Monday, August 29, 2011
Sunday, August 28, 2011
Vacancies galore @ Staff Selection Commision
- Tourist Information Officer (Graduate)
- Educational Assistant (Bachelors’s degree in Botany and Zoology from recognised University or equivalent/ Degree in Education (Bachelors’s degree in Botany and Zoology. Degree in Education with two years teaching experience in natural sciences)
- Junior Technical Assistant (Graduate)
- Sound Technician (Degree or Diploma in Engineering with Communication
- Engineering as special paper.)
- Investigator (Bachelor Degree with Economics)
- Library and Information Assistant (Graduate)
- Junior Investigator (Graduate with Criminology or Sociology as
- one of the subject.)
- Production Assistant (Diploma of a recognized School in Commercial Art.)
- Technical Assistant in Economics (Graduation with Economics as one of the subjects.)
- Artist (Matriculation)
- Copy Holder (Matriculation)
- Technical Assistant in Wildlife (Degree in Science with Zoology)
- Junior Clerk (Matriculation)
- Investigator (Master’s Degree in Economics or Statistics or Mathematics or
- Geography or Sociology or Social Work or Anthropology from a
- recognized University or equivalent.)
- Junior Technical Assistant (Certificate in Forest Ranger Course from any recognised
- Instt./Graduate in Science/Computer Science.)
- Artist (Degree or Diploma in Fine or Applied Arts)
- Assistant Examiner of Trademark and G.I (Graduation)
- Technical Assistant in Economics (Bachelor’s degree with Economics as one of the subject.)
- Scientific Assistant I (B.Sc. (Agriculture))
- Technical Officer-I (Intermediate with science in Zoology/Botany/Agriculture or 10+2
- class pass with Science (with Zoology/Botany or Agriculture))
- Professional Assistant (Bachelor’s degree in Physics or Geophysics or Geology or
- Meterology or Hyderometerology)
- Botanical Assistant (M.Sc. degree in Botany or 1st class B.Sc. Honors with Botany
- or 2nd class B.Sc. with Botany with 3years experience)
- Technical Assistant in Agriculture (Degree in Agriculture)
- Technician-Group C (B.Sc. in Biology/Microbiology)
- Security Supervisor (Graduate)
- Sanitary Inspector (Matriculation)
- Junior Chemists (Master’s Degree in Chemistry OR Dairy Chemistry OR Oil technology OR Food technology)
- Junior Investigator or Economic Advisor (Bachelor’s degree in Economics)
- Store Keeper (12th Pass)
Click here for eligibility, pay scale, age limit and guidelines to apply.
Selection Process: On the basis of exam and interview.
Website: http://www.sscnr.org
SSC (East Zone) Handicraft Promotion Officers Recruitment
The candidates will be required to work in the Eastern Regional office of the Staff Selection commission is located in Kolkata and has jurisdiction over West Bengal, Orissa, Jharkhand, Sikkim and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Recruitment at: Staff Selection Commission, eastern region
Job Location: Kolkata, West Bengal
Position: Handicraft Promotion Officer: 17 posts( SC-03, OBC-07, UR-07)
Eligibility:
Selection Procedure:
Website: www.sscer.org
Recruitment at: Staff Selection Commission, eastern region
Job Location: Kolkata, West Bengal
Position: Handicraft Promotion Officer: 17 posts( SC-03, OBC-07, UR-07)
Eligibility:
- Master's Degree in any subject from a recognised University or equivalent
- 30 years of age as on September 26, 2011
- Relaxation of 5 years for SC/ST candidates and 3 years for OBC candidates.
