SSC Multi Tasking Staff Exam Solved Paper (Exam Held on: 23-02-2014)

SSC TENTATIVE SCHEDULE FOR EXAMS IN THE YEAR 2014

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination - 2014 Preparation Plan

Staff Selection Commission has announced notification to conduct Group B, C posts in various departments of Central Governament. The exmination will be conducted in three phases i.e., Tier-I (Written Examination), Tier-II (Written Examination), Tier-III (Personality Test cum Interview / Computer Proficiency Test / Skill Test / Document Verification). There is less time to prepare as the Tier-I examiantion dates fall on 27th April and 4th May, 2014. Hence, the preparation should pickup speed in a planned manner. Here is the preparation plan for the candidates who are going to attend the examination in 2014. 

Scheme of Examination: In Tier-I exam, there is only one paper, common to all the candidates, which is divided in to four parts. Each part consists of 50 questions where each question carries 1 mark. The total marks are 200. The candidate should complete the exam within 2 hours 40 minutes. The four parts are:

Section	Marks
English Comprehension	50
Quantitative Aptitude	50
General Intelligence and Reasoning	50
General Awareness	50
Total Marks	200

Syllabus: English Comprehension: This part section tests the candidates’ ability to understand correct English, basic comprehension and writing ability. This section consists of 50 questions which mostly come from Synonyms, Antonyms, Correction of sentences, Parts of speach, Idioms and phrases, Improvement of sentences, One word substitution, Correction of spelling, Passages etc.
Genereally, questions shall be set at the level of SSC standard.

Previous Questions from 2012 Tier-I Exam (Held on 08-07-2012)

1. He said /that he will meet me / at the resturant / No error(A) 
   (B) 
   (C) 
   (D)
2. Choose the correct alternative.a) They have lost ------ of their contacts.i) Little 
   ii) Much 
   iii) Many 
   iv) Small
3. Choose the alternative which express the best meaning of idiom /phrasea) I am looking forward to her arrivali) Afraid of 
   ii) Expecting with pleasure 
   iii) Expecting 
   iv) Confident of 
4. Find the correctly spelt word.i) Literate 
   ii) Litterate 
   iii) Litarate 
   iv) Litarete

Previous Questions from 2013 Tier-I Exam: (Held on 21-04-2013)Choose the best alternative.

1. Tribulation i) Palpitation 
   ii) Suffering 
   iii) Weakness 
   iv) Stimulation
2. A group of three powerful people.i) Trio 
   ii) Tritium 
   iii) Trivet 
   iv) Triumvirate
   Choose the word opposite in meaning.
3. Lunacy i) Palpitation 
   ii) Suffering 
   iii)Weakness 
   iv) Stimulation

Quantitative Aptitude: The questions in this section will include problems from 

1. Number system
2. Fractions
3. H.C.F & L.C.M
4. Simplifications
5. Percentage, square roots, cube roots
6. Ratio & proportion
7. Time and work
8. Time and distance
9. Pipes and cisterns
10. S.I & C.I
11. Problems on ages
12. Problems on Numbers
13. Mensuration
14. Clocks
15. Calendars
16. Data interpretation
17. Fundamentals of Trigonometry, surds, indices, geometry, statistics etc.

Candidates from non-maths background require more practice with shortcut methods.

Previous Questions from 2012 Tier-I Exam.

1. then the value of x is ?A) 1 
   B) 0 
   C) 
   D) 2
2. The value of is ?A) 0.005 
   B) 0.05 
   C) 0.5 
   D) 0.0005
3. I read of a book on one day and of the remainder on another day if there were 30 pages unread now, how many pages did the book contains?A) 200 
   B) 60
   C) 240 
   D) 65
4. When an item sold for Rs.1690 earned 30% on the cost price, then the cost price is A) 500/- 
   B) 630/- 
   C) 1300/- 
   D) 130/-
5. The x- intercept of the graph of 5x + 6y = 30 isA) 4 Units 
   B) 5 Uints 
   C) 6 Units 
   D) 15 Units
6. If the perimeter of a square and a rectangle are the same, then the areas P and Q enclosed by them would satisty the condition. A) P < Q 
   B) P £ Q 
   C) P > Q 
   D) P = Q
7. A solid sphere of 6 cm diameter is melted and recast into 8 solid spheres of equal volume. Then the radius of each small sphere is ((in cm).A) 1.5 
   B) 3 
   C) 2 
   D) 2.5
8. The heights of two cones are in the ratio of 1:3 and the diameters of their bases are in the ratio of 3:5 then the ratio of their volumes is A) 3 : 25 
   B) 4 : 25 
   C) 6 : 25 
   D) 7 : 25 
9. "I" is the incentre of D ABC, If A) 90° 
   B) 100° 
   C) 110° 
   D) 102°

Previous Questions from 2013 Tier-I Exam.

