SSC KKR RECRUITMENT

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

KARNATAKA-KERALA REGION

(ADVERTISEMENT NO.KKR-02/2011)

Category No.1/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Surveillance Assistants in Narcotics Control Bureau, Ministry of Home Affairs.

Vacancy:  22 – UR, 10 – OBC, 05 – SC and 03 - ST (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2400/- (General Central Services Group ‘C’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 27 years (Relaxable up to 40 years to Central Government civilian employees in accordance with instructions or orders issued by the Central Government)

EQ: Three years Diploma or Degree in Electronics or Communication or Telecommunication Engineering or Computer Science or Information Technology from a recognized Institute or University

Category No.2/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Technical Assistant in Directorate of Cashew nut and Cocoa Development, Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-UR & 01 - OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2800/- (Group ‘C’, Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government. Relaxable up to 40 years for Departmental candidates)

EQ: Graduate in Agriculture/Economics/Mathematics OR Statistics with three years experience of noting and drafting in Technical matters preferably relating to Cashew nut.

Category No.3/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Instructor (Seamanship & Navigation) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government.)

EQ: (i) Bachelor’s degree from recognized university or Institute.

(ii) Certificate of Competency as Skipper Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department      

              and

(iii) One year experience on board a fishing vessel

     

OR.

(i)    Bachelors Degree in Fishery Science(Nautical Science) from a recognized University or institute and

(ii)  Two years experience in field of fisheries on board a fishing vessel or in fisheries development activities.

Category No.4/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Bosun (Certified) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01- UR (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for OBC/SC/ST candidates. Relaxable up to 40 years for Government civilian employees who are in the same line or allied cadres and who have rendered not less than three years continous service in the same department)

EQ: (i) 12th Standard pass or equivalent.

(ii) Possession of a Certificate of Competency as Mate Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department.
MODE OF SELECTION: Candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shorlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, or through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Candidates, thus, selected may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion.

The Commission holds the discretion to fix different qualifying standards for different categories in the proficiency test wherever applicable. Candidates qualified on the basis of merit of proficiency test if any held, would be required to appear at the Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks (marks of Proficiency Test wherever applicable and Interview/skill test as the case may be) finally awarded to each candidate taking into account the number of vacancies advertised and in that order so many candidates as are found suitable by the Commission would be recommended.

Provided further that SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.

The reserved vacancies will be  filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs and OBCs which will thus comprise SC, ST and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standards.

HOW TO APPLY:  Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 25.6.2011 ­­­The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.

Note(1) : Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in the advertisement  are liable to be rejected summarily.

Note (2): The Commission may consider conducting the screening test or Proficiency test wherever applicable for all the post(s) on the same date or different date(s) at its discretion. 

SSC CGL TIER-I EXAM 19-06-2011 EVENING SHIFT KEY

FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM TIER-I CONDUCTED ON 19-06-2011 EVENING SHIFT SOLUTIONS  CLICK HERE

SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting)

For SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting) Paper CLICK HERE

SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (Evening Shift) Paper

General Awareness  
(Exam Held On: 19-06-2011)

1. The common tree species in Nilgiri Hills is:
(A)Sal
(B)Pine
(C)Eucalyptus
(D)Teak
Answer: The correct answer would be Eucalyptus. However, the Nilgiri Hills are famous for tea gardens, eucalyptus trees as well as Pine and Cyprus trees too.

2. Which of the following statements on Railway Budget 2011-12 is correct?
(A)There would be a 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by AC
and NONAC classes
(B)There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains
(C)There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance
and freights
(D)There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance travel
Answer: D is correct

3. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily due to strong Earthquake-cum-
Tsunami that hit Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage at:
(A)Fukushima
(B)Tokyo
(C)Kyoto
(D)None of them
Answer: Fukushima

4. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen was ?
(A)Rajiv Gandhi
(B)Inder Kumar Gujaral
(C)Mammohan Singh
(D)None of them
Answer: In June 2005, Manmohan Singh became the first Indian prime minister to visit Indian troops camped in igloos on the Siachen glacier.

5. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?
(A)The Red Devil
(B)Witness the night
(C)Tonight this Savage Rite
(D)Earth and Ashes
Answer: Witness the Night.