Selection Procedure:
- Based on Interview/Personality Test/Skill Test
- The shortlisted candidates will be required to work in the Eastern Regional office of the commission in Kolkata ,which has jurisdiction over West Bengal, Orissa, Jharkhand, Sikkim and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands
- Download application form website
- Send the filled application form and demand draft(DD) to the following address: Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, A.J.C. Bose Road, Nizam Palace,1st MSO Building,8th Floor, Kolkata - 700020
Website: www.sscer.org
Tuesday, August 23, 2011
SSC CISF CONSTABLE (GD) 2011 SOLVED PAPER
GENERAL AWARENESS
(Exam Held On: 05-06-2011)
1. The element used for making solar cells is
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Calcium
(4) Silicon
2. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi from October 3 to October 14, Deepika Kumari won gold medal in the
(1) Women's Free Style Wrestling (67 kg)
(2) Women's Archery (Individual Recurve)
(3) Women's 25mPistol
(4) Women's Weightlifting (58 kg)
3. The National Tree of India is
(1) Neem
(2) Peepal
(3) Banyan
(4) Mango
4. The dance Kathakali is associated with the State of
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Kerala
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Orissa
5. Who of the following is not a recipient of 'Bharat Ratna'?
(1) MoraIji Desai
(2) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
6. Srinagar is located on the bank of the river
(1) Indus
(2) Jhelum
(3) Chenab
(4) Ravi
7. Who discovered Solar System?
(1) Newton
(2) John Hadley
(3) Copernicus
(4) Galileo
8. Chief of the Indian Navy has the rank of
(1) General of Indian Navy
(2) Chief of Indian Navy
(3) Naval Chief
(4) Admiral
9. What causes common cold?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoa
10. Meningitis is a disease which affects the
(1) Kidneys
(2) Liver
(3) Heart
(4) Brain
11. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(1) U.S.A. .
(2) Canada
(3) Germany
(4) Australia
12. "Not to destroy the Government property" is a
(1) Positive duty
(2) Legal duty
(3) Civil duty
(4) Negative duty
13. Who proposed the Preamble beforethe drafting committee of the Constitution?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) B.N. Rao
(4) Mahatma Gandhi
14. Which of the following is not the "Tri Ratna" of Jainism ?
(1) Right faith
(2) Right knowledge
(3) Right view
(4) Right conduct
15. The sea which existed in the place of the Himalayas was
(1) Red Sea
(2) Arabian Sea
(3) Tethys Sea
(4) Dead Sea
16. India has the monopoly in the International market in the supply of
1) Iron
(2) Mica
(3) Bauxite
(4) Copper
17. Who is the director of the film 'Lagaan'?
(1) B.R. Chopra
(2) Govind Nehlani
(3) Ashutosh Gowarikar
(4) Ani! Sharma
18. Number of teeth which are replaced in man are
(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 32
(4) 16
19. Who among the following was the pioneer of Yoga ?
(1) Patanjali
(2) Vagbhata
(3) Atreya
(4) Vrudukanta
20. As we go from Equator to North pole the value of 'g', the acceleration due to gravity
(1) remains the same
(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) None of the above
21. Shaving mirror is
(1) Convex
(2) Concave
(3) Plane
(4) Parabolic
22. When was the First Gerneral Election to the Lok Sabha held?
(1) 1950 - 51
(2) 1951 - 52
(3) 1952 - 53
(4) 1956 - 57
23. Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones?
(1) White cement
(2) White lead
(3) Zinc oxide
(4) Plaster of Paris
24. Teachers Day is observed every year on
(1) 5th September
(2) 15th September
(3) 20th September
(4) 25th September
25. Which one of the following is a water borne disease?
(1) Diabetes
(2) Cholera
(3) Small Pox
(4) Malaria
Answers:
1. 4, 2. 2, 3. 3 4. 2 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 4 11. 4 12. 3 13. 1 14. 3 15. 3 16. 2 17. 3 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3 21. 2 22. 2 23. 4 24.1 25. 2
(Exam Held On: 05-06-2011)
1. The element used for making solar cells is
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Calcium
(4) Silicon
2. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi from October 3 to October 14, Deepika Kumari won gold medal in the
(1) Women's Free Style Wrestling (67 kg)
(2) Women's Archery (Individual Recurve)
(3) Women's 25mPistol
(4) Women's Weightlifting (58 kg)
3. The National Tree of India is
(1) Neem
(2) Peepal
(3) Banyan
(4) Mango
4. The dance Kathakali is associated with the State of
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Kerala
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Orissa
5. Who of the following is not a recipient of 'Bharat Ratna'?
(1) MoraIji Desai
(2) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
6. Srinagar is located on the bank of the river
(1) Indus
(2) Jhelum
(3) Chenab
(4) Ravi
7. Who discovered Solar System?
(1) Newton
(2) John Hadley
(3) Copernicus
(4) Galileo
8. Chief of the Indian Navy has the rank of
(1) General of Indian Navy
(2) Chief of Indian Navy
(3) Naval Chief
(4) Admiral
9. What causes common cold?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoa
10. Meningitis is a disease which affects the
(1) Kidneys
(2) Liver
(3) Heart
(4) Brain
11. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(1) U.S.A. .
