Friday, December 31, 2010
Saturday, December 11, 2010
SSC COMMERCIAL AUDIT PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER
Part I : General Awareness
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part - I
| 1. (d) | 2. (a) | 3. (b) | 4. (c) | 5. (a) |
| 6. (d) | 7. (b) | 8. (b) | 9. (a) | 10. (b) |
| 11. (d) | 12. (a) | 13. (a) | 14. (b) | 15. (c) |
| 16. (b) | 17. (d) | 18. (a) | 19. (a) | 20. (b) |
| 21. (a) | 22. (b) | 23. (b) | 24. (a) | 25. (a) |
| 26. (d) | 27. (c) | 28. (d) | 29. (d) | 30. (a) |
| 31. (c) | 32. (c) | 33. (c) | 34. (a) | 35. (c) |
| 36. (d) | 37. (d) | 38. (a) | 39. (a) | 40. (b) |
| 41. (d) | 42. (a) | 43. (b) | 44. (a) | 45. (c) |
| 46. (c) | 47. (d) | 48. (d) | 49. (b) | 50. (a) |
| 51. (c) | 52. (d) | 53. (d) | 54. (b) | 55. (a) |
| 56. (b) | 57. (c) | 58. (d) | 59. (c) | 60. (d) |
| 61. (a) | 62. (a) | 63. (a) | 64. (a) | 65. (d) |
| 66. (a) | 67. (b) | 68. (b) | 69. (a) | 70. (a) |
| 71. (b) | 72. (d) | 73. (a) | 74. (d) | 75. (a) |
SSC CPO Exam 2007 Solved Paper
1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
2. Cheap money means
(a) low rates of interest
(b) low level of saving
(c) low level of income
(d) low level of standard of living
3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of the US dollars and
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Pound Sterling
(d) Diamond
4. The Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from
(a) RBI
(b) IDBI
(c) SBI
(d) ICICI
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
(a) 1991
(b) 1996
(c) 1998
(d) 2000
6. Compared to the rich the poor save
(a) a large part of their income
(b) an equal part of their income
(c) a smaller part of their income
(d) all of their incomes
7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
(a) imposition of import duties
(b) liberalization of the economy
(c) recession in other countries
(d) diversification of exports
8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Recession
(d) Stagflation
9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age
(b) 25 years of age
(c) 30 years of age
(d) 32 years of age
12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 56th
13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
(a) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day
(b) the Constitution was adopted on this day
(c) India became a Republic on the day
(d) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day
14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India Constitutions?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist
(c) Secular
(d) Federal
15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) V. V. Giri
16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530
(b) 545
(c) 540
(d) 550
17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister of the State
19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) V. P. Singh
(d) Chandrashekhar
20. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) the President of India
(b) the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of these
21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on “Non-Cooperation” in 1920 as its session held at
(a) Lucknow
(b) Delhi
(c) Bombay
(d) Calcutta
22. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
(a) Educational Reforms
(b) Police Reforms
(c) Industrial Reforms
(d) Agricultural Reforms
24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then King of England?
(a) John Hawkins
(b) William Todd
(c) Sir Thomas Roe
(d) Sir Walter Raleigh
25. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these
ANSWERS:
1 (d), 2 (a), 3 (b), 4 (a), 5 (c), 6 (c), 7 (a), 8 (a), 9 (b), 10 (b),
11 (c), 12 (a), 13 (b), 14 (d), 15 (b), 16 (d), 17 (b), 18 (c), 19 (a), 20 (d),
21 (d), 22 (a), 23 (d), 24 (c), 25 (b)
Sunday, December 5, 2010
SSC MULTI -TASKING NON TECHNICAL STAFF RECRUITMENT
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi - 110003
Recruitment to the post of Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff in Different States and Union Territories, 2011
Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Regional Offices of the Commission have advertised recruitment to Group ‘C’ posts of Multi Tasking Staff for which Matriculation or equivalent is the minimum qualification in various Central Government Ministries / Departments / Offices, in different States / Union Territories:
- Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff in various States and UTs : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 1800, Age : 18-25 years, Qualification : Matriculation or equivalent
Fee Payable : Rs. 100/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.