1. The Number 323 has A) Three prime factors 
   B) Five prime factors 
   C) Two prime factors 
   D) No prime factor
2. The Difference of a number consisting of two digits from the number formed by interchanging the digits is always divisible byA) 10 
   B) 9 
   C) 11 
   D) 6
3. A man invested 1/3 of his capital at 7%, 1/4 at 8% and the remainder at the 10%. If his annual income is Rs.561. The capital is A) Rs.5,400 
   B) Rs.6,000 
   C) Rs.6,600 
   D) Rs.7,200 
4. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 30 cm and 40cm whose centers are 50 cm apart is (in cm)A) 12 
   B) 24 
   C) 36 
   D) 48

General Intelligence & Reasoning: This section consists questions from both verbal and non verbal cocepts. In verbal reasoning, candidates should prepare the following topics. They are..

1. Series
2. Analogy
3. Classification
4. Direction test
5. Missing characters
6. Coding and decoding
7. Alphabet test
8. Dice
9. Statement - conclusion
10. Mathematical test
11. Statement -Assumptions
12. Statement arguements

Non-verbal Reasoning questions are mainly in pictorial form, which come from the topics -

1. Analogy
2. Classification
3. Series
4. Mirror & water images
5. Embedded figures
6. Cubes & Dice

Previous Questions from 2012 Tier-I Exam.

1. Find the odd member/pair /word
   1. a) Spicejet 
      b) Kingfisher 
      c) Air India 
      d) Indigo
   2. a) 500 
      b) 413 
      c) 112 
      d) 433
   3. a) Elephant 
      b) Tiger 
      c) Lion 
      d) Bear
   4. a) 73-61 
      b) 57-69 
      c) 42-29 
      d) 47-59
   5. a) College 
      b) Kindergarden 
      c) School 
      d) Education
2. Find the missing number: 
   
   
3. Chose the correct alternative.
   1. SFJ, RGK, QHL ––––a) EMD 
      b) VIJ 
      c) PIM 
      d) PKL
   2. 6, 24, 12 --- 18, 8, 24, 0a) 14 
      b)18 
      c) 16 
      d) 20 
   3. Which word will appear third in dictionarya) Paralysis 
      b) Paralytic 
      c) Paralyse 
      d) Parallelism
   4. From the given atternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. HALLUCINATION
      a) Lion 
      b) Loan 
      c) Nation 
      d) Lotion
4. In a certain code 'p' is #, A is %, C is f and E is @ How is 'PACE' written in that code.a) # f # % 
   b) f % @ % f 
   c) # % f @ 
   d) none
5. Tarun is father of Rohit, Rohit is the brother of Kala, Kala is the wife of Dilip How is Dilip related to Rohit.a) Brother -in -law 
   b) Father-in-law 
   c) Sun 
   d) Uncle 

Previous Questions from 2013 Tier-I Exam

1. If BLUE is written as EUBL, then BULB is written as a) BLUB 
   b) BBUL 
   c) BBLU 
   d) BLBU
2. A watch reads 7.30. If the minute hand points West, then in which direction will the hour hand point?a) North 
   b) North East 
   c) North West 
   d) South West
   From the given atternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
3. PENULTIMATEa) PEANUT 
   b) MINUTE 
   c) ELIMINATE 
   d) LIME-TEA
   Find the Missing Number
4. 0, 6, 24, 60, ?, 210a) 117 
   b) 119 
   c) 120 
   d) 153
   Analogy
5. Glucometer: Blood Sugar :: Sphygmomanometera) Earthquake 
   b) Blood Pressure 
   c) Atmospheric Pressure 
   d) Specific Gravity
6. Statements: I.Some birds are clouds
   II. No Horse is a bird
   Conclusions:I. Some clouds are birds
   II. Horse is not a cloud
   a) Conclusion I follows 
   b) Conclusion II Follows 
   c) Either conclusion I or II follows 
   d) Neither conclusion I or II follows

General awareness: This section consists questions from Indian History, Polity, Geography, Economy, General science, Current Affairs etc. 

Indian history: It is a vast subject but we can score more if we prepare properly. The subject is diveded in to 4 sub-parts.
i) Ancient Indian History 
ii) Medieval Indian History
iii) Modern Indian History 
iv) National Movement.

Polity: It include topics like Constitutional Developments, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy, Union Executive, State executive, Judiciary.

Geography: It is divided into world Geography and Indian geography. In world geography, mainly concentrate on solar system, Continents, Rivers, Population, Rainfall, Vegetation, Industry, Minerals. In Indian geography, concentrate on physiography , River system, Rainfall Natural vegetation, Industry, Rerourcy, Minerals and Population etc.

Indian Economy: Candidate should concentrate on Nature of Indian Economy, National Income, Poverty, Unemployment, Budget Terminology, Fundamentals of Economic Survey etc.

General Science: It includes Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Human Anatomy, Sciene and Technology. Candidates need to prepare basics in every subject with more examples.

Current Affairs: Concentrate on one year current affairs and major issues like National, International issues, Persons, Places in news, Sports, Awards, Economy etc.