(2) Canada
(3) Germany
(4) Australia
12. "Not to destroy the Government property" is a
(1) Positive duty
(2) Legal duty
(3) Civil duty
(4) Negative duty
13. Who proposed the Preamble beforethe drafting committee of the Constitution?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) B.N. Rao
(4) Mahatma Gandhi
14. Which of the following is not the "Tri Ratna" of Jainism ?
(1) Right faith
(2) Right knowledge
(3) Right view
(4) Right conduct
15. The sea which existed in the place of the Himalayas was
(1) Red Sea
(2) Arabian Sea
(3) Tethys Sea
(4) Dead Sea
16. India has the monopoly in the International market in the supply of
1) Iron
(2) Mica
(3) Bauxite
(4) Copper
17. Who is the director of the film 'Lagaan'?
(1) B.R. Chopra
(2) Govind Nehlani
(3) Ashutosh Gowarikar
(4) Ani! Sharma
18. Number of teeth which are replaced in man are
(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 32
(4) 16
19. Who among the following was the pioneer of Yoga ?
(1) Patanjali
(2) Vagbhata
(3) Atreya
(4) Vrudukanta
20. As we go from Equator to North pole the value of 'g', the acceleration due to gravity
(1) remains the same
(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) None of the above
21. Shaving mirror is
(1) Convex
(2) Concave
(3) Plane
(4) Parabolic
22. When was the First Gerneral Election to the Lok Sabha held?
(1) 1950 - 51
(2) 1951 - 52
(3) 1952 - 53
(4) 1956 - 57
23. Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones?
(1) White cement
(2) White lead
(3) Zinc oxide
(4) Plaster of Paris
24. Teachers Day is observed every year on
(1) 5th September
(2) 15th September
(3) 20th September
(4) 25th September
25. Which one of the following is a water borne disease?
(1) Diabetes
(2) Cholera
(3) Small Pox
(4) Malaria
Answers:
1. 4, 2. 2, 3. 3 4. 2 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 4 11. 4 12. 3 13. 1 14. 3 15. 3 16. 2 17. 3 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3 21. 2 22. 2 23. 4 24.1 25. 2
Friday, August 19, 2011
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination-2011
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC) sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi - 110003
Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination-2011 for Data Entry Operators and Lower Division Clerks (LDC)
Staff Selection Commission invites online and offline applications for the following posts through a Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2011 :
- Data Entry Operators Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
- Lower Division Clerk (LDC), Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900
- Some other posts like Store Clerk will be filled by this recruitment
Selection by : Selection is on the basis of a single tier examination on 04/12/2011 (Multiple Choice Objective Type) and skill test in data entry/typing on computer at prescribed speed (which will be qualifying in nature). Skill test in Data Entry/Typing is to be administered on Computer only.
Fee: Rs. 100/-. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women and Ex-Serviceman. Fee will be paid only in the form of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS)" These stamps are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. Fee can also be paid through State Bank of India either by Challan or on-line payment.
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Regional / Sub Office of the SSc depending upon the choice of the exam centre by the candidates on or before 16/09/2011 (last date is 23/09/2011 for the candidates from far-flung areas) OR Apply Online at SSC website http://ssconline.nic.in/ from 20/08/2011 to 14/09/2011.