How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent on or before 31/12/2010 (07/01/2011 for candidates from far-flung areas) to various regional offices of the SSC where candidate wants to apply. Candidates may apply online also.
For further details and application form, please view http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/mts_exam.pdf .
Friday, December 3, 2010
SSC EXAMS ARITHMETICS QUESTIONS
1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45
- 35
- 40
- 25
- Answer: 45
- 53.25
2. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third of these three numbers?
- 15
- 45
- 60
- Data inadequate
- Answer: None of these
Difference is 30 - The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six rnonths at the rate of 10 %.p.a. at the end of two years is Rs. 124.05. What is the sum?
- Rs 10,000
- Rs 6,000
- Rs 12,000
- Answer: Rs 8,000
- None of these
4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 85.147 + 34.912 x 6.2 + ? = 802.293
- 400
- 450
- 550
- 600
- Answer: 500
5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9548+7314=8362+?
- 8230
- Answer: 8500
- 8410
- 8600
- None of these
6. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 248.251 ÷ 12.62 x 20.52 =?
- Answer: 400
- 450
- 600
- 375
- 350
7. When a number is added to another number the total becomes 333.333 per cent of the second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?
- 3:7
- 7:4
- Answer: 7:3
- Data inadequate
- None of these
8. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?
- 610
- 126
- 140
- 532
- Answer: None of these
9. 657 Ways 9:- The sum of four numbers is 64.If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the sum is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?
- Answer: 32
- 27
- 21
- Cannot be determined
- None of these
10. The Numbers are 9,15,4,36 10. In a recent Survey 40% homes contained two or more People. Of those houses containing only one person 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses which contain exactly one female and no males?
- 75
- 40
- 15
- Cannot be determined
- Answer: None of these
11. 45 percent 11. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much should she make on her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8 examinations?
- 88%
- 78%
- 98%
- Answer: Cannot be determined
- None of these
12. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially? -
- Cannot be Determined
- 16
- 24
- Answer: 32
- None of these
13. 16 boys 16 Girls 13. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 6:19:7 respectively. If R gives Rs. 200/- of his share to Q, the ratio among P, Q and R becomes 3:10:3 respectively .What was the total amount?
- Answer: Rs. 6,400/-
- Rs 12800/-
- Rs 3,200/-
- Data inadequate
- None of these
14. A man in his will distributed his money in such a way that half of it is for his wife, two-thirds of the remaining equally to three of his sons and the remaining amount equally to four of his daughters. If each of the daughters receives Rs. 20,000/-, how much money will each of his sons receive?
- Rs. 50,333.33
- Rs 48333.33
- Answer: Rs 53,333.33
- Data inadequate
- None of these
15. Arun thinks his weight is more than 65 kg but less than 72 . His brother does not agree with him and thinks Arun’s Weight is more than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. Arun ‘s Mother thinks Arun’s weight cannot be more than 68kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of the probable values of Arun’s weight?
- 69 kg
- Answer: 67 kg
- 68kg
- Data inadequate
- None of these
16. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft. and 10 ft respectively. Square tiles of 2 ft. dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue Coloured tiles are there?
- Answer: 16
- 32
- 48
- 24
- None of these
17. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be
- 7
- Answer: 9
- 10
- 8
- none of these
18. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long in 12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train per second is—
- Answer: 12.5 m/sec
- 10 m/sec
- 10.22 m/sec
- 14 m/sec
- None of these
19.The median of the data 30. 25, 27, 25-8, 29, 35,38. 28 is
- Answer: 28.5
- 29.5
- 28
- 29
- None of these
20. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their circumference is 8 cm, the two circumferences will be—
- 34cm and 26cm
- 28cm and 20cm
- Answer: 26 cm and 18 cm
- 20cm and 12cm
- None of these
Saturday, November 20, 2010
SSC SECTION OFFICER (COMMERCIAL AUDIT) 2009 solved paper
PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
(c) Justin (d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite (b) Copper
(c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US (b) Norway
(c) India (d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change (b) Force
(c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision (b) Management
(c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
(c) Astra (d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France. (b) China.