6. Which of the following folk / tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
(A)Yakshagana
(B)Jatra
(C)Veedhi
(D)Jhora
Answer: Yakshagana

7. Who of the following received the Sangeet Natak Academi's Ustad Bismillah Khan
Puraskar for 2009 in theatre?
(A)Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B)Ragini chander sarkar
(C)Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
(D)K Nellai Maniknandan
Answer: Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha

8. Which of the following country did not win any of the FIFA cup in 2002, 2006 and 2010?
(A)Brazil
(B)Argentina
(C)Spain
(D)South Africa
Answer: South Africa

9. Who invented vaccination for small pox?
(A)Sir Frederick Grant Banting
(B)Sir Alexander Fleming
(C)Edward Jenner
(D)Loius Pasteur
Answer: Edward Jenner

10. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British parliament?
(A)Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(B)W C Banerjee
(C)Dadabhai Naoroji
(D)None of the above
Answer: First India MP was Dadabhai Naoroji

11. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
(A)FDI
(B)Portfolio Investment
(C)NRI Investment
(D)Foreign Indirect Investment
Answer: Investment in securities, funds, by FII is Foreign Indirect Investment

12. BT Seed is associated with which among the following?
(A)Rice
(B)Wheat
(C)Cotton
(D)Oil Seeds
Answer: Cotton

13. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ?
(A)Geneva
(B)Paris
(C)Vienna
(D)Washington
Answer: Vienna

14. In the Budget estimates of 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 Crore has been made
to bring in second green revolution in East in the rice based cropping system of ____?
(A)Assam and West Bengal
(B)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand
(C)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
(D)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand , Eastern Uttar Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh
Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Chattisgarh.

15. In the Budget 2011-12, presented by the Finance Minister on 28.2.2011, the
income tax limit for senior citizens has been increased to ?
(A)Rs. 2.50 Lakh
(B)Rs. 2.60 Lakh
(C)Rs. 2.80 Lakh
(D)Rs. 3.00 Lakh
Answer: Rs. 2.50 Lakh. Above 80, its 5 Lakh

16. If the Anglo Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok
Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by:
(A)Prime Minister
(B)President
(C)Speaker
(D)President in consultation with Parliament
Answer: President

17. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of___?
(A)25 Years
(B)35 Years
(C)30 Years
(D)18 Years
Answer: 35 Years

18. Who said: "Good citizen makes a good state and bad citizen makes a bad state"?
(A)Plato
(B)Aristotle
(C)Rousseau
(D)Laski
Answer: Aristotle is the correct answer of this question.

19. Member of parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from
sessions for
(A)45 days
(B)60 days
(C)90 days
(D)365 days
Answer: 60 Days. Article 101(4) If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant:

20. In Indian , Residuary Powers are vested in ___?
(A)Union Government
(B)State Government
(C)Both Union and State Government
(D)Local Government
Answer: Union Government

21. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightment?
(A)Sarnath
(B)Bodhgaya
(C)Kapilvastu
(D)Rajgriha
Answer: Bodhgaya

22. Coronation of Shivaji took place in which year?
(A)1627
(B)1674
(C)1680
(D)1670
Answer: 6 June 1674

23. The system of Dyarchy was introduced in ___?
(A)1909
(B)1919
(C)1935
(D)1945
Answer: 1919, Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of Dyarchy to govern the provinces of British India.

24. The editor of Young India and Harijan was ____?
(A)Nehru
(B)Ambedkar
(C)Mahatma Gandhi
(D)Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

25. Who of the following attended all the three round table conferences?
(A)B R Ambedkar
(B)M M Malviya
(C)Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B R Ambedkar. Dr. Ambedkar was nominated as representative of the depressed classes and he is known to have attended all the three conferences. Congress and Gandhi boycotted first in 1930 but agreed to attend second in 1931.

26. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?
(A)Emu
(B)Ostrich
(C)Albatross
(D)Siberian Crane
Answer: Ostrich

27. Rihand Dam project provides irrigation to ____?
(A)Gujarat & Maharastra
(B)Odisha and West Bengal
(C)Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(D)Kerala and Karnataka
Answer: Rihand Dam was constructed on the Rihand River in the Sonbhadra district
of Uttar Pradesh in the year 1962. Correct Answer C

28. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) is
(A)Hyderabad
(B)Thumba
(C)Sri Harikota
(D)Hassan
Answer: Hassan , Now there is in Bhopal Too.

29. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?
(A)Sir hind Canal
(B)Yamuna Canal
(C)Indira Gandhi Canal
(D)East Kosi Canal
Answer: Indira Gandhi Canal

30. Which one of the following minerals is found in Monazite Sand?
(A)Potassium
(B)Uranium
(C)Thorium
(D)Sodium
Answer: Thorium

31. Which plant is called 'Herbal Indian Doctor" ?
(A)Amla
(B)Neem
(C)Tulsi
(D)Mango
Answer: Amla

32. In Coriander, useful parts are?
(A)Roots and leaves
(B)leaves and flowers
(C)leaves and dried fruits
(D)flowers and dried fruits
Answer: leaves and dried fruits

33. The pH of Human Blood is ___?
(A)7.2
(B)7.8
(C)6.6
(D)7.4
Answer: 7.4

34. Which among the following is the largest endocrine gland of country?
(A)Thyroid
(B)Parathyroid
(C)Adrenal
(D)Pituitary
Answer: Thyroid

35. Which amongst the following is the largest mammal?
(A)Elephant
(B)Whale
(C)Dinosaur
(D)Rhinoceros
Answer: Whale (Blue Whale).