Previous Questions from 2012 Tier-I Exam

1. Who gave the slogan "InQuilab Zindabad"?a) Chandra Sekhar Azad 
   b) Subhash Chandra Bose 
   c) Bhagat Singh 
   d) Iqbal
2. 2018 FIFA World Cup would be held ina) Russia 
   b) Qatar 
   c) France 
   d) Netherland
3. Fahien visited India during the reign of a) Chandragupta 
   b) Samudragupta 
   c) Ramagupta 
   d) Kumaragupta
4. What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission?a) Mega Hertz 
   b) Characters per second 
   c) Bits per second 
   d) Nano second.
5. Which of the following are warm blooded animals?a) Whales 
   b) Whale sharks 
   c) Alytes 
   d) Draco
6. Which of the following folk dances is associated with "Rajasthan"?a) Raof 
   b) Jhora 
   c) Veedhi 
   d) Suisini

Previous Questions from 2013 Tier-I Exam.

1. Sarus crane is the state bird ofa) Rajasthan 
   b) Uttar Pradesh 
   c) Madhya Pradesh 
   d) West Bengal
2. "Martyr's" day is marked ona) January 1 
   b) January 15 
   c) January 30 
   d) January 9
3. The animal who can consume more salt among the following is a) Sheep 
   b) Camel 
   c) Donkey 
   d) Dog
4. Which one of the following is not a sect of Buddhisma) Mahayana 
   b) Hinayana 
   c) Digambar 
   d) Theravad
5. Lungs are located in thea) Abdominal cavity 
   b) Pericardial cavity 
   c) Peritonealcavity 
   d) Pleural cavity
6. Bhopal gas tragedy 1984 is related toa) Aluminium Phosphide 
   b) Methyl Bromide 
   c) Methyl Isocyanate 
   d) Carbon dioxide
7. The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was launched ina) 1972 
   b) 1975 
   c) 1977 
   d) 1979

Reference Books:English Language & Comprehension: 
English for Competitive Exams - Hari Mohan Prasad, Pratiyogitha Darpan, regular newspaper reading, previous papers analysis.
Arithmetic Ability: Quantitative Aptitude by RS Agarwal, Quantitative Aptitude by Tyra.
Reasoning Ability: RS Agarwal, Pandy Books.
General Awareness: NECERT Books up to 12th class and Spectrum Books for General Studies
Current Affairs: Manorama Year Book, One newspaper in English and one regional launguage and Sakshi Education.

Notification Details:Vacancies:Assistant (Central Secretariat Service)
Assistant (Central Vigilance Commission)
Assistant (Intelligence Bureau)
Assistant (Ministry of Railway)
Assistant (Ministry of External Affairs)
Assistant (Cypher) (Ministry of External Affairs)
Assistant (AFHQ)
Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations including AFHQ)
Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations)
Inspector of Income (Tax CBDT)
Inspector, (Central Excise) (CBEC)
Inspector (Preventive Officer) (CBEC)
Inspector (Examiner) (CBEC)
Assistant Enforcement Officer (Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue)
Sub Inspectors (Central Bureau of Investigation):
Inspector of Posts (Department of Post)
Divisional Accountant (Offices under CAG)
Statistical Investigator Gr. II (M/Statistics & Prog. Implementation)
Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)
Auditor (Offices under C&AG)
Auditor (Offices under CGDA)
Auditor (Offices under CGA & others)
Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under C&AG)
Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under CGA & others)
Upper Division Clerk (Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres)
Tax Assistant (CBDT)
Tax Assistant (CBEC)
Compiler (Registrar General of India)
Sub-Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)

Application Fee: Rs.100/- only. All Women candidates and candidates belonging to SC, ST, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application fee.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:Last date for Part- I Online Registration: 12/02/2014 up to 05:00 PM
Last date for Part -II Online Registration: 14/02/2014 up to 05:00 PM
Last date for Receipt of Application: 14/02/2014.
Last date for Receipt of Application for Far flung areas: 21/02/2014
Written examination (Tier I): 27/04/2014 & 04/05/2014
Written examination (Tier II): 30/08/2014 (Paper III) & 31/08/2014 (Paper I & II)

For more details, please visit:ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/CGLE-2014%20Notice.pdf

How to prepare for SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination 2014

Tier I pattern
1. English
2. GK
3. Reasoning,General Intelligence
4. Quantitative Aptitude 


Staff Selection Commission or simply SSC is an Indian organization to recruit staff for various posts in the various Ministries and Departments of the Government of India and in Subordinate Offices. Staff Secondary Commission conducting 14 to 15 examinations every year for recruitment of Staff in various department of ministry these exams are as like FCI, SI, Clerk, LDC, CGL, DEO and many more.

Every year SSC conducts different exams, but most popular one is SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam or simply SSC CGL. Through SSC CGL they recruit Group B and Group C posts, selected candidates gets jobs in various departments are like Income Tax (I.T), Custom and Central Excise, Vigilance commission, Enforcement Directorate, Intelligence bureau, Central bureau of investigation (CBI), comptroller auditor general (CAG)&so on.

