SSC Constable GD Exam General Knowledge Solved Paper (Exam Held On: 04-10-2015)

1. When was the district collector's office?
(A) 1771 (b) 1773 (c) 1772 (d) 1786 (Ans: c)

2. What equipment is the cash reserve ratio?
(A) monetary policy (b) Rajko Siy Policy (c) tax policy, (d) Agricultural Policy (Ans: a)

3. To celebrate the birth anniversary of Mother Teresa stamp on them which of the following is published by the country?
(A) United States (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) UK (Ans: a)

4. Who was the author of Telugu Mlveda undischarged work?
(A) Devaraya (b) Bukka (c) Krishnadevaraya (d) Harihar (Ans: c)

5. Which of the following is the amount Avim?
(A) gas composition (b) Syanta coefficient (c) discernment (d) Panel composition (Ans: b)

6. Dadabhai Naoroji his "money drain" theory which is described in the book?
(A) Nature of British Colonial Rule (b) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
(C) British rule and its Knsikvesj (d) Nature of Aksploytetiv Writis Rune India (Ans: d)

7. Internet technology used term 'URL' What do you mean?
(A) Unique Resource Locator (b) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) unique Remote Locator (d) the uniform Remote Locator (Ans: b)

8. Failed to remove carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate acid (acid) What happens?
(A) formic acid (b) organic acid (c) Acetic acid (d) of sulfuric acid (Ans: c)

9. sulfur in the atmosphere - and what can be erased oxide rain?
(A) industrial boom construction (b) Collection of fossil fuel depletion
(C) Eutrophication in lakes (d) the pH of soil Nimnstrikrn (Ans: d)

10. What harsh policy adopted by the Sultan of Delhi?
(A) Iltutmish (b) Balban (c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Giasuddin Tughlaq (Ans: b)

11. Arthshatr is classed as man-made production equipment.
(A) capital (b) Organization (c) labor (d) equipment (Ans: c)

12. colonial India for Indian widows 'Sharada House' school founded by?
(A) Mahadev Govind Ranade (b) Dayanand Saraswati (c) PanditaRamabai (d) Sarojini Naidu (Ans: c)

13. When the water freezes, its density .....
(A) increases. (B) becomes zero. (C) is reduced. (D) rule remains. (Ans: c)

14. Who was the first President of Independent India?
(A) Patel (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan (d) j. L. Nehru (Ans: b)

15. Democracy, "in which each share of government is" not what it was?
(A) Pluto (b) Abraham Lincoln (c) Jiyovns (d) Sealy (Ans: b)

16. Which of the following auto cherished?
(A) grasshopper (b) butterfly (c) algae (d) mushrooms (Ans: c)

17. B.C.G. Vaccine 'C' What is the word?
(A) Cadmium (b) Kalmet (c) chlorine (d) Cuff (Ans: b)

18. The presence of environmental pollutants generally are expressed in ppm. The full extent of PPM What is-
(A) on Partikals Acquire (b) on purity microgram
(C) on parts million (d) Prevent Palyutent Majrs (Ans: c)

What is the chemical composition of water 19. Guru?
(A) H2O (b) H2O2 (c) D2O (d) HDO (Ans: c)

20. Agricultural development for Indian Awdygik how do you get?
(A) market opening for industrial products (b) the supply of raw materials and
(C) all of the options (d) workers by providing food and clothing (Ans: b)

21. What is the smallest ocean?
(A) the Arctic (b) the Pacific (c) Atlantic (d) Indian (Ans: a)

22. Sher Shah's greatness lies Which?
(A) Administrative Reforms (b) General be provided (c) win at Humayun (d) the secular attitude (Ans: a)

23. Where is the headquarters of the WTO?
(A) London, UK (b), New Delhi (c) Geneva, Switzerland (d) Washington USA (Ans: c)

24. Name the first Indian in the Olympic Games Anbalik that steroid use was the Pratinbdit?
(A) Ashwin Ankuji (b) statue Kumari (c) T. Smancha Chanu (d) Sumita Laha (Ans: c)

25. The United Nations Headquarters is located where?
(A) Wanshigtn (b) Rome (c) Geneva (d) New York (Ans: d)

SSC Constable GD Exam General English Solved Paper (Exam Held On: 04-10-2015)

Directions : (1 to 3) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/ sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer Sheet

1. Put side by side– (a) Propose (b) Depose (c) Juxtapose (d) Impose (Ans : c)

2. Chife or Commander of army– (a) General (b) Major (c) Colonel (d) Lieutenant (Ans : a)

3. One who can not be corrected– (a) Indefatigable (b) Ineligible (c) Indilent (d) Incorrigible (Ans : d)

Directions : (4 to 6) Out of the four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 
4. honour (a) respect (b) determination (c) courage (d) discipline (Ans : a)

5. rectify (a) regularise (b) cirrect (c) condone (d) clarify (Ans : b)

6. felicitated (a) admired (b) adored (c) congratulated (d) encouraged (Ans : c)

Directions : (7 to 9) A part of the sentence is underlined. Blow are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose “No improvement”

7. Where are you coming from ? (a) do you come from (b) No improvement (c) were you from (d) you are coming from (Ans : b)

8. Years ago, I met a man which was President and Chairman of board of a company. (a) Whose (b) Who (c) Whome (d) No improvement (Ans : b)

9. Covering thirty kilometers in thirty minutes are not a great distance using a brand new car. (a) No improvement (b) aren’t a great distance (c) is not a great distance (d) is no distance (Ans : c)

Directions : (10 to 12) Four Alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence Choose the alternatives which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase and mark in the best Answer Sheet. 

10. I have taken fancy to thise car (a) improved (b) given imaginative (c) developed liking for (d) revised (Ans : c)

11. carry out(a) to take in (b) bring (c) complete something (d) continue (Ans : c)

12. He best about the bush (a) does not talk specifically (b) talks continuously (c) speak well (d) talks sensibly (Ans : a)

Directions : (11 to 16)  Sentence given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (S). Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackeing the appropriate circle in the Answer Sheet 

13. The publisher is bringing ….. a revised edition of this book. (a) up (b) about (c) out (d) round (Ans : c)

14. Your ….. nature will aid you in attaining success in every venture you undertake. (a) catalytic (b) lackadaisial (c) rotund (d) persevering (Ans : d)

15. She had to ….. illness in order to avoid going to the party meeting. (a) feint (b) faint (c) feign (d) fain (Ans : c)

16. This is our house and that is …..(a) their (b) them (c) theirs (d) their’s (Ans : d)

Directions : (17 to 19) Choose the word opposite in meaning to given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 
17. harmonious (a) Discordant (b) Balanced (c) Sonorous (d) Concordant (Ans : a)

18. superficial (a) Natural (b) Artificial (c) Genuine (d) Amicable (Ans : a)

19. fragile (a) disard (b) strong (c) weak (d) brittle (Ans : b)

Directions : (20 to 22)  Four word are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. 

