ions 
48. What is the negative logarithmic value of hydrogen on called? – pH 
49. What are the physical state of dispersion medium of a cloud ? – Gas 
50. Vander Wall’s equation explains the behaviour of which gases? – real gases 
51. In general gas equation, pV= nRT, V is the volume of which gas? – n mole of a gas 
52. What is the ratio of rate of diffusion of oxygen and hydrogen? – 1 : 4 
53. Absolute zero is the temperature where all gases are expected to have howmuch volume? – Zero volume 
54. 4.4 g of CO2 contains how many litre of CO2 at STP? – 2.24 litre 
55. Glucose or fructose is converted into C2H5OH in the presence of which thing? – zymase 
56. Which type of materials act as effective catalysis? – Transition metals 
57. What is the substance which decreases the rate of a chemical reaction? – Poison 
58. TEL minimise the knocking effect when mixed with petrol, how does it act? – As negative catalyst 
59. Which is the catalyst used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process? – V2O5 
60. Which catalyst is sensitive to temperature changes? – Enzyme 
61. Which is the temperature at which the catalytic activity of the catayist is maximum? – Optimum temperature 
62. Alcoholic fermentation is brought about the action of which thing? – Yeast 
63. Which is catalyst used in the Deacon’s process for the manufacture of chlorine? – CuCl2 
64. In the Ostwald’s process for manufacture of HNO3, which catalyst is used? – Pt 
65. Which gas has maximum colorific value? – Oil gas 
66. When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water, the solution becomes cold. Whiat is change? – Endothermic 
67. When ice melts into water, which type of change occurs in entropy? – Increases 
68. In which type of coal percentage of carbon is the highest? – Anthracite 
69. What is the mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen called? – Producer gas 
70. What is the mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen called? – Water gas 
71. Which law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy? – Second law 
72. For which element, the standard enthalpy is not zero? – C (Diamond) 
73. Which fuel causes minimum environmental pollution? – Hydrogen 
74. Which gas has the highest fuel value? – Hydrogen 
75. The compound with negative heat of formation is known as which name? – Exothermic compound 
76. Which hydrocarbon is mainly present in gobar gas? – Methane 
77. What happens when the door of a refrigerator is kept open? – Room heated 
78. What does the second law of thermodynamics introduced? – The concept of Entropy 
79. What is an extensive property of the system? – Volume 
80. A gas expands isothermally and reversible. How much work is done by the gas? – Maximum 
81. About which is the information not conveyed by thermodynamics? – Rates of reactions 
82. Which is the element that has the highest first ionization potential? – Nitrogen 
83. What has the highest ionization potential? – Ne 
84. Which of the following among alkali metals is most reactive? – Cs 
85. Which is the element having lowest melting point in periodic table? – He 
86. Which are the elements on the right side of the periodic table? – Non-metals 
87. Which transition metal is in liquid state? – Mercury 
88. Which electronic configurations exhibits metallic character? – 2, 8, 2 
89. Which element has the lowest electron affinity? – Argon 
90. By whom was the calculation of electronegativities first done? – Pauling 
91. Which element does not exist in liquid state at room temperature ? – Na 
92. What is the most electropositive amongst the alkaline earth metals? – Barium 
93. Which block of elements is mostly metals with high B.P., M.P. values? – d-block 
94. Which are the vertical lines in modern periodic table called? – Group 
95. What is horizontal line in modern periodic table called? – Period 
96. In a period, the elements are arranged in which order? – Increasing charges in the nucleus
97. Which noble gas does not have octet of electrons in its outer shell? – He 
98. Which pair of elements is in the same period of the periodic table? – Na, Cl 
99. Why is the electron affinity of chlorine highest than that of fluorine? – Smaller nuclear charge 
100. What is the Electron affinity of noble gases? – Almost zero