To crack this exam first of all you have to make strategy for study, you should have good study material in which you can easily understand each and every topic. Time management is must to get this opportunity because in this exam you will get different section to complete within a time, but if you will not understand the time cost then you cant success. There are negative marking in each section so do not be confused at all to solve tricky and confusing questions as it only the wasting of time.

SSC CGL will conduct two level exams
1. Tier I 2. Tier II
Exam Pattern for Tier 1, total you will get 120 minutes for 200 questions. Four sections each with 50 questions and 50 marks. It doesnt have any sectional cut off, like in Bank exams. Negative marking 0.25 marks. 
Those who qualify in the Tier-I, have to appear for Tier-II. But unlike the UPSC mains, the SSC tier-II doesnt have descriptive paper. You just have to face multiple choices Questions (MCQ).
Advantage of solving previous papers
1. Trains Your Brain For Negative Marking
2. Improves Your Speed
GK (Only for Tier I)
Read NCERT or Telugu academy books. Lucent GK is good takes little time to read all the topics. Read newspapers. Revise minimum three times, practice a few old papers. General awareness shouldnt give much trouble.
English (Tier I and Tier II)
In the SSC exam, you have to face English at two stages, in tier 1 (50 marks) and in tier 2 (200 marks). Divide it into two parts 
1. Grammar
2. Vocabulary
In the SSC exam, you have to face English grammar in following areas, sentence correction, sentence improvement, and active passive voice, direct and indirect speech&etc. First of all you need to know the grammar rules. But you dont need to know all grammar rules.

Example: 
Each of the boys are passed (wrong) 
Each of the boys is passed (right) 
Your task = first go through your grammar book, and note down such rules with example statements, in your note book. Revise these rules often (along with example sentences). Grammar rules are like maths. Universal valid.

Example: Independence Day is celebrated on 15th august.
Independence Day is celebrated on August 15th, among these two statements which is correct one?
This kind of questions can answered simply if we have habit of reading newspapers.
Vocabulary is of very importance in SSC exam because of following reasons, 
1. You can read the passage faster, if your vocabulary is good, else youll have to pause and think.
2. In comprehension passages, some questions are in the format of what is the meaning of ABC word in the sentence
Books for grammar any school grammar book and for vocabulary word power made easy book is a good and read English newspaper. For practice R.S.Agarwal objective English book is recommended. Once this is done, try to solve as many practice questions as you can.

Reasoning, General Intelligence (Tier I)
Since Reasoning/ General Intelligence topic doesnt have much theory, the only way to approach it= practice maximum number of questions at home from your reasoning book. So you want to use one reasoning book that is universally applicable to all such exams it is A Modern Approach to Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning by R.S Agarwal

Quantitative Aptitude (Tier I and Tier I I)
Dont feel low that I am from science background and all. Maths is not difficult. All it requires is concept clarity + lot of practice. Your task is to cover one topic at a time, first get conceptual-clarity and then solve maximum questions at home.
The conventional questions from ratio-proportion, basic maths, time-speed-work are asked for namesake only. Otherwise, Out of 50 Maths questions in tier-I, almost 30 questions are from just Geometry + Trigonometry + Percentages + Algebra.
Books for this section, quantitative Aptitude by R.S.Agarwal is good but has some issues, The way SSC-CGL question pattern is transforming, R.S.Agarwals book on Quantitative aptitude, is just not up to the mark to match this changing environment. Some of the topics like Geometry and trigonometry&etc. are not there. There are some other books are available but which are very useful for CAT exam not for SSC level. For missing topics in RS Agarwal one has to go through NCERT books.Data interpretation is also important.

Tips
1. Solve previous year question papers as much as you guys can do
2. Make practice of quantitative aptitude section
3. Practice of English grammar daily
4. Make revision constantly
5. Make plan according to syllabus
6. Buy some good books for study
7. Try to know the simple tricks as it will not consume the time
These SSC jobs are very good and especially Group B jobs are not less than even Group-1 jobs, I am here to aware you about this prestigious jobs, so what I suggest you is just try SSC. Make a plan you will defiantly get the job. 

Tier II pattern 
1. Paper I Quant 200 marks 
100 questions 2 hours 
2. Paper II English 200 marks 
200 questions 2 hours

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Graduate Level Examination 2014

Applications are invited for the following posts:

1. Assistant (Central Secretariat Service)
2. Assistant (Central Vigilance Commission)
3. Assistant (Intelligence Bureau)
4. Assistant (Ministry of Railway)
5. Assistant (Ministry of External Affairs)
6. Assistant (Cypher) (Ministry of External Affairs)
7. Assistant (AFHQ)
8. Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations including AFHQ)
9. Assistant (Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations)
10. Inspector of Income (Tax CBDT)
11. Inspector, (Central Excise) (CBEC)
12. Inspector (Preventive Officer) (CBEC)
13. Inspector (Examiner) (CBEC)
14. Assistant Enforcement Officer (Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue)
15. Sub Inspectors (Central Bureau of Investigation):
16. Inspector of Posts (Department of Post)
17. Divisional Accountant (Offices under CAG)
18. Statistical Investigator Gr. II (M/Statistics & Prog. Implementation)
19. Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)
20. Auditor (Offices under C&AG)
21. Auditor (Offices under CGDA)
22. Auditor (Offices under CGA & others)
23. Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under C&AG)
24. Accountant/ Junior Accountant (Offices under CGA & others)
25. Upper Division Clerk (Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres)
26. Tax Assistant (CBDT)
27. Tax Assistant (CBEC)
28. Compiler (Registrar General of India)
29. Sub-Inspector (Central Bureau of Narcotics)

Application Fee: Rs.100/- only. All Women candidates and candidates belonging to SC, ST, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application fee.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:

• Last date for Part- I Online Registration: 12/02/2014 up to 05:00 PM
• Last date for Part -II Online Registration: 14/02/2014 up to 05:00 PM
• Last date for Receipt of Application: 14/02/2014.
• Last date for Receipt of Application for Far flung areas: 21/02/2014
• Written examination (Tier I): 27/04/2014 & 04/05/2014
• Written examination (Tier II): 30/08/2014 (Paper III) & 31/08/2014 (Paper I & II)

For more details, please visit:http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/CGLE-2014%20Notice.pdf 
For Pervious Question Paper Go Through This Link: http://sakshieducation.com/(S(x3cykc45esrp4z55nqejkw45))/PreviousPapers/Prevlist.aspx?cid=6&sid=295&chid=0&tid=0

SSC Food Corporation of India (FCI) Combined Assistant Grade-III Exam 2012 Solved Paper

General Awareness 

l. Reasons for the growth of Regional Political Parties in India is– 
(A) lack of effective opposition (B) economic disparities among the States 
(C) failure of the national parties (D) All the above 
Ans : (D)

2. The first State in India to be formed on linguistic basis is– 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Odisha 
(C) Karnataka (D) Maharashtra 
Ans : (A)

3. The only Union Territory which has a High Court of its own is– 
(A) Chandigarh (B) Daman and Diu 
(C) Delhi (D) Lakshadweep 
Ans : (C)

4. One of the following subjects is not in the State List–
(A) Market and fairs (B) Bankruptcy and insolvency 
(C) Police and prisons (D) Public health and sanitation 
Ans : (C)

5. Who was the founder of the Slave dynasty in India ? 
(A) Balban (B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak 
(C) Muhammad Ghori (D) Iltutmish 
Ans : (B)

6. Chandragupta Maurya was the– 
(A) Great-grandfather of Ashoka (B) Brother of Ashoka 
(C) Father of Ashoka (D) Grandfather of Ashoka 
Ans : (D)

7. Who was known as ‘Lakh Baksh’ ? 
(A) Iltutmish (B) Raziya 
(C) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (D) Babar 
Ans : (C)

8. Who was the pioneer among the social reformers ? 
(A) Ramakrishna Paramhans (B) Swami Vivekanand 
(C) Raja Rammohun Roy (D) Dayanand Saraswati 
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following classes did not participate in the Revolt of 1857 ? 
1. Agricultural labourers 2. Money lenders 3. Peasants 4. Zamindars 
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 4 
(C) 1 only (D) land 2 
Ans : (C)

10. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to– 
(A) Linking of Rivers (B) Development of Roads 
(C) Communication (D) Social Integration 
Ans : (B)

11. The difference between G.D.P. at market prices and G.D.P. at factor prices is– 
(A) Net factor income from abroad (B) Net export 
(C) Depreciation (D) Net indirect taxes 
Ans : (D)

12. With increase in the price of commodity ‘X’, the demand of ‘Y’ decreases. The commodity ‘Y’ is a/an– 
(A) inferior good (B) composite good 
(C) substitute good (D) complementary good 
Ans : (D)

13. Match the following–
List A 
a. Perfect competition b. Monopoly 
c. Discriminating monopoly d. Monopolistic competition 
List B 
1. One seller 2. Product differentiation 
3. Homogeneous commodity 4. Price differentiation
a b c d 
(A) 4 2 3 1 
(B) 2 4 1 3 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 1 3 2 4 
Ans : (C)

14. Corporate Tax is imposed by– 
(A) Central Government (B) Both Central and State Government 
(C) State Government (D) Local Government 
Ans : (A)

15. Which one of the following is essential for proper working of democracy? 
(A) Responsible and efficient opposition (B) Written constitution 
(C) Universal adult franchise (D) Parliamentary system 
Ans : (A)

16. The sound of explosions in a distant star is not heard from the Earth because– 
(A) the frequency of sound produced is below 10 Hz 
(B) the frequency of sound produced is above 100 kHz 
(C) there is no continuous medium from the star to Earth 
(D) the distance of the star is so large that sound intensity falls below the audible range 
Ans : (C)

17. Combustion is the process in which– 
(A) only heat is, produced (B) heat and light are produced 
(C) no heat is produced (D) no light is produced 
Ans : (B)