20. (a) juviinnile (b) juvenille (c) juvinile (d) juvenile (Ans : d)

21. (a) knowledgable (b) knoledgeable (c) knowledgeble (d) knowledgeable (Ans : d)

22. (a) detariorate (b) deteriorrate (c) deterriorate (d) deteriorate (Ans : d)

Directions : (23 to 25) Some part of the sentences have error and some are correct Find out which part of a sentence is free from error blacken the circle corresponding to “No Error” option in Answer Sheet. 
23. The kitchen need painting badly and I must get it done. (a) need painting badly (b) and I must get it done 
(c) The kitchen (d) No error (Ans : a)

24. If I will play my best I can win any day against anybody. (a) If I will play my best (b) No error (c) against any body (d) I can win any day (Ans : b)

25. He finds Fault at everything I do. (a) he fide (b) I do (c) No error (d) at everything (Ans : d) 

SSC Stenographer Question Paper 2014 Solved Paper (Exam Held On: 14-09-2014)

English Language and Comprehension 
Directions (1-10) : In these questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error corresponding to the appropriate letter (a), (b), (c). If a sentence is free from error to corresponding (d) in the Answer Sheet. 
1. I am/(a) fond off/(b) sweets. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : b)

2. Most of the patients/(a) who were diagnosed before 1996/(b) as having AIDS has already died. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : c)

3. Except for your help/(a) I would have failed/(b) to complete this project. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : a)

4. The clerks/(a) in this office/(b) work, hardly. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : c)

5. Mrs. Rao and her family/(a) left/(b) this place a month ago. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : d)

6. The advertisement/(a) attracted all the/(b) passer-bys. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : c)

7. If the bus hadn't/(a) broken down /(b) we will be at home now. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : c)

8. According to my opinion/(a) she is the best/(b) candidate for job. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : c)

9. By and large/(a) people are judged by/(b) how much they earn. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : d)

10. He is working/(a) on his project/(b) when his computer crashed. /(c) No error(d) (Ans : a)

Directions (11-15) : In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. 
11. Throughout the years, Rita has………. a style of her own. 
(a) evolved (b) dissolve (c) devolve (d) resolve (Ans : a)

12. His act was not………. by anyone. 
(a) approval (b) approving (c) approve (d) approved (Ans : d)

13. Smoking in public has been………. by law. 
(a) prohibited (b) prevented (c) disallowed (d) forbidden (Ans : a)

14. Do not be………. of other's progress. 
(a) proud (b) possess (c) fascinate (d) jealous (Ans : d)

15. You will have to account for all the………. incurred during your tenure. 
(a) losses (b) lose (c) looses (d) lost (Ans : a)

Directions (16-20) : In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the answer-sheet. 
16. SEGREGATE 
(a) Disconnect (b) Seclude (c) Disunite (d) Separate (Ans : d)

17. SEDENTARY 
(a) Inactive (b) Unmoving (c) Fixed (d) Still (Ans : a)

18. TRANSIENT 
(a) Ephemeral (b) Unstable (c) Irregular (d) Temporary (Ans : a)

19. BAFFLE 
(a) Confuse (b) Deceive (c) Sorry (d) Reveal (Ans : a)

20. BANISH 
(a) Force (b) Trick (c) Expel (d) Polish (Ans : c)

Directions (21-25) : In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 
21. PREDOMINANT 
(a) Ordinary (b) Insignificant (c) Superior (d) Extreme (Ans : b)

22. DISTINCTIVE 
(a) Similar (b) Unique (c) Recognizable (d) Vague (Ans : d)

23. DESECRATED 
(a) Respect (b) Impious (c) Defile (d) Pollute (Ans : a)

24. FIT 
(a) Delicate (b) Undesirable (c) Unhealthy (d) Harmful (Ans : c)

25. REJOICE 
(a) Deceive (b) Lament (c) Dislike (d) Refuse (Ans : b)

Directions (26-30) : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase which is bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 
26. To smell a rat. 
(a) Smell of a rat (b) To hope even when there is no reason for it 
(c) To discover a new trend (d) To suspect something wrong (Ans : d)

27. He charged into the class. 
(a) took charge of the class (b) charged the class 
(c) came slowly (d) came rushing in (Ans : d)

28. If you want to join army, you need to be as fit as a fiddle. 
(a) skillful (b) healthy (c) brave (d) lean (Ans : b)

29. John gets the right answer before anyone else. He's really quick on the trigger. 
(a) good at handling guns (b) a fast runner 
(c) quick to respond (d) making mistakes (Ans : c)

30. The two brothers are at daggers drawn. 
(a) indifferent to each other (b) deal in daggers 
(c) on good terms (d) hostile to each other (Ans : d)

Directions (31-35) : In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer Sheet. 
31. 1. The minister advanced towards the podium. 
P. Two armed youths had entered the hall through a side door. 
Q. People began running for cover. 
R. Suddenly, a loud cry was heard. 
S. They began firing randomly at the crowd. 
6. One of the guards who had been shot at, slumped to the ground. 
(a) R P S Q (b) S R P Q 
(c) Q S P R (d) P R Q S (Ans : a)

32. 1. Lying in bed would be 
P. an altogether perfect 
Q. if only one had a co loured pencil 
R. and supreme experience 
S. long enough 
6. to draw on the ceiling 
(a) P R S Q (b) P R Q S 
(c) S P R Q (d) S P Q R (Ans : b)

33. 1. People 
P. do not think 
Q. who live in cities and towns 
R. any connection 
S. that they have 
6. with the forest 
(a) P S R Q (b) Q P R S 
(c) Q P S R (d) P Q S R (Ans : c)

34. 1. India is a land of villages. 
P. The poor are extremely poor, living in wretched conditions. 
Q. In fact, about three-fourth of our people live in rural areas. 
R. Unfortunately, the state of things there is as bad as possible. 
S. So there can be no improvement of the country unless the villages are improved first. 
6. So they drag on a miserable existence, more dead than alive. 
(a) S P Q R (b) R S P Q 
(c) P R S Q (d) Q S P R (Ans : d)

35. 1. 'Flash mob' is originally a disparaging term for especially incorrigible Australian female convicts. 
P. For years these were mostly sweet, goofy events 
Q. A New York journalist came up with a cross between performing art and satire 
R. This phrase got another, unrelated life in 2003 
S. In which 100 or more people would suddenly converge in a public place 
6. The "mobs" would briefly sing on dance, then disperse 
(a) Q R S P (b) P R Q S 
(c) R Q S P (d) P Q R S (Ans : c)

Directions (36-45) : In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four which one expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the answer-sheet. 
36. It is time to close down the business. 
(a) It is time for closing the business down. 
(b) It is time to be closed down the business. 
(c) It is time that the business closes down. 
(d) It is time for the business to be closed down. (Ans : d)

37. Several trees were uprooted by the tornado. 
(a) The tornado had uprooted several trees. 
(b) The tornado will uproot several trees. 
(c) The tornado uprooted several trees. 
(d) The tornado uproots several trees. (Ans : c)

38. Our army had been defeated. 
(a) The enemy have been defeated by our army. 
(b) The enemy have defeated our army. 
(c) The enemy has been defeated by our army. 
(d) The enemy has defeated our army. (Ans : d)

39. The girl was singing a song. 
(a) A song was sung by the girl. 
(b) A song was being sung by the girl. 
(c) A song had been sung by the girl. 
(d) A song has been sung by the girl. (Ans : b)

40. Why were you punished by him? 
(a) Why have you been punished you? 
(b) What is the cause he punished you? 
(c) Why did he punish you? 
(d) For what purpose did he punish you? (Ans : c)

41. We are living a hard life. 
(a) A hard life is being lived by us. 
(b) The hard life was lived by us. 
(c) We are lived by a hard life. 
(d) A hard life was being lived by us. (Ans : a)