For further details, please view http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Combined%20_DEO_%20LDC_Exam.pdf and application format is available at http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/HSLE%202011APP%20FORM%20c%20.pdf
Thursday, August 18, 2011
Scheme Of Tier-II Written Examination
Tier-II of the Combined Graduate Level Examination-2011 will be of Objective Type Multiple Choice and will be conducted over a period of two days during a weekend tentatively on 3 September 2011 & 4 September 2011. It will consist of three different papers/subjects and depending upon the category of posts applied for, the candidates will be required to appear either in two or in three papers, as the case may be.
| Date of Exam(Tentative) | Paper No. | Subject/ Paper | Max. Marks | Number of Questions | Duration & Timings for General candidates | Duration & Timings for VH candidates |
| 04.09.2011 | I | Arithmetical Ability | 200 | 100 | 2 Hours 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon | 2 Hours and 40 Min. 10.00 AM to 12.40 PM |
| 04.09.2011 | II | English Language & Comprehension | 200 | 200 | 2 Hours 2.00 PM to 4.00 PM | 2 Hours and 40 Min. 2.00 PM to 4.40 PM |
| 03.09.2011 | III | Statistics | 200 | 200 | 2 Hours 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon | 2 Hours and 40 Min. 10.00 AM to 12.40 PM |
NOTE-I: Paper-I & II are compulsory for all the categories of posts. Paper- III is compulsory only for those candidates who apply to be considered for the posts of Statistical Investigators Gr II & Compiler.
NOTE- II: OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission to candidates for recording their answers to Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions. Candidates are advised to read the following instructions very carefully, in their own interest.
- Part A of OMR Answer Sheet to be filled in Ball Point Pen only.
- Part B of OMR Answer Sheet should be filled in HB pencil only, as per instructions given in OMR Answer Sheet.
- Candidate should write and code his/ her name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Name of the Examination as mentioned in Admission Certificate, Date of birth, and Test Form Number fully and correctly in the relevant places in OMR Answer sheet. Answer sheet not bearing candidates Name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, and signature will not be evaluated and Zero marks will be awarded to them. The Commission prime-facie considers absence of such details/ coding as attempt to commit malpractice in the examination or to impersonate. Candidates are advised to follow these instructions meticulously and also duly and fully coded in the appropriate places.
Tuesday, July 26, 2011
Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam Results 2011
The Staff Selection Commission has declared its Combined Graduate Level Exam Tier-I and Tier-II Exam Results 2011.SSC has declared the results online at the official website of SSC (www.ssc.nic.in).SSC has made a separate page for its results.The page address is (www.ssc.nic.in/results/home.html).This page will contain all the latest and Old results of SSC.
SSC made arrangements for the facilitation of Students to know their Results by downloading the (*.pdf) file that contains the list of all successful candidates.We have made this page for SSC Results 2011.Whenever SSC will declare any of its results in 2011,we will always published the notification containing the results of SSC
You can downland the pdf files directly from the links below containing the SSC CGL Tier-I and Tier-II Results 2011
Download SSC CGL Tier-I Results 2011
- http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif (Cut Off Marks)
- http://ssc.nic.in/press-release/T1Q-SIC.pdf (Results)
Download SSC CGL Tier-II Results 2011
- http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif
- http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif
Thursday, July 21, 2011
SSC REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS
REASONING
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is
related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the
other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following
would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is
12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is
10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is
‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a
code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801,
then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue,
blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a
certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He
again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In
which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a
lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly
towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is
taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as
Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less
marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is
second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or
daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the
girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has
neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit
and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a
weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who
was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the
application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application
and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I
learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10
: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition
and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they
interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is
Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are
immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are
there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked
17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls
are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related
to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is
related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is
related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the
other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following
would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is
12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is
10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is
‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a
code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801,
then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue,
blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a
certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He
again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In
which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a
lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly
towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is
taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as
Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less
marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is
second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or
daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the
girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has
neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit
and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a
weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who
was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the
application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application
and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I
learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10
: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition
and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they
interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is
Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are
immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are
there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked
17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls
are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related
to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is
related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)
Thursday, July 14, 2011
SSC Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011
SSC inviting online applications for Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011
Qualification: Passed 12th standard or equivalent from a recognized board or university.
Age Limit: 18 to 27 years as on 1.8.2011.
Selection: Written Examination (Objective) / Skill Test in Stenography.