(c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
(c) isomers (d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
(c) ship. (d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
Part II : AIRTHMETIC
76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
(c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135 (b) 90
(c) 60 (d) 140
83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200 (b) 961
(c) 744 (d) 612
86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years (b) 40 years
(c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
(a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 15
89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600 (b) 3600
(c) 6400 (d) 14400
90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215 (b) 220
(c) 225 (d) 235
91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
(a) 23 (b) 4 25
(c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
92. is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 2
93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
(a) 400 (b) 480
(c) 500 (d) 580
95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
(a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
(a) 25 (b) 13313
(c) 3313(d) 30
98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
(a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
(c) 1523(d) 151 3
99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
(a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
(a) 5320 (b) 4200
(c) 3150 (d) 2660
102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
(a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
(c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
(a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
(c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
(c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its corresponding base will have to be decreased by
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
(c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
(a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
(c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually take to run the same distance is
(a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
(c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500 m, A will beat C by
(a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
(c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
(a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
(c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs. 28. If the interest were compounded half yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
(a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
(c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 16
112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5 books. The selling price of 1 book is
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price of the mixed tea is
(a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
(c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of these numbers is 44, the largest number is
(a) 24 (b) 36
(c) 72 (d) 108
115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 50
116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
FINANCES IF XYX RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
(c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in 2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 6186 (b) 5876
(c) 6444 (d) 7667
119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
(a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
(c) 20.7 (d) 17
120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
(a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
(c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
(a) 76 (b) 94
(c) 184 (d) 364
122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
(a) 34 (b) 43
(c) 35 (d) 53
123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
(a) 911 (b) 1011
(c) 1211 (d) 109 110
125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
(a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
PART III : ENGLISH
Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in Answer-sheet.
126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue
129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial (b) under pressure
(c) in danger (d) challenged
130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
(c) in danger (d) challenged
Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
(c) Session (d) Somnambulist
132.
(a) Façade (b) Inept
(c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
133.
(a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
134.
(a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
135.
(a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR (d) SRQP
137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) QPRS (d) RSQP
138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP
(c) QRSP (d) QPSR
140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy (b) covey
(c) Troupe (d) Coterie
145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal (b) Deadly
(c) Serious (d) Dangerous
146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem (d) Soprano
147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology (b) Embryology
(c) Entomology (d) Biology
148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell (b) Spell
(c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.
Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone (b) delay
(c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the man."
(a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
(c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(d) No improvement.
161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
(c) have they? (d) No improvement.
162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against (b) with
(c) in (d) No improvement.
163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed (b) pricked
(c) pierced (d) No improvement.
164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate (b) correlate
(c) command (d) No improvement.
165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
166.
(a) rejection (b) growth
(c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
167.
(a) where (b) hence
(c) what (d) since
168.
(a) armies (b) agencies
(c) enemies (d) technologies
169.
(a) relations (b) prospects
(c) applications (d) agreements
170.
(a) absorption (b) development
(c) delineation (d) filtration
171.
(a) large (b) wide
(c) across (d) close
172.
(a) eluding (b) facing
(c) confounding (d) comprising
173.
(a) order (b) priority
(c) quality (d) gravity
174.
(a) in (b) on
(c) for (d) of
175.
(a) choices (b) costs
(c) feelings (d) possibilities
Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.
177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.
180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.
Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).
4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. (c)/ No error (d).
6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).