42. The family chose a kitten as a pet. 
(a) A kitten is chosen to have as a pet by the family. 
(b) A kitten was chosen by the family as a pet. 
(c) A kitten was chosen by the family to have as a pet. 
(d) A kitten will be chosen as a pet by the family. (Ans : b)

43 Maharashtrians speak Marathi. 
(a) Marathi is spoken by Maharashtrians. 
(b) Marathi was spoken by Maharashtrians. 
(c) Marathi has been spoken by Maharashtrians. 
(d) Marathi have been spoken by Maharashtrians. (Ans : a)

44. A new hospital has been built near the airport. 
(a) They are building- a new hospital near the airport. 
(b) They built a new hospital near the airport. 
(c) They build a new hospital near the airport. 
(d) They have built a new hospital near the airport. (Ans : d)

45. Boys play football. 
(a) Football played by boys. 
(b) Football was played by boys. 
(c) Football is being played by boys. 
(d) Football is played by boys. (Ans : d)

Directions (46-55) : In these questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case 'No improvement' is needed. your answer is (d). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. 
46. He had rashes on his skin, so he went to the dermatologist. 
(a) to the specialist (b) to the opthalmologist 
(c) to the paediatrics (d) No improvement (Ans : d)

47. Despite being tried her best to persuade her husband to give up smoking, she could not attain success. 
(a) Despite trying her best (b) Despite of her best 
(c) Inspite of being tried her best (d) No improvement (Ans : a)

48. The prince has been slayed his rival. 
(a) has slew (b) will slew (c) has slain (d) No improvement (Ans : c)

49. He has infested a good deal of money in bank stock. 
(a) invested (b) fested (c) debted (d) No improvement (Ans : a)

50. Such discrepancies can be founded in the work culture of other countries. 
(a) could have been founded (b) can be found 
(c) could be founded (d) No improvement (Ans : b)

51. The powerful desire brought downfall to many rulers. 
(a) intense desire (b) desire for power 
(c) fatal desire (d) No improvement (Ans : b)

52. I am not knowing the answer, so I omitted the question. 
(a) had not knowing (b) am not known 
(c) did not know (d) No improvement (Ans : c)

53. India's outlook on the world is composing of these various elements. 
(a) is composed of (b) is composed by 
(c) is composing with (d) No improvement (Ans : a)

54. Jack Nolan, whose novel the films are based, will appear in the second part. 
(a) Jack Nolan, on whose novel the films are based, will appear in the second part. 
(b) Jack Nolan, on whose novel the films are based on, will appear in the second part. 
(c) Jack Nolan, whose novel the films based, will appear In the second part. 
(d) No improvement (Ans : a)

55. There was no point crying over spilled milk. 
(a) hot milk (b) cold milk (c) skimmed milk (d) No improvement (Ans : d)

Directions (56-65) : In these questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect form. Out of the four alternatives suggested. select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct form and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. 
56. She refused to clean her room. 
(a) "I will never be cleaning my room", she said. 
(b) "I will not clean my room today", she exclaimed. 
(c) "I am not going to clean my room", she said. 
(d) "She will not clean her room", she said. (Ans : c)

57. Father said to Anil, "Avoid bad company". 
(a) Father advised Anil to avoid bad company. 
(b) Father advised Anil that it is bad company which had to be avoided. 
(c) Father asked Anil that bad company should be avoided. 
(d) Father suggested to Anil if he could avoid bad company. (Ans : a)

58. Frank said, "Will you have lunch with Mark" ? 
(a) Frank said whether I have taken lunch with Mark. 
(b) Frank said I could have had lunch with Mark. 
(c) Frank asked me if I would have lunch with Mark. 
(d) Frank asked if I shall lunch with Mark. (Ans : c)

59. She told me, "Please send my bills". 
(a) She requested me that send her bills. 
(b) She requested to send my bills. 
(c) She requested me, please send her bills. 
(d) She requested me to send her bills. (Ans : d)

60. He said to me, "Will you mind lending me your book today?" 
(a) He asked me whether I would mind lending him my book that day. 
(b) He said me whether I would mind to lend me his book yesterday. 
(c) He told me whether he would mind to lend him his book that day. 
(d) He asked me whether I will mind to lend him my book today. (Ans : a)

61. Ashok said, "Subhash had already gone to the bank". 
(a) Ashok said that Subhash has already went to the bank. 
(b) Ashok said that Subhash had already gone to the bank. 
(c) Ashok said that Subhash went already to the bank. 
(d) Ashok said that Subhash had been going already to the bank. (Ans : b)

62. "Are these books for sale" ? said the children to the bookseller. 
(a) The children asked the bookseller whether those books were for sale. 
(b) The children asked to the bookseller whether those books were for sale. 
(c) The children asked to the bookseller if those books are for sale. 
(d) The children asked the books sellers if these books were for sale. (Ans : a)

63. She said to her daughter, "Let us go out for a walk". 
(a) She said to her daughter that they go out for a walk. 
(b) She suggested to her daughter that they go out for a walk. 
(c) She proposed to her daughter that they should go out for a walk. 
(d) She said to her daughter let us go out for a walk. (Ans : b)

64. "Will you carry my briefcase for me please, James" ? said Richard. 
(a) Richard proposed to James to carry your briefcase. 
(b) Richard requested James to carry his briefcase. 
(c) Richard ordered James to carry my briefcase. 
(d) Richard told James please carry his briefcase. (Ans : b)

65. I said "Go home". 
(a) I told her to went home. (b) I said her to go home. 
(c) I told her to go home. (d) I told to her to go home. (Ans : c)

Directions (66-75) : In these questions in the following two passages- some of the words have been left out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks. 
PASSAGE-I One day at school, Newton was …(56)… by a …(57)… boy who was higher up in class than he was himself. The kicking …(58)… Newton very …(59)…, and he turned on the big boy and gave him a good …(70)… He also decided to beat him at …(71)… and this made him start to work …(72)… After that he …(73)… at his studies, and so …(74)… the big boy who kicked Newton did a …(75)… to the world. 

76. (a) kicked (b) stolen (c) played (d) laughed (Ans : a)

77. (a) friendly (b) slow (c) bigger (d) higher (Ans : c)

78. (a) happened (b) made (c) caused (d) felt (Ans : b)

79. (a) pleased (b) hungry (c) happy (d) sad (Ans : d)

80. (a) pat (b) smile (c) handshake (d) beating (Ans : d)

81. (a) needle work (b) lessons (c) cooking (d) sitting (Ans : b)

82. (a) badly (b) quick (c) harder (d) slowly (Ans : c)

83. (a) fell (b) climbed (c) failed (d) improved (Ans : d)

84. (a) sometimes (b) perhaps (c) until (d) could (Ans : b)

85. (a) job (b) good (c) service  (d) repair (Ans : c)

PASSAGE -II People tend to …(86)… possessions, sometimes without being aware of doing so. Indeed they get a …(87)… surprise when they find something useful. Those who never have to change house become …(88)… collectors of clutter. They leave …(89)… objects in drawers, cupboards and attics for years. They …(90)… believe that they may need. those very things one day. But, collecting as a …(91)… hobby is quite different as well as advantageous. It …(92)… relaxation for leisure hours. One does not need to go out …(93)… search of entertainment. Moreover, one gets to meet …(94)… collectors. So, ones …(95)… of friends grows. 