Application Fee: Rs.100
Date of Written Examination: 16th October, 2011, (Sunday).
Candidates are required to Apply Online through SSC Online website: www.ssconline.nic.in between 16.7.2011 to 10.8.2011.
Candidates may also send their applications through Offline mode along with all required certificates to the respective address before 12.8.2011.
Last Date of Online Applications: 10th August, 2011
Last Date of Offline Applications: 12th August, 2011
Click Here for More Details
Friday, July 1, 2011
SSC KKR RECRUITMENT
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
KARNATAKA-KERALA REGION
(ADVERTISEMENT NO.KKR-02/2011)
Category No.1/BG:
Name of the Post & Department: Surveillance Assistants in Narcotics Control Bureau, Ministry of Home Affairs.
Vacancy: 22 – UR, 10 – OBC, 05 – SC and 03 - ST (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)
Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2400/- (General Central Services Group ‘C’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).
Age Limit: Not exceeding 27 years (Relaxable up to 40 years to Central Government civilian employees in accordance with instructions or orders issued by the Central Government)
Category No.2/BG:
Name of the Post & Department: Technical Assistant in Directorate of Cashew nut and Cocoa Development, Ministry of Agriculture.
Vacancy: 01-UR & 01 - OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)
Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2800/- (Group ‘C’, Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).
Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government. Relaxable up to 40 years for Departmental candidates)
EQ: Graduate in Agriculture/Economics/Mathematics OR Statistics with three years experience of noting and drafting in Technical matters preferably relating to Cashew nut.
Category No.3/BG:
Name of the Post & Department: Instructor (Seamanship & Navigation) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.
Vacancy: 01-OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)
Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).
Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government.)
EQ: (i) Bachelor’s degree from recognized university or Institute.
(ii) Certificate of Competency as Skipper Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department
and
(iii) One year experience on board a fishing vessel
OR.
(i) Bachelors Degree in Fishery Science(Nautical Science) from a recognized University or institute and
(ii) Two years experience in field of fisheries on board a fishing vessel or in fisheries development activities.
Category No.4/BG:
Name of the Post & Department: Bosun (Certified) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.
Vacancy: 01- UR (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)
Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).
Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for OBC/SC/ST candidates. Relaxable up to 40 years for Government civilian employees who are in the same line or allied cadres and who have rendered not less than three years continous service in the same department)
EQ: (i) 12th Standard pass or equivalent.
(ii) Possession of a Certificate of Competency as Mate Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department.
MODE OF SELECTION: Candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shorlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, or through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Candidates, thus, selected may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion.
The Commission holds the discretion to fix different qualifying standards for different categories in the proficiency test wherever applicable. Candidates qualified on the basis of merit of proficiency test if any held, would be required to appear at the Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks (marks of Proficiency Test wherever applicable and Interview/skill test as the case may be) finally awarded to each candidate taking into account the number of vacancies advertised and in that order so many candidates as are found suitable by the Commission would be recommended.
Provided further that SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.
The reserved vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs and OBCs which will thus comprise SC, ST and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standards.
HOW TO APPLY: Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 25.6.2011 The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.
Note(1) : Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in the advertisement are liable to be rejected summarily.
Note (2): The Commission may consider conducting the screening test or Proficiency test wherever applicable for all the post(s) on the same date or different date(s) at its discretion.
MODE OF SELECTION: Candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shorlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, or through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Candidates, thus, selected may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion.
The Commission holds the discretion to fix different qualifying standards for different categories in the proficiency test wherever applicable. Candidates qualified on the basis of merit of proficiency test if any held, would be required to appear at the Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks (marks of Proficiency Test wherever applicable and Interview/skill test as the case may be) finally awarded to each candidate taking into account the number of vacancies advertised and in that order so many candidates as are found suitable by the Commission would be recommended.
Provided further that SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.
The reserved vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs and OBCs which will thus comprise SC, ST and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standards.
HOW TO APPLY: Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 25.6.2011 The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.
Note(1) : Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in the advertisement are liable to be rejected summarily.
Note (2): The Commission may consider conducting the screening test or Proficiency test wherever applicable for all the post(s) on the same date or different date(s) at its discretion.
Monday, June 27, 2011
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