18. In a ‘dynamo’– 
(A) electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy 
(B) electrical energy is converted to magnetic energy 
(C) mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy 
(D) mechanical energy is converted to heat energy 
Ans : (C)

19. Among the materials listed below, sound travels the fastest in– 
(A) Hydrogen (B) Vacuum 
(C) Steel (D) Water 
Ans : (C)

20. In an e-mail address, the symbol that is used to separate the user name and the domain name is–
(A) @ (B) –
(C) # (D) : / / 
Ans : (A)

21. CD-ROM is a– 
(A) Magnetic Memory (B) Secondary Memory 
(C) Semiconductor Memory (D) Memory Register 
Ans : (B)

22. pH value of blood is– 
(A) in between 8 and 9 (B) greater than 10 
(C) less than 6 (D) in between 7 and 8
Ans : (D)

23. Great Barrier Reef is situated in 
(A) Australia (B) Nova Scotia 
(C) North Sea (D) Southern China 
Ans : (A)

24. In India, the longest day occurs on– 
(A) April 13 (B) October 13
(C) June 21 (D) March 21 
Ans : (C)

25. Which one of the following is not found in new alluvial soil ? 
(A) Humus (B) Gas 
(C) Minerals (D) Water 
Ans : (A)

26. Palghat Gap connects Tamil Nadu with– 
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka 
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Both (A) and (B) 
Ans : (A)

27. Jodhpur receives less rainfall than Delhi because– 
(A) Arabian Sea runs parallel to Aravali (B) it is on leeward side of the winds 
(C) condensation does not take place there (D) of all above factors 
Ans : (D)

28. Bamboo is a– 
(A) Tree (B) Climber 
(C) Shrub (D) Herb 
Ans : (C)

29. Which vitamins are those which if taken in excess can be dangerous as they are stored in the body ? 
(A) B Complex (B) E and C 
(C) B and C (D) A and D 
Ans : (D)

30. Which one of the following constitutes two best reasons for distinguishing the living from the non-living? 
(A) Respiration and excretion (B) Reproduction and locomotion 
(C) Irritability and locomotion (D) Growth and locomotion 
Ans : (A)

31. The expansion of D.D.T. is– 
(A) Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane (B) Dichloro Diamine Trichloroethane 
(C) Dichloro Diphenyl Tetrachloroethane (D) None of the above 
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following animals is a parasite? 
(A) Amoeba (B) Sponge 
(C) Plasmodium (D) Earthworm 
Ans : (C)

33. Which one of the. following respires by gills ? 
(A) Cray-fish (B) Star-fish 
(C) Silver-fish (D) Jelly-fish 
Ans : (A)

34. The book ‘Friends and Foes’ was written by– 
(A) Rajmohan Gandhi (B) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman 
(C) Lord Tennyson (D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 
Ans : (B)

35. On the lines of ‘Palace on Wheels’, a new train ‘Deccan Odyssey’ is operated between– 
(A) Karnataka and Kerala (B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu 
(C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka (D) Maharashtra and Goa 
Ans : (D)

36. Name the famous paper which Gandhiji edited to propagate his ideas. 
(A) Harijan (B) Satyagrah 
(C) Khadi (D) Swadeshi 
Ans : (A)

37. The aeroplane that dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima was– 
(A) White Storm (B) Thunder Power 
(C) Enola Gay(D) Black Light 
Ans : (C)

38. Which Indian Commercial Bank became the first in providing mobile ATM Service ? 
(A) HDFC Bank (B) SBI 
(C) ICICI Bank (D) IDBI Bank 
Ans : (C)

39. Sivakasi, which recently witnessed major explosions in the cracker manufacturing units, is situated in the State of– 
(A) Kerala (B) Chhattisgarh 
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh 
Ans : (C)

40. Who has brought laurels to the country by winning a Silver Medal in the London Paralympic Games in High Jump? 
(A) Bhimrao Kesarkar (B) Devendra Singh 
(C) Joginder Singh Bedi (D) H. N. Girisha 
Ans : (D)

41. Sunita Williams has set the record for the maximum number of space-walks by a woman astronaut recently. The exact number of the walks is– 
(A) 5 (B) 4 
(C) 7 (D) 6 
Ans : (C)

42. Who among the following Indian economists has recently been appointed as the Chief Economist and Senior Vice President of the World Bank ? 
(A) B. B. Bhattacharya (B) Jagdish Bhagwati 
(C) Raghuram Rajan (D) Kaushik Basu 
Ans : (D)

43. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, the volume of water–
(A) decreases steadily (B) increases steadily 
(C) first increases then decreases (D) first decreases then increases 
Ans : (D)

44. From which of the following endocrine glands is GTH secreted ? 
(A) Adrenal gland (B) Islets of Langerhans in pancreas 
(C) Pituitary gland (D) Thyroid gland 
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following is an acid? 
(A) H₂O (B) Na₂CO₃ 
(C) HZSO₄ (D) NaCl 
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the following is the major component of ecosystem ? 
(A) Biotic (B) Abiotic 
(C) Energy (D) All of the above 
Ans : (D)