9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent
192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven
193. Slither
(a) Slide (b) Move
(c) Shake (d) Slip
194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading
195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise
Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary
197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible
198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked
199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure
200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
200. (b)
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
(c) Justin (d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite (b) Copper
(c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US (b) Norway
(c) India (d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change (b) Force
(c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision (b) Management
(c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
(c) Astra (d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France. (b) China.
(c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
(c) isomers (d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
(c) ship. (d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
Part II : AIRTHMETIC
76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
(c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135 (b) 90
(c) 60 (d) 140
83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200 (b) 961
(c) 744 (d) 612
86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years (b) 40 years
(c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
(a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 15
89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600 (b) 3600
(c) 6400 (d) 14400
90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215 (b) 220
(c) 225 (d) 235
91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
(a) 23 (b) 4 25
(c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
92. is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 2
93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
(a) 400 (b) 480
(c) 500 (d) 580
95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
(a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
(a) 25 (b) 13313
(c) 3313(d) 30
98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
(a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
(c) 1523(d) 151 3
99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
(a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
(a) 5320 (b) 4200
(c) 3150 (d) 2660
102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
(a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
(c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
(a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
(c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
(c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its corresponding base will have to be decreased by
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
(c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
(a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
(c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually take to run the same distance is
(a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
(c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500 m, A will beat C by
(a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
(c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
(a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
(c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs. 28. If the interest were compounded half yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
(a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
(c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 16
112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5 books. The selling price of 1 book is
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price of the mixed tea is
(a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
(c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of these numbers is 44, the largest number is
(a) 24 (b) 36
(c) 72 (d) 108
115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 50
116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
FINANCES IF XYX RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
(c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in 2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 6186 (b) 5876
(c) 6444 (d) 7667
119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
(a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
(c) 20.7 (d) 17
120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
(a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
(c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
(a) 76 (b) 94
(c) 184 (d) 364
122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
(a) 34 (b) 43
(c) 35 (d) 53
123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
(a) 911 (b) 1011
(c) 1211 (d) 109 110
125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
(a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
PART III : ENGLISH
Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in Answer-sheet.
126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue
129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial (b) under pressure
(c) in danger (d) challenged
130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
(c) in danger (d) challenged
Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
(c) Session (d) Somnambulist
132.
(a) Façade (b) Inept
(c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
133.
(a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
134.
(a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
135.
(a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR (d) SRQP
137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) QPRS (d) RSQP
138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP
(c) QRSP (d) QPSR
140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy (b) covey
(c) Troupe (d) Coterie
145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal (b) Deadly
(c) Serious (d) Dangerous
146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem (d) Soprano
147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology (b) Embryology
(c) Entomology (d) Biology
148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell (b) Spell
(c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.
Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone (b) delay
(c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the man."
(a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
(c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(d) No improvement.
161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
(c) have they? (d) No improvement.
162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against (b) with
(c) in (d) No improvement.
163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed (b) pricked
(c) pierced (d) No improvement.
164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate (b) correlate
(c) command (d) No improvement.
165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
166.
(a) rejection (b) growth
(c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
167.
(a) where (b) hence
(c) what (d) since
168.
(a) armies (b) agencies
(c) enemies (d) technologies
169.
(a) relations (b) prospects
(c) applications (d) agreements
170.
(a) absorption (b) development
(c) delineation (d) filtration
171.
(a) large (b) wide
(c) across (d) close
172.
(a) eluding (b) facing
(c) confounding (d) comprising
173.
(a) order (b) priority
(c) quality (d) gravity
174.
(a) in (b) on
(c) for (d) of
175.
(a) choices (b) costs
(c) feelings (d) possibilities
Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.
177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.
180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.
Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).
4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. (c)/ No error (d).
6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).