96. (a) mass (b) lose (c) discard (d) amass (Ans : d)

97. (a) pleasant (b) stunning (c) frustrating (d) disgusting (Ans : a)

98. (a) indiscriminate (b) useless (c) happy (d) organised (Ans : a)

99. (a) undeserving (b) unwanted (c) useful (d) unholy (Ans : b)

10. (a) silently (b) vaguely (c) earnestly (d) quietly (Ans : c)

101. (a) frivolous (b) solemn (c) grave (d) serious (Ans : d)

102. (a) provides (b) promotes (c) helps (d) gives (Ans : a)

103. (a) on (b) in (c) for (d) to (Ans : b)

104. (a) big (b) nice (c) numerous (d) various (Ans : c)

105. (a) influence (b) circle (c) quantity (d) area (Ans : b)

Directions (106-120) : In these questions, you have three brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 
PASSAGE-I Jagu was the proprietor of a restaurant, and had plenty of customers, yet his house was in a slum, one of those colonies of shacks made out of rags and flattened tin cans that are called zopadpattis in Bombay. There were not enough houses or flats, the rents of even the smallest flats were too high for people like Jagu. These shacks clung to the side of a hill by the sea, to which Mr. Panwallah had taken Hari to see the advancing monsoon. On the boulevard side of the hill, the houses had been large and tall with names like 'Sunshine' and 'Seagull' in which rich people lived. 

106. Why did Jagu live in a slum ? 
(a) he was a miser (b) he was poor 
(c) the rent of flats were very high (d) he liked living among the poor Ans : (c)

107. Where did Hari go along with Mr. Panwallah? 
(a) to watch the advancing of the monsoon (b) to watch the places where rich people lived 
(c) to watch the wide boulevard (d) to watch the huge buildings (Ans : a)

108. What do Sunshine and Seagull signify ? 
(a) names of roads (b) names of houses 
(c) names of rich peoples (d) names of locality (Ans : b)

109. Who was Jagu ? 
(a) the customer of a restaurant (b) the cook of a restaurant 
(c) the waiter of a restaurant (d) the owner of a restaurant (Ans : d)

110. What are zopadpattis ? 
(a) sea side (b) colonies of shacks of rags and tin cans 
(c) houses and flats (d) slum areas (Ans : b)

PASSAGE - II No matter how hard we try, how carefully we word what we say or write, things get misunderstood. Our motives may be the best, but motives, can't be seen or touched. Only the word is there to be taken and, sometimes, misinterpreted. And if there's one thing we humans are good at, it's misunderstanding. There's a deep insecurity in each of us that makes us so sensitive to attack that we see danger where it doesn't exist. Then, in response to the mirage, we defend ourselves, attack without reason, saddle someone with motives he'd never thought of and hurt him unjustly. 

111. 'Mirage' means: 
(a) a reflection (b) a deflection 
(c) an optical illusion (d) None of the above (Ans : c)

112. In response to the mirage, we often: 
(a) hurt people unjustly (b) saddle someone with unrealistic motives 
(c) attack without reason (d) All of the above (Ans : d)

113. The author thinks that human beings are very good at: 
(a) trying to help one another (b) misunderstanding one another 
(c) talking with each other (d) writing to each other (Ans : b)

114. Motives may be the best but they cannot: 
(a) be understood. (b) be seen or touched 
(c) be Rut to a test (d) All of the above (Ans : b)

115. The author thinks that the harder we try: 
(a) we see danger that does not really exist (b) things get misunderstood 
(c) we become more insecure (d) we misinterpret things (Ans : b)

PASSAGE-IIIThere were of course utilitarian goods at the fair, but even as such they were not goods of work-a-day-use. If there were clothes they were mostly of silk. If there were caps, they were of embroidered velvet or fine muslin. There were chairs, tables and cupboards. The fair was the purveyor of luxuries for us, luxuries of two kinds-first, to which I have said, were luxurious by virtue of being superfluous to the living of the daily life, and, next things which were luxuries only because they were unobtainable throughout the rest of the year. We literally craved for both, and fortunately got them cheap at the fair. We made no distinction, till the nationalist movement came, between the goods made in the factories of Great Britain and those made by our handicraftsmen. We still judge goods neither by their provenance nor their method of production, but their usefulness to us-the buyers. We paid equal attention to hand made and machine made goods but personally speaking, I rather neglected one row of handicrafts which I would like to see again. It was the row of our native cabinet makers who made the chests of which I have spoken in the rich golden timber of the jack fruit tree. 

116. The word 'Provenance' means: 
(a) target market areas (b) proof of quality 
(c) place of manufacture (d) place of origin (Ans : d)

117. The author regrets neglecting………. . 
(a) the golden timber of the jackfruit tree (b) goods made in British factories 
(c) hand made goods (d) chests made by native artisans (Ans : d)

118. As the national movement began, people started distinguishing between………. .
(a) goods made in British factories and domestic craftsmen (b) obtainable items and rare items 
(c) utilitarian and luxury items (d) hand made and machine made goods (Ans : a)

119. The buyer judged things by………. .
(a) their usefulness to the buyer (b) their cost 
(c) their place of origin (d) their method of production (Ans : a)

120. The types of goods available at the fair were………. . 
(a) only utilitarian goods (b) utilitarian and luxury items 
(c) goods of work-a-day-use (d) obtainable throughout the year (Ans : b) 

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam 2014 General Awareness Solved Paper

1. The word ‘Oikonomia’ means– 
(A) Political Management (B) Fiscal Management 
(C) Household Management (D) Individual Management 
(Ans : C)

2. The word ‘Economics’ is taken from which language ? 
(A) German (B) English (C) French (D) Greek 
(Ans : D)

3. The famous economist Thomas Robert Malthus, in his views regarding population, is– 
(A) optimistic (B) pessimistic 
(C) partly optimistic and partly pessimistic (D) None of the above 
(Ans : A)

4. Non-insurable or uncertainty risk is– 
(A) flood (B) change in the price of that commodity 
(C) change in fashion (D) fire 
(Ans : A)

5. ‘Gold Bullion Standard’ refers to 
(A) free coinage of gold (B) no restriction on import and export of gold 
(C) gold coin as an unlimited legal tender (D) gold as the measure of value 
(Ans : C)

6. Laws made by the executive are called– 
(A) Rule of Law (B) Administrative Law 
(C) Delegated Legislation (D) Preferred Legislation 
(Ans : C)

7. Who regarded the second chamber as needless, useless and worse? 
(A) Bentham (B) Seeley (C) Laski (D) MacIver 
(Ans : C)

8. The tenure of the Swiss President is– 
(A) 4 years (B) 1 year (C) 3 years (D) 2 years 
(Ans : B)

9. Which of the following is a merit of the Presidential form of Government ? 
(A) The fixed tenure of the executive gives it a great sense of stability 
(B) It safeguards the liberty of the people 
(C) It ensures speedy execution of policies (D) All of these 
(Ans : B)

10. The two chambers of the Swiss Federal Assembly are called– 
(A) National Council and Council of States (B) Senate and House of Representatives 
(C) House of Lords and House of Commons (D) None of the above 
(Ans : A)

11. Name the Italian traveller who visited the Vijayanagar Empite in 1420 A. D.– 
(A) Nicolo de Conti (B) Abdur Razzaq (C) Domingos Paes (D) Edoardo Barbosa 
(Ans : A)

12. Which one of the following dynasties established an independent rule in Bijapur ? 
(A) Qutb Shahi (B) Adil Shahi (C) Imad Shahi (D) Nizam Shahi 
(Ans : B)