47. There has been an increasing incidence of floods in Northern India in recent years because– 
(A) there has been increase in deforestation in the catchment area 
(B) the rate of silting of, dams has gone up 
(C) there has been an increase in annual rainfall 
(D) the ice has been melting faster due to slight increase in atmospheric temperature 
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following is the most dangerous pollutant ? 
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Sulphur dioxide 
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Nitrous oxide 
Ans : (C)

49. Which country loses highest amount of top soil from its crop lands due to erosion ? 
(A) Brazil (B) U.S.A. 
(C) China (D) India 
Ans : (D)

50. Ajanta-Ellora Caves are situated near– 
(A) Ajmer (B) Aurangabad 
(C) Patna (D) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

SSC Karnataka Kerala Region Recruitment of Various Jobs

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Karnataka Kerala Region (KKR), Bangalore, invite application for the following  posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

1. Junior Engineer (Civil) : 01 post in Dte. of Lighthouses & Lightships, Cochin, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4200/- 
2. Investigator : 18 posts In O/o the Development Commissioner (Handicrafts), M/o Textiles, New Delhi, Pay Scale :  Rs. 9300 - 34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/- 
3. Cataloguer : 01 post in Central Institute of Indian Languages, M/o Human Resource Development, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200 - 20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.1900/-
4. Language Typist (Malyalam) : 01 post, in Central Institute of Indian Languages, M/o Human Resource Development., Pay Scale : Rs. 5200 - 20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.1900/-
5. Language Typist (Telugu) : 01 post in Central Institute of Indian Languages,
   M/o Human Resource Development, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200 - 20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.1900/-

Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before17/01/2014 (24/01/2014 for candidates from far-flung areas) to  The Regional Director (KKR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, E Wing,  Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore -  560034. 

For further details and application form, please viewhttp://ssckkr.kar.nic.in/ENGLISH_VERSION_OF_ADVERTISEMENT.pdf and application format is available athttp://ssckkr.kar.nic.in/APPLICATION_FORM%20selection%20posts.pdf

S.S.C. Junior Engineer Exam., 2013 Solved Paper

General knowledge Solved Paper

(Exam Held on 9-6-2013)

1. The characteristic feature of democratic socialism is–
(A) Privatization (B) Liberalization
(C) Nationalization (D) Socialization
Ans : (C)

2. If a group of rich people use power for their selfish goals, it is called as–
(A) Monarchy (B) Oligarchy
(C) Policy (D) Democracy
Ans : (B)

3. Who said that “Man is born free and everywhere he is in chains” ?
(A) Locke (B) Aristotle
(C) Marx (D) Rousseau
Ans : (D)

4. A civil servant in India may exercise political liberty by–
(A) joining any political party (B) contesting in the elections
(C) criticizing the government (D) exercising his franchise
Ans : (D)

5. The term ‘Law’ used in the phrase ‘Rule of Law’ refers to–
(A) Positive law (B) Natural law
(C) Common law (D) Conventions of the Constitution
Ans : (C)

6. The total physical product per unit of a variable input is known as–
(A) Average product (B) Average returns
(C) Average physical product (D) Average revenue
Ans : (C)

7. The discount on price when a large quantity is purchased is known as–
(A) Volume discount (B) Maximum discount
(C) Minimum discount (D) Marginal discount
Ans : (A)

8. Who was the first economist to have coined the terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ ?
(A) Milton Friedman (B) Ragnar Frisch
(C) J. M. Keynes (D) Paul Samuelson
Ans : (B)

9. In a free enterprise economy, the decision on what shall be produced is made by–
(A) Demand (B) Income
(C) Price mechanism (D) Cost
Ans : (C)

10. The main reason for the high growth of money supply in India since 1970 has been the rise in–
(A) Foreign lending
(B) Foreign borrowing
(C) RBI credit to the government
(D) Bank credit to the private sector
Ans : (D)

11. Who was the first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Syed Ahmad Khan (B) Agha Khan
(C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (D) Badruddin Tyabji
Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following was not known to the Rigvedic period ?
(A) Joint family system (B) Agriculture
(C) Marriage system (D) Varna system
Ans : (D)

13. The first Muslim king who invaded South India was–
(A) Balban (B) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(C) Babur (D) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (D)

14. The Great Bath was located in–
(A) Harappa (B) Mohenjodaro
(C) Lothal (D) Kalibangan
Ans : (B)

15. The Mughal judicial system was based on–
(A) Persian law (B) Hebrew law
(C) Islamic law (D) Indian law
Ans : (C)

16. Hurricanes are generally–
(A) active over the land (B) travelling in families
(C) dust storms (D) active over the sea
Ans : (D)

17. Orinoco oil belt is in–
(A) Dubai (B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Venezuela D) Brazil 
Ans : (C)