9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent
192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven
193. Slither
(a) Slide (b) Move
(c) Shake (d) Slip
194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading
195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise
Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary
197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible
198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked
199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure
200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
200. (b)
SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Data Entry Operator exam Paper
Arithmetic (Numerical Aptitude)
Directions-(Q. 1-5) What should come in
place of the questi0n—mark (?) in the following
questions ?
1. [(58)² x (48)²] ÷ ? = 2152-96
(A) 60 (B) 2500
(C) 50 (D) 3600
(E) None of those
Answer.D
2. 7432 ÷ 92-9 x 18-5 = ?
(A) 1450 (B) 1600
(C) 1480 (D) 1560
(E) None of these
Answer.C
3. 99 x 21 – ³?? = 1968
(A) 1367631
(B) 111
(C) 1366731
(D) 1367
(E) None of these
Answer.E
4. 9634 x 3/8 ÷ ? = 28-902
(A) 115 (B) 95
(C) 110 (D) 120
(E) None of these
Answer.A
5. 19-99 x 9-9 + 99-9 = ?
(A) 129-79 (B) 297-801
(C) 1009 . (D) 296-91
(E) None of these
Answer.B
Directions—(Q. 6-10) What should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?
6. 354, 180, 64, 21, 10.2, ?
(A) 5.6 (B) 8.7
(C) 3.8 (D) 1.7
(E) None of these
Answer.B
7. 4.5, 18, 2.25, ?, 1.6875, 33.75
(A) 27 (B) 25.5 .
(C) 36 (D) 40. l
(E) None of these
Answer.A
8. 59.76, 58.66, 56.46, 52.06, 7, 25.66
(A) 48.08 (B) 46.53
(C) 43.46 (D) 43.26
(E) None of these
Answer.D
9. 36, 157, 301, 470, ?, 891 -
(A) 646 (B) 695 `
(C) 639 (D) 669
(E) None of these
Answer.E
10. 14, 70, 350, ?, 8750, 43750
(A) 1570 (B) 875
(C) 1750 _ (D) 785
(E) None of these
Answer.C
ll. The ratio of the number of students studying
in Schools A, B and C is 6 : 8 : 7 respectively.
If the number of students studying in each of
the schools is increased by 20%, 15% and
20% respectively, what will be the new ratio
of the number of students in Schools A, B and C.
(A) 18 : 23 : 21
(B) 12: 18 : 17
(C) 18 :21 : l7
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer.A
2. On a test consisting of 75 questions carrying
one mark each Samir answered 75% of the
first 40 questions correctly. What approxi-
mate per cent of the other 35 questions does
he need to answer correctly to score 80% on
the entire test
(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 86 (D) 60
(E) 58
Answer.C
3. Out of these numbers the sum of the first and
the second number is 73 and the sum of
second and the third number is 77. The sum
of the third and thrice the first number is 104.
What is the third number
(A) 25
(B) 39
(C) 48
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these _
Answer.E
14. 50 people consume 350 kgs. of rice in 30
days. In how many days will 35 people
consume 50 kgs. of rice
(A) 2 days (B) 3 days
(C) 5 days (D) 7 days
(E) None of these
Answer.E
15. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the
total number of animal heads are 81 and total
number of animal legs are 234, how many
goats does’ Krishna have ?
(A) 45
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer.C
Directions—(Q. 16-20) Study the following
data carefully and answer the questions given
below-
A survey conducted on 1800 villages shows
_ that 25% of the total villages have only adequate
water supply. 15% of the total number of villages
have proper supply of electricity only. 7% of the
total number of villages have only proper
education facilities. 12% of the total number of
villages have telecommunication services only.
16% of the total number of villages have proper
health care services only. 6% of the total number
of villages have adequate water as well as supply
of electricity. 8% of the total number of villages
have adequate supply of water, supply of elec-
tricity as well as health care services. 5% of the
total number of villages have proper supply of
electricity, telecommunication services as well as
health care services and 6% of the total number of
villages have all the facilities.
16, How many villages in all have adequate water
supply ?