13. Who among the following enjoyed the patronage of Sultans from Balban to Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq ? 
(A) Zia-ud-din Barani (B) Amit Khusrau (C) Ibn Batutah (D) Badauni 
(Ans : B)

14. The Sufi movement originally started from– 
(A) Lahore (B) Kabul (C) Persia (D) Delhi 
(Ans : C)

15. Humayun was driven out of Hindustan in 1540 A. D. after the battle of– 
(A) Surajgarh (B) Kannauj (C) Chausa (D) Dourah 
(Ans : B)

16. Poly metallic nodules (also called manganese nodules) are found in concentrations– 
(A) on lake beds (B) in beach sands (C) on continental shelves (D) in deep ocean beds 
(Ans : D)

17. Spot the odd item in the following– 
(A) Bolson (B) Ox-bow lake (C) Meander (D) Delta 
(Ans : D)

18. Kandla port is located at– 
(A) Gulf of Khambat (B) Gulf of Kutch (C) Kori Creek (D) None of the above 
(Ans : B)

19. Which of the following forests grows in waterlogged areas ? 
(A) Deciduous (B) Coniferous (C) Mangrove (D) Evergreen 
(Ans : C)

20. Nag Tiba and Mahabharat ranges are included in– 
(A) Greater Himalayas (B) Lesser Himalayas (C) Sub-Himalayas (D) Trans-Himalayas 
(Ans : B)

21. Pink mould is the common name for– 
(A) Neurospora (B) Mucor (C) Aspergillus (D) Rhizopus 
(Ans : *)

22. The sleeping sickness is caused by– 
(A) Entamoeba (B) Trypanosoma (C) Escherichia (D) Neisseria 
(Ans : B)

23. Haemolymph is observed in– 
(A) Ascaris (B) Annelids (C) Arthropods (D) Echinoderms 
(Ans : C)

24. The virus without capsid but only with nucleic acids is called– 
(A) Prion (B) Virion (C) Capsomere (D) Nucleoid 
(Ans : D)

25. The immunity caused by the B-lymphocytes is called– 
(A) Cellular immunity (B) Humoral immunity (C) Sterile immunity (D) Acquired immunity 
(Ans : D)

26. Fungi that grow on bark are said to be– 
(A) Coprophilous (B) Corticolous (C) Xylophilous (D) Saxicolous 
(Ans : B)

27. To an astronaut in space the sky will appear to be– 
(A) Blue (B) Black (C) Violet (D) Red 
(Ans : B)

28. On a rainy day, small oily films on water show brilliant colours. This is due to– 
(A) Refraction (B) Polarisation (C) Scattering (D) Dispersion 
(Ans : None) : The Colours are produced due to the phenomenon of interference 

29. Natural Radioactivity was discovered by– 
(A) Henri Bacquerel (B) Enrico Fermi (C) Rutherford (D) Marie Curie 
(Ans : A)

30. Rainbow formation is due to– 
(A) Ionisation of water droplets (B) Refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets 
(C) Absorption of sunlight by water droplets (D) Diffusion of sunlight through water droplets 
(Ans : B)

31. CAD stands for– 
(A) Computer Automatic Decode (B) Computer Aided Design 
(C) Computer Automatic Design (D) Computer Aided Decode 
(Ans : B)

32. Unix Operating System is generally known as– 
(A) Single User Operating System (B) Single User Application Program 
(C) Multi User Operating System (D) General Application 
(Ans : C)

33. Combustion is a– 
(A) Physical process (B) Chemical process 
(C) Physical and chemical process (D) Biological process 
(Ans : B)

34. Which of the following is not a form of carbon ? 
(A) Graphite (B) Charcoal (C) Soot (D) Hematite 
(Ans : D)

35. What is Dry Ice ? 
(A) Ice cubes and saw dust (B) Ice cubes and salt 
(C) Solid carbon dioxide (D) Liquid nitrogen 
(Ans : C)

36. The gas commonly used in advertisement sign-boards and decorative lights is– 
(A) Hydrogen (B) Neon (C) Nitrogen (D) Chlorine 
(Ans : B)

37. Flow of blood in dorsal blood vessel of Earthworm is– 
(A) Backward (B) Forward (C) Sideward (D) Downward 
(Ans : B)

38. Which of the following is biodegradable ? 
(A) Iron nails (B) Plastic mugs (C) Leather belts (D) Silver foil 
(Ans : C)

39. Hyperplasia means– 
(A) Excessive motility of muscle (B) Voracious eating 
(C) Abnormal increase in number of cells (D) An increase in size of a cell 
(Ans : C)

40. The part of root involved in water absorption is– 
(A) zone of cell division (B) zone of root hairs 
(C) zone of elongation (D) zone of root cap 
(Ans : B)

41. Who is the Prime Minister of Australia ? 
(A) Tony Abbott (B) Julia Gillard (C) Kevin Rudd (D) None of these 
(Ans : A) 

42. Which is the parent country of Mobile giant "Nokia" ? 
(A) Spain (B) Germany (C) Finland (D) Sweden 
(Ans : C)

43. Where was the joint G20 Finance and Labour Ministers Meeting held on 19 July, 2013 ? 
(A) Moscow (B) London (C) New York (D) Paris 
(Ans : A)

44. Who holds the world record as the youngest person to climb Mount Everest ? 
(A) Bachendri Pal (B) Dicky Dolma (C) Santosh Yadav (D) Phu Dorjee 
(Ans : *) Malavath Poorna 

45. Who was appointed as the Chairperson of the National School of Drama on 19 August, 2013 ? 
(A) Amal Allana (B) Ratan Thiyam (C) Adly Mansour (D) Sasikumar Venkat 
(Ans : B)

46. To which channel did the International Olympic Committee sell the broadcasting rights for 2014 and 2016 Olympics? 
(A) STAR India (B) Doordarshan (C) Set Max (D) Zee Sports 
(Ans : A)

47. Which is the largest man-made lake ? 
(A) Gobind Sagar (B) Rana Pratap Sagar (C) Baikal (D) Wullar 
(Ans : D)

48. Who took oath as the President of Iran on 4 August, 2013 ? 
(A) Mohammad Bagher Ghalibaf (B) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad 
(C) Hassan Rouhani (D) Mohammad Bashir Ahmad 
(Ans : C)

49. Who was sworn in as the United States Ambassador to the United Nations by Joe Biden on 1 August, 2013 ? 
(A) Zalmay KhaIilzad (B) Susan Rice (C) Rosemary DiCarlo (D) Samantha Power 
(Ans : D)

50. Who won the Rogers Cup Women’s Singles in Lawn Tennis in 2013 ? 
(A) Maria Sharapova (B) Serena Williams (C) Victoria Azarenka (D) Agnieszka Radwanska 
(Ans : B) 

UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam 2012 General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Over 90% of the world’s biomass is in– 
(A) tropical rain forests (B) freshwater wetlands
(C) topsoils (D) oceans (Ans : D)

2. Which one of the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere ? 
(A) Automobile exhaust fume (B) Industrial chimney 
(C) Mining (D) Wetland (Ans : D)

3. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
(A) Trophic dynamics represents the transfer of energy from one trophic level to another in a food chain 
(B) In deeper parts of oceans, primary production remains almost nil 
(C) The primary consumers are called autotrophs 
(D) The decomposers are called saprotrophs (Ans : C)

4. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because– 
(A) its concentration remains always higher than other gases. (B) it is used in photosynthesis. 
(C) it absorbs infrared radiation. (D) it emits visible radiation. (Ans : C)

5. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of origin of– 
(A) birds from reptiles (B) mammals from reptiles 
(C) reptiles from amphibians (D) mammals from birds (Ans : A)

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. 
2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 
3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 (Ans : A)

7. When the productive capacity of the economic system of a State is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called– 
(A) seasonal unemployment. (B) structural unemployment. 
(C) disguised unemployment. (D) cyclical unemployment. (Ans : D)

8. Which one of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations? 
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty (B) Reduce birth rate and death rate 
(C) Improve maternal health (D) Promote gender equality (Ans : B)

9. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by– 
(A) the Reserve Bank of India (B) the Planning Commission 
(C) the Finance Ministry (D) the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Ans : B)

10. Which one of the following is not a clause of World Trade Organisation ? 
(A) Most favoured nation treatment 
(B) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations 
(C) Providing financial support to the countries having deficit balance of payments 
(D) Discouraging unfair trade practices such as anti-dumping and export subsidies (Ans : C)

11. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) relate to– 
(A) the World Bank. (B) the Reserve Bank of India.
(C) the World Trade Organisation. (D) the International Monetary Fund. (Ans : D)

12. Which one of the following is not a landlocked country in Africa ?
(A) Botswana (B) Zambia 
(C) Lesotho (D) Nigeria (Ans : D)

13. The imaginary line on the Earth’s surface that closely follows the 180° Meridian is– 
(A) Prime Meridian (B) Equator 
(C) International Date Line (D) Tropic of Cancer (Ans : C)

14. The country that shares longest border with India is– 
(A) China (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Nepal (D) Pakistan (Ans : B)

15. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91°E and 92° E) at the Poles is–
(A) 0 km (B) 18 km 
(C) 25 km (D) 111 km (Ans : A)

16. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to– 
(A) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(B) high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(C) low gravitational attraction only. 
(D) high escape velocity of air molecule only. (Ans : C)

17. Which one of the following correctly defines a unit magnetic pole in SI units? 
It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of– 
(A) 1 foot from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 pound. 
(B) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 newton. 
(C) 1 cm from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 dyne. 
(D) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force 
of 1 newton/m2. (Ans : C)

18. After rising a short distance, the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an ‘obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships, the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of– 
(A) laminar flow of air. (B) streamline flow of air. 
(C) turbulent flow of air. (D) viscous flow at low speed. (Ans : D)

19. Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency when kept under the same tension. What will happen if tension of one of the wires is slightly increased and both the wires are made to vibrate simultaneously ? 
(A) Noise (B) Beats 
(C) Resonance (D) Non-linear effects (Ans : B)

20. What is the major role of a greenhouse gas that contributes to temperature rise of the Earth’s surface? 
(A) Transparent to both incoming sunlight aria outgoing infrared radiation 
(B) Stops both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared radiation 
(C) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass through but stops incoming sunlight
(D) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation (Ans : D)

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing. 
2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation, its GDP must be decreasing. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

22. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through inflationary pressures? 
1. The direct taxes should be increased. 
2. The interest rate should be reduced. 
3. The public spending should be increased. 
Select the correct answer Using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2 (Ans : A)

23. The basis of European Union began with the signing of– 
(A) Maastricht Treaty (B) Treaty of Paris 
(C) Treaty of Rome (D) Treaty of Lisbon (Ans : A)

24. National income ignores– 
(A) sales of a firm. (B) salary of employees. 
(C) exports of the IT sector. (D) sale of land. (Ans : D)

25. What are G. arboreum, G. herbaceum, G. hirsutum and G. barbadense, whose all the four species are cultivated in India ? (G = Gossypium) 
(A) Species of wool (B) Species of cotton 
(C) Species of silk (D) Species of jute (Ans : B)

26. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called– 
(A) silty soil (B) loamy soil 
(C) sandy soil (D) loess soil (Ans : D)

27. Logically, what does a continually rising air pressure indicate ? 
(A) Advent of unsettled and cloudy weather (B) Advent of a cyclone 
(C) Fine and settled weather (D) Fine and unsettled weather (Ans : C)

28. The TEAM-9 initiative is a techno-economic cooperation venture between India and eight countries of– 
(A) West Africa (B) East Africa 
(C) North Africa (D) Central Africa (Ans : A)

29. Which one of the following is the type of the Comoros Islands which lie in the Indian Ocean between Northern Madagascar and the African Coast ? 
(A) Volcanic (B) Glacial eroded 
(C) Eolian deposited (D) Folded (Ans : A)

30. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
Code: 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

31. If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45° E) ? 
(A) 7:30 AM (B) 9:00 AM 
(C) 1:30 PM (D) 12:00 Noon (Ans : C)

32. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river– 
(A) Saraswati (B) Indus 
(C) Beas (D) Ravi (Ans : D)

33. Which one of the following statements regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak is not correct ? 
(A) He propounded the theory of the Arctic Home of the Aryans 
(B) He founded the Anti-Cow-Killing Society 
(C) He set up the Home Rule League at Poona 
(D) He supported the Age of Consent Bill (Ans : D)

34. Which one of the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society ? 
(A) Belief in Karma and Rebirth (B) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and Humanity 
(C) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy (D) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability (Ans : D)

35. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad 
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book, Unhappy India 
(C) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani of Jhansi 
(D) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi (Ans : A)

36. Who among the following Governors-General formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan ? 
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis 
(C) Lord Wellesley (D) Lord William Bentinck (Ans : B)

37. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help? 
(A) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislatures 
(B) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect
(C) Women in democracies are not subjected to sex discrimination in most aspects of social life 
(D) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity (Ans : D)

38. The Constitution of India is republican because it– 
(A) provides for an elected Parliament. (B) provides for adult franchise. 
(C) contains a bill of rights. (D) has no hereditary elements. (Ans : D)

39. Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A conventional war between both the countries is inevitable under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation, what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange ? 
(A) A first ‘use nuclear policy’ 
(B) A much larger nuclear arsenal than Pakistan 
(C) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability 
(D) An intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of 5000 km (Ans : C)

40. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Yudh Abhyas ? 
(A) It is an Indian military ‘war game’ with regard to Pakistan 
(B) It is an Indian military exercise with Oman 
(C) It is an Indian military exercise with Bhutan 
(D) It is an Indian military exercise with the US (Ans : D)

41. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? 
(A) It is a large military helicopter 
(B) It is a large military transport aircraft 
(C) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun 
(D) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014 (Ans : B)

42. Consider the following statements– 
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. 
2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

43. Which one of the following companies received Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011 ? 
(A) BCCL (B) NTPC 
(C) SAIL (D) TISCO (Ans : C)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Short-listed Book for DSC Prize for South Asian Literature, 2012) 
A. Bharathipura B. A Street in Srinagar 
C. Chinaman D. The Story that must not be told 
List-II (Author) 
1. Kavery Nambisan 2. Shehan Karunatilaka 
3. Chandrakanta 4. U.R. Ananthamurthy 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 3 1 
(B) 1 2 3 4 
(C) 4 3 2 1 
(D) 1 3 2 4 (Ans : C)

45. In which one of the following Latin American countries, a woman has for the first time won the presidential elections for the second term ? 
(A) Brazil (B) Venezuela 
(C) Uruguay (D) Argentina (Ans : D)