18. The highest peak in Africa is–
(A) Aconcagua (B) Kilimanjaro
(C) McKinley (D) Mount Elbrus
Ans : (B)

19. A layer of the Earth made up of mixed metals and silicates is called–
(A) Sial (B) Sima
(C) Mantle (D) Nife
Ans : (A)

20. The exhaustion of soil fertility is the result of–
(A) Cover cropping (B) Multiple cropping
(C) Rotation cropping (D) Over cropping
Ans : (D)

21. What type of fruit is pineapple?
(A) Siliqua (B) Sorosis
(C) Syconus (D) Samara
Ans : (C)

22. Strobilus is a structure associated with–
(A) Pea (B) Potato
(C) Pinus (D) Palm
Ans : (C)

23. Signet-ring is seen in the life cycle of–
(A) Mosquito (B) Plasmodium
(C) Entamoeba (D) Giardia
Ans : (B)

24. The number of occipital condyles in man is–
(A) One(B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
Ans : (B)

25. Migratory larvae of Ascaris produce symptoms of pneumonia. This is known as–
(A) Down’s syndrome (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome (D) Loeffler’s syndrome
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following animals is an osmoconformer ?
(A) Hagfish (B) Seal
(C) Whale (D) Rohu
Ans : (A)

27. Which one of the following is the source of Solar energy ?
(A) Nuclear fission
(B) Nuclear fusion
(C) Artificial radioactivity
(D) X-ray emission
Ans : (B)

28. Who, for the first time, successfully determined the charge of an electron ?
(A) Thomspon (B) Millikan
(C) Rutherford (D) Coulomb
Ans : (B)

29. The ‘solder’ used for connecting electronic circuits consists of–
(A) Lead and Tin (B) Tin and Iron
(C) Copper and Lead (D) Lead and Aluminium
Ans : (A)

30. What type of molecular motion is responsible for heat conduction?
(A) Translational (B) Vibrational
(C) Rotational (D) Spin
Ans : (B)

31. Pick the odd one out–
(A) Compiler (B) Interpreter
(C) Assembler (D) Word Processor
Ans : (D)

32. MS-Office is an example of–
(A) an operation system (B) a telecommunication software
(C) a programming language (D) a productivity software
Ans : (C)

33. In India, the day 5th September is celebrated as Teacher’s Day to honour the birthday of–
(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
Ans : (B)

34. Which among the following polluting agents is responsible for creating a hole in the ozone layer?
(A) CO (B) CFC
(C) SO₂ (D) CH₄
Ans : (B)

35. Injection of weakened microbes to confer resistance to a disease is known as–
(A) Transfusion (B) Vaccination
(C) Inoculation (D) Intimation
Ans : (B)

36. Who, among the following, is the author of ‘Das-Kapital’ ?
(A) Rousseau (B) Karl Marx
(C) Chanakya (D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)

37. When and where will the next Olympics be held?
(A) Beijing, 2014 (B) Shanghai,2012
(C) Rie-de-janeiro, 2016 (D) Taiwan, 2013
Ans : (C)

38. A Persian form of singing a poem is called–
(A) Ghazal (B) Qawali
(C) Thumri (D) Bhajan
Ans : (A)

39. Green-house effect causes–
(A) increase of temperature (B) increase of moisture in air
(C) decrease of temperature (D) decrease of moisture in air
Ans : (A)

40. The advantage of rain-water harvesting is that it–
(A) helps in reducing floods
(B) increases the ground water level
(C) causes more rains
(D) reduces floods and replenishes ground water
Ans : (A)

41. Volvo, the car manufacturing company, introduced–
(A) Alarm (B) Fog light
(C) Seat belts (D) Rear view mirrors
Ans : (B)

42. The Dark Continent is–
(A) Asia (B) Australia
(C) Africa (D) Europe
Ans : (C)

43. The major constituent of air is–
(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen
Ans : (A)

44. The souring of milk to curd is an example of–
(A) Saponification (B) Putrefaction
(C) Fermentation (D) Esterfication
Ans : (C)

45. Which one of the following compounds is formed when formaldehyde is treated with Grignard reagent?
(A) Primary alcohol (B) Secondary alcohol
(C) Tertiary alcohol (D) Dihydric alcohol
Ans : (A)

46. Fly ash is–
(A) CO2 (B) Organic particular matter
(C) Small ash particles (D) NOx
Ans : (C)

47. Addition of chlorine to raw water before treatment is known as–
(A) Plain chlorination (B) Post-chlorination
(C) Pre-chlorination (D) Super-chlorination
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following is not a water treatment technique?
(A) Reverse osmosis (B) Ion exchange
(C) Electro-dialysis (D) Electrostatic precipitation
Ans : (D)

49. Which one of the following is a major indoor air pollutant in India?
(A) Ozone (B) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrite (PAN)
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Sulphur dioxide
Ans : (C)

50. Multi Drug Therapy is for the infection of–
(A) Leprosy (B) AIDS
(C) Cholera (D) Hepatitis
Ans : (B)