(A) 702
(B) 450
(C) 594
(D) 810
(E) None of these
Answer.D
17. How many villages in all have adequate
supply of water as well as electricity ?
(A) 360 (B) 108
(C) 720 (D) 972
(E) None of these
Answer.A
18. How many villages in all do not have proper
supply of electricity ?
(A) 720 (B) 850
(C) 920 (D) 1080
(E) None of these
Answer.D
19. How many villages have only proper
education facilities ? _
(A) 108 (B) 126
(C) 234 (D) 216
(E) None of these
Answer.B
20. How many villages have all the facilities ?
(A) 90 (B) 126
(C) 144 (D) 106
(E) None of these
Answer.E
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the following
table carefully and answer the questions given _;
below. l
Quantity of Rice produced by
various states over the years
(Quantity in Tonnes)
Years
States 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
A 1500 1480 1620 1700 1540 1650
B 1250 1190 1400 1450 1320 1380
C 1160 1190 1310 1300 1340 1360
D 1520 1500 1480 1590 1630 1580
E 1440 1350 1430 1280 1380 1400
F 1600 1620 1510 1610 1580 1590
21. In which state has the production of rice
increased over the years continuant
(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
(E) None of these
Answer.E
22. In which year was the production of rice the
highest in all the states together
(A) 2007 (B) 2002
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
(E) None of these
Answer.A
23. Which state produced the lowest quantity of
rice over the years ?
(A) E (B) D
(C) C (D) A
(E) None of these
Answer.C
24. What is the respective ratio of the average
quantity of rice produced by State D to the
average quantity of rice produced by State F
over the years ?
(A) 69 : 79 (B) 310:317
(C) 138: 155 (D) 276: 317
(E) None of these
Answer.B
25. Rice produced by State C in the year 2005 is
approximately what per cent of the rice
produced by State A in the same year ‘?
(A) 82 (B) 72
(C) 88 (D) 76
(E) 69
Answer.D
Directions- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of Literates in various cities over the years
M-Males, F-Females
Years 2001 2002 2004
Cities M F M F M F M F M F
U 15000 25000 18550 20000 18590 25000 25000 25500 28000 28800
V 12500 9200 14680 10520 16000 11000 16850 13680 16920 14360
W 18660 17380 18950 18000 18980 19000 19500 19250 19580 19600
X 14200 14350 14820 14500 15250 15000 15390 15250 16000 16200
Y 9700 8320 9990 8540 9870 8820 10200 10000 10520 10300
31. What is the total number of male literates in
City W over the years
(A) 97650 (B) 95670
(C) 99280 (D) 96570
(E) None of these
Answer.B
32. What is the total number of literates across
the cities in the year 2005
(A) 180280 (B) 182000
(C) 18805.0 (D) 180500
(E) None of these
Answer.A
33. What is the difference between the total
number of female literates across the cities in
the year 2002 and the year 2004 ?
(A) 11850 (B) 12000
(C) 11500 (D) 12800
(E) None of these
Answer.E
34. What is the respective ratio of literates of City
X in the year 2001 to the literates of the same
city in the year 2003 ‘?
(A) 581 : 624
(B) 64 : 75
(C) 571 : 605
(D) 84: 131
(E) None of these
Answer.C
35. What is the average number of female
literates across the cities in the year 2005 ?
(A) 18725 (B) 15872 •
(C) 17582 (D) 17852
(E) None of these
Answer.D
Directions- Study the following
Pie—Graph carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A survey conducted on 5800
villages staying in various villages and having
various favourite fruits
Favourite Fruits
Guava 14%
Apple 12%
Grapes 11%
Mango 28%
Banana 20%
Custard apple 15%
People staying in various villages
A 22%
B 21%
C 32%
D 25%
36. Mango is the favorite fruit of 50% of the
people from Village C. People having their
favourite fruit as mango from Villages C form
approximately what per cent of the people
having their favourite fruit as mango from all
the villages together ?