46. Which one of the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India ? 
(A) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countiies 
(B) To protect monuments of national importance 
(C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so 
(D) To know more and more about the history of India (Ans : C)

47. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) Due to border problems, India’s trade with China did not register a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010 
(B) The stand-off between India and China on Pakistan and Arunachal Pradesh did not let India’s trade to grow with China in the years 2001-2010 as much as it grew in the years 1991-2001 
(C) While India-China trade has registered a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010, both the countries have ensured parity of trade 
(D) In spite of border problems, India’s trade with China registered a quantum jump during the years 2001-2010 (Ans : D)

48. Which one of the following statements about globalisation is not correct? 
(A) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth 
(B) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity 
(C) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation 
(D) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation (Ans : D)

49. The best colours for a Sun umbrella will be– 
(A) black on top and red on inside. (B) black on top and white on inside. 
(C) red on top and black on inside. (D) white on top and black on inside. (Ans : D)

50. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because– 
(A) barium salts are white in colour and this helps stomach to appear clearly. 
(B) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear dearly. 
(C) barium salts are easily available. 
(D) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach. (Ans : B)

51. The elements of a group in the periodic table– 
(A) have similar chemical properties. (B) have consecutive atomic numbers. 
(C) are isobars. (D) are isotopes. (Ans : A)

52. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bulletproof material ? 
(A) Polyvinyl chloride (B) Polystyrene 
(C) Polyethylene (D) Polyamide (Ans : C)

53. The pH of human blood is normally around– 
(A) 4.5–5.5 (B) 5.5–6.5 
(C) 7.5–8.0 (D) 8.5–9.0 (Ans : C)

54. The pH of fresh groundwater slightly decreases upon exposure to air because– 
(A) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water. 
(B) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water. 
(C) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the groundwater escapes into air. 
(D) the dissolved oxygen of the groundwater escapes into air. (Ans : A)

55. Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men’s singles tide ? 
(A) Novak Djokovic (B) Roger Federer 
(C) Rafael Nadal (D) Andy Roddick (Ans : A)

56. Which among the following countries has recently decided to give a grant of US $1 billion for the reconstruction of the Nalanda University? 
(A) USA (B) China 
(C) UK (D) Japan (Ans : B)

57. Which one Of the following is the fastest Indian Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO ? 
(A) Aakash-A1 (B) Saga-220 
(C) Jaguar-Cray (D) Tianhe-lA (Ans : B)

58. The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years of Nobel Prize winning by Marie Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry—our life, our future. 
2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (Ans : A)

59. In February 2011, which of the following countries has elected Mr. Thein Sein, a military general- turned-civilian leader, as its first President ? 
(A) Malaysia (B) Costa Rica 
(C) Thailand (D) Myanmar (Ans : D)

60. Which one of the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? 
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D 
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C (Ans : C) 

61. Indian Space Research Organisation and the Airport Authority of India have recently signed a memorandum of understanding to install a space-based augmentation system (SBAS) to render the Global Positioning System signal suitable for civil aviation over the Indian airspace. What is the name of the SBAS ? 
(A) GAGAN (B) PAWAN 
(C) AAKASH (D) NABH (Ans : A)

62. World’s first gold and jewellery-encrusted car—Gold Plus, was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of Indian jewellery making. Who among the following was the maker of the car? 
(A) Tata Motors (B) Maruti Suzuki 
(C) Hundai (D) Volkswagen (Ans : A)

63. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with–
(A) Article 39 (d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation laws 
(B) Article 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent 
(C) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article 
(D) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status (Ans : A)

64. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press. 
(B) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31B. 
(C) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. 
(D) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article 19 of the Constitution. 
(Ans : B)

65. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one of the following statements is not correct ? 
(A) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 
(B) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill 
(C) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. 
(D) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants (Ans : C)

66. The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development guided the planning practice in India from the– 
(A) First Five-Year Plan to the Sixth Five-Year Plan. 
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. 
(C) Second Five-Year Plan to the Seventh Five-Year Plan. 
(D) First Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. (Ans : C)

67. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period– 
(A) not exceeding three months (B) not exceeding nine months 
(C) of one year at a time (D) of two years at a time (Ans : C)

68. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Joint Naval Exercise) 
A. Konkan B. Malabar C. Varuna D. Indra 
List-II (Countries) 
1. India-France 2. India-United Kingdom 
3. India-Russia 4. India-United States 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 3 4 1 2 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 2 4 1 3 (Ans : D)

69. If you travel along the Suez Canal from Port Said to Suez, you will come across several lakes. Which of the following lakes is not on this Canal? 
(A) Great Bitter Lake (B) Little Bitter Lake 
(C) Lake Gatun (D) Lake Timsah (Ans : C)

70. Xerophytes represent the class of vegetation found in– 
(A) tropical rain forest. (B) humid micro-thermal climate. 
(C) semi-arid steppes. (D) tundra region. (Ans : C)

71. What is a clud burst ? 
(A) It refers to sudden and copious rainfall over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes 
(B) It refers to 50 mm rain over a period of time 
(C) It is caused by rapid condensation of very high clouds 
(D) It refers to a thunderstorm with little rain (Ans : A)

72. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Tsunami ? 
(A) Tsunamis have a very long wavelength 
b) Tsunamis have a slight swell of about twelve inches above the normal sea surface 
(C) Tsunamis grow in height when they reach shallower water 
(D) Tides also play an important role in the generation of Tsunamis (Ans : D)

73. Which one of the following statements regarding India’s coal is not correct? 
(A) 98 percent of reserves of coal in India belongs to Gondwana period 
(B) Unknown amount of coal lies buried under the Ganga alluvium and the Deccan Trap 
(C) Bituminous coal is found in both lower Gondwana rocks and in Tertiary rocks 
(D) Gondwana coal is mainly found in the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari 
(Ans : C)

74. Consider the following statements– 
1. Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator. 
2. Coriolis effect is more towards the Poles. 
3. Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
4. Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 only (Ans : A)

75. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct ? 
1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. 
2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne. 
3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only (Ans : B)

76. The macro-nutrients provided by inorganic fertilisers are– 
(A) carbon, iron and boron. (B) magnesium, manganese and sulphur. 
(C) magnesium, zinc and iron. (D) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. (Ans : D)

77. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is– 
(A) osmosis (B) transpiration 
(C) photosynthesis (D) diffusion (Ans : B)

78. Vermicompost is a/an– 
(A) inorganic fertiliser (B) toxic substance 
(C) organic biofertiliser (D) synthetic fertiliser (Ans : C)

79. In wildlife conservation, which one of the following best defines an ‘endemic’ species? 
(A) When the critical number of a species declines in a forest due to parasitic attack 
(B) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be commonly found in a biosphere 
(C) An endangered species which is found in a few restricted areas on the Earth 
(D) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else (Ans : D)

80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists–
List-I (Tiger Reserve) 
A. Indravati B. Periyar C. Simlipal D. Bandipur 
List-II (State) 
1. Karnataka 2. Odisha 3. Kerala 4. Chhattisgarh 
Code: 
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1 (Ans : C)

81. Duncan Passage is located between– 
(A) South and Little Andaman. (B) Little and Great Nicobar. 
(C) North and Middle Andaman. (D) Middle and South Andaman. (Ans : A)