(A) 48 (B) 53
(C) 61 (D) 57
(E) 45
Answer.D
37. 20% of the people from Village D have
banana is their favourite fruit and 12% of the
people from the same village have guava as
their favourite fruit. How many people from
that village like other fruits
(A) 764 B ) 896
(C) 874 (D) 96%
(E) None of these
Answer.E
38. How many people in all have custard apple as
their favourite fruit
(A) 850 (B) 864
(C) 870 (D) 812
(E) None of these
Answer.C
39. 50% of the people from Village B have
banana as their favourite fruit. How many A
people from other villages have the same
favourite fruit
(A) 1160 (B) 551
(C) 1020 (D) 609
(E) None of these
Answer.B
40. What is the total number of people having
their favourite fruit as apple and grapes to-
gether
(A) 1334 (B) 1286
(C) 1300 (D) 1420
(E) None of these
Answer.A
41. In how many different ways can the letters
of the word ‘GAMBLE’ be arranged
(A) 720 (B) 840
(C) 360 (D) 420
(E) None of these
Answer.A
42. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
200% and the denominator of the fraction is
increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is $6
What is the original fraction
(A) 5/12 (B) 4/7840
(C) 3/4 (D) 7/11
(E) None of these
Answer.C
43. Pratibha covers a distance of 24 kms at the
speed of 8 kms/hr, and a distance of 18 kms at
the speed of 9 kms/hr. Further she covers a
distance of 12 kms at the speed of 3 kms/hr.
What is her average speed in covering the
whole distance
(A) 8 kms/hr. (B) 5.5 kms/hr.
(C) 3 kms/hr. (D) 6kms/hr.
(E) None of these
Answer.D
44. The mean of the marks obtained by 100 E
students is 60. If the marks obtained by one of `
the students was incorrectiy caiemated as 75,
whereas the actual marks obtained by him
were 65, what is the correct mean of the
marks obtained by the students
(A) 59
(B) 58-50
(C) 50
(D) Cannot be determined ‘
(E) None of these
Answer.E
45. The difference between a two•digit number
and the number obtained by interchanging the
two digits of the numbers is 36. What is the
difference between the two digits of the
number
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer.B
Directions•(Q
What approximate
value should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).
46. 388 + 0.8 + 0.7 = ?
(A) 681 (B) 654
(C) 693 (D) 670
(E) 700
Answer.C
47. ?729 x ?338= ?
(A) 470 (B) 482
(C) 521 (D) 530
(E) 496
Answer.E
48. 1875 ÷ 35 x 3242 ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 3525 (B) 3618
(C) 3641 (D) 3591
(E) 3636
Answer.B
49.³?41132 =?
(A) 35 (B) 42
(C) 22 (D) 29
(E) 45
Answer.A
50. 15.28 x 12.36+ 41.17 x 21 – 34 = ?
(A) 1125 (B) 1098
(C) 1132 (D) 1032
(E) 1067
Answer.E
Friday, November 19, 2010
SSC NWR RECRUITMENT
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(North Western Region - NWR), Chandigarh
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Western Region (WR), Mumbai, invite application for the following posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :
- Junior Hindi Translator in O/o Ordnance Cable Facory, Chandigarh : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-30 years
- Senior Scientific Assistant - III in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, NH-IV, Chandigarh : 06 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-27 years
- Technical Director - I in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Faridabad : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2000, Age : 18-27 years
- Senior Scientific Assistant - III (Chemistry) in O/o Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, Faridabad : 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 18-275 years
- Investigator Gr. - II in O/o Labour Bureau, Chandigarh : 06 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 26 years
Fee Payable : Rs. 50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.
How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 13/12/2010 (19/11/2010 for candidates from far-flung areas) to Office of the Deputy Regional Director (NWR), Staff Selection Commission, (North Western Region), Block No. 3, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh - 160017.
For further details and application form, please visit http://www.sscnwr.org/
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