82. Consider the following statements– 
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere. 
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the Earth. 
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. 
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 (Ans : B)

83. The main area of production of icebergs is found in– 
(A) the West Coast of Greenland. (B) the East Coast of Japan. 
(C) the North Coast of Siberia. (D) the West Coast of Africa. (Ans : A)

84. Match List-I with List-II (and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists –
List-I (Battle) 
A. The Third Carnatic War B. The Third Mysore War 
C. The First Maratha War D. The First Anglo-Sikh War 
List-II (Treaty) 
1. Treaty of Salbai 2. Treaty of Lahore 
3. Treaty of Paris 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 2 4 1 3 
(C) 3 4 1 2 
(D) 3 1 4 2 (Ans : C)

85. The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of which one of the following Princely States into Indian Union? 
(A) Kashmir (B) Junagadh 
(C) Travancore (D) Hyderabad (Ans : D)

86. The name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with–
(A) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (B) Alipore Conspiracy Case 
(C) Kakori Conspiracy Case (D) Meerut Conspiracy Case (Ans : C)

87. Which one of the following was not a demand of the Prarthana Samaj ? 
(A) Women education (B) Widow remarriage 
(C) Raising the age of marriage for boys and girls (D) Abolition of untouchability (Ans : D)

88. Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct? 
1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants. 
2. The Zamindars were recognised as the proprietors of land. 
3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand. 
4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government. 
Select the correct answer using-the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 only 
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 (Ans : A)

89. Which one of the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? 
(A) Acetylene (B) Ethane 
(C) Methane (D) Carbon dioxide (Ans : B)

90. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are– 
(A) C-12 and C-13 (B) C-13 and C-14 
(C) C-12 and C-14 (D) C-12 and carbon black (Ans : C)

91. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the kingdoms of Harshavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? 
(A) I-tsing (B) Fa-Hien 
(C) Hiuen Tsang (D) Sun Shuyun  (Ans : C)

92. Which one of the following Indus cities was known for water management? 
(A) Lothal (B) Mohenjo-Daro 
(C) Harappa (D) Dholavira (Ans : B)

93. Consider the following statements– 
According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as
1. a contract 2. a sacrament 
3. mutual understanding 4. indissoluble 
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 (Ans : D)

94. Which one of the following States was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse ? 
(A) Nagpur (B) Jhansi 
(C) Sambalpur (D) Satara (Ans : D)

95. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history (starting with the earliest)– 
1. The Doctrine of Lapse 2. The Subsidiary Alliance 
3. The Treaty of Lahore 4. The Pitt’s India Act 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (B) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 
(C) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (D) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 (Ans : A)

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Social Reformer) 
A. Iyothee Thass B. Jyotiba Phule 
C. John Rathinam D. E.V. Ramaswami Naickar 
List-II (Association) 
1. Satyashodhak Samaj 2. Dravida Kazhagam 
3. Self-Respect Movement 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4 (Ans : C)

97. Which one of the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ? 
(A) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the nuclear zone of Jorwe Culture 
(B) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa 
(C) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological evidence of symbolic burial 
(D) Practically all Jorwe settlements in the Northern Deccan were suddenly deserted (Ans : D)

98. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in– 
(A) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script. (B) Prakrit language, Brahmi script. 
(C) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi script. (D) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script. (Ans : A)

99. Who among the following scholars were contemporary of Kanishka ? 
1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna 
3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 and 4 
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (Ans : D)

100. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of– 
(A) amphibians (B) reptiles 
(C) birds (D) corals (Ans : A)

101. The Indian research station Himadri is located at– 
(A) Siachen (B) Darjeeling 
(C) Arctic Region (D) Antarctica (Ans : C)

102. The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one of the following policy-making bodies of the Government of India in scientific research and development ? 
(A) ISRO (B) ICAR 
(C) ICMR (D) CSIR (Ans : C)

103. In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the Moon from ‘crust to core’ through its– 
(A) Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory 
(B) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer Spacecraft 
(C) Ultraviolet Spec troscopic Explorer Spacecraft 
(D) Transition Region and Coronal Explorer Spacecraft (Ans : A)

104. In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered ‘BISIN’, which– 
(A) is a natural preservative and can extend food’s life for several years. (B) can insulate cells of brain. 
(C) claims for fastest prevention of bacterial infection. (D) is a distant galaxy. (Ans : A)

105. In the year 2011, a missile named ‘PRAHAR’, developed by DRDO, was test-fired, This is a– 
(A) short-range surface to air missile. (B) long-range surface to air missile. 
(C) short-range surface to surface missile. (D) long-range surface to surface missile. (Ans : C)

106. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) All proteins are enzymes (B) All enzymes are proteins 
(C) None of the enzymes is protein (D) None of the proteins is enzyme (Ans : B)

107. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) All bases are alkalis (B) None of the bases is alkali 
(C) There are no more bases except the alkalis (D) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis 
(Ans : D)

108. Suppose a terrorist group has laid siege to the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, Kashmir. They have also taken around 80 civilians hostage. Which one of the following will be the best response by the security forces in this situation ? 
(A) Threaten the terrorists using loudspeakers with immediate military action, unless they surrender 
(B) Surround the mosque with visible army deployment and then attack the mosque 
(C) Carry out a joint army-air force raid on the mosque 
(D) Negotiate with the terrorists by utilising a local mediator to buy time and then send in special National Security Guard (NSG) commandos (Ans : D)

109. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct? 
(A) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe (B) The US is an ex-officio member of NATO 
(C) Turkey is a member of NATO (D) NATO has 28 independent member States (Ans : B)

110. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a– 
(A) Federation (B) Confederation 
(C) Unitary form of Government (D) Union of States (Ans : A)

111. The National Commission for Women was created–by 
(A) an amendment in the Constitution of India. (B) a decision of the Union Cabinet. 
(C) an Act passed by the Parliament. (D) an order of the President of India. (Ans : C)

112. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language? 
(A) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (B) A Legislation made by the Parliament 
(C) Article 145 of the Constitution of India (D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India (Ans : D)

113. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the Sun? 
(A) Fusion reaction (B) Fission reaction 
(C) Chemical reaction (D) Diffusion reaction (Ans : A)

114. In SONAR, we use– 
(A) ultrasonic waves. (B) infrasonic waves. 
(C) radio waves. (D) audible sound waves. (Ans : A)

115. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel up to a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel, having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will– 
(A) remain unaffected. (B) be reduced to half the earlier pressure. 
(C) be increased to twice the earlier pressure. (D) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier pressure. 
(Ans : C)

116. The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be– 
(A) more than 2 s (B) 2 s 
(C) 1 s (D) less than 1 s (Ans : B)

117. Which one of the following statements about an atom is not correct? 
(A) Atoms always combine to form molecules 
(B) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed 
(C) A toms are always neutral in nature 
(D) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel and touch (Ans : C)

118. China recently objected to the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. Which one of the following is that country? 
(A) Myanmar (B) South Korea 
(C) Taiwan (D) Vietnam (Ans : D)

119. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
The current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr. Baburam Bhattarai is heading a 
(A) consensus government of all major political parties of Nepal. 
(B) Nepali Congress-Maoist-U’ML coalition government. 
(C) Nepali. Congress-Maoist coalition government. 
(D) Maoist-Madhesi coalition government. (Ans : D)

120. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its– 
(A) agricultural product (B) minerals 
(C) forest product (D) fishery product (Ans : A)