36. Which part becomes modified as the tusk of elephant?
(A)Canine
(B)Premolar
(C)Second Incisor
(D)Molar
Answer: second upper incisors

37. Optical fibres are based upon the phenomenon of which of the following?
(A)Interference
(B)Dispersion
(C)Diffraction
(D)Total Internal Reflection
Answer: Total Internal Reflection

38. Now a days, Yellow lamps are frequently used as street lights. Which among the
following gases, is used in these lamps?
(A)Sodium
(B)Neon
(C)Hydrogen
(D)Nitrogen
Answer: Sodium

39. Mirage is an example of ____?
(A)Refraction of light
(B)Total Internal Reflection of Light
(C)Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light
(D)Dispersion of Light
Answer: Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light

40. The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue color of sky is?
(A)Interference
(B)Reflection
(C)Refraction
(D)Scattering
Answer: Scattering

41. In which of the following areas, spreadsheet software is more useful?
(A)Psychology
(B)Publishing
(C)Statistics
(D)Message sending
Answer: Statistics

42. A Groupware is a
(A)Hardware
(B)Software
(C)Network
(D)Firmware
Answer: Groupware is collaborative software . Correct option B

43. Lens is made up of ___?
(A)Pyrex Glass
(B)Flint Glass
(C)Ordinary Glass
(D)Cobalt Glass
Answer: Flint glass is used as optical glass because it has relatively high refractive
index and low Abbe number.

44. The element which is used for vulcanizing rubber is?
(A)Sulfur
(B)Bromine
(C)Silicon
(D)Phosphorus
Answer: Sulfur

45. Which of the following is responsible for extra strength of Pyrex glass?
(A)Potassium carbonate
(B)Lead Oxide
(C)Borax
(D)Ferric Oxide
Answer: Borax (makes , borosilicate Pyrex)

46. The Noble Gas used for the treatment of cancer is ___?
(A)Helium
(B)Argon
(C)Krypton
(D)Radon
Answer: Radon, in radiation therapy,

47. Vasundhara Summit was held in __?
(A)USA
(B)UK
(C)Brazil
(D)Australia
Answer: Brazil, Rio De Janeiro (The question is asking about Earth Summit 1992 )

48. Loktak is a ____?
(A)Valley
(B)Lake
(C)River
(D)Mountain Range
Answer: Lake, in Manipur

49. Which city receives the highest cosmic radiation amongst the following>
(A)Chennai
(B)Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D)Delhi
Answer: The correct answer of this question is New Delhi. This is because, intensity
of cosmic radiation is dependent on three things viz. latitude, longitude, and azimuth
angle. The cosmic-ray intensity at the Equator is lower than at the poles because
charged particles tend to move in the direction of field (geomagnetic) lines and not
across them. and thus, they are concentrated in the polar regions, causing auroras
occur at the poles. In the given options, Delhi is farthest from the equator (or nearest
to Pole) and thus will receive highest radiation.

SSC STENOGRAPHERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2010

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.

1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible

12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need

13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion

14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless

15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent

16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide

17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor

18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand

19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent

20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite

22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste

23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination

24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity

25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose

26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity

27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient

28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly

29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative

30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise

32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious

33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate

34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway

35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport

36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary

37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation

38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither

39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible

40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos

42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly

43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with

44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest

45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for

46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected

47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think

48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate

49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back

50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.

51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism

52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature

53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent

54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable

55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier

Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us

57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop

58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?

59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him

60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt

Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement

62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement

63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement

64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement

65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement

Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—

66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP

67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR

68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS

69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR

70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS

Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.

71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off

72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many

73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with

74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have

75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was

76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over

77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done

78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged

79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with

80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it

Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.

81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents

82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun

83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man

84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books

85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above

Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.

In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.

86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus

87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed

88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate

89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period

90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety

Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.

91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried

92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead

93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass

94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet

95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food

96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come

97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from

98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans

99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait

100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but

Answers:

1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

General Awareness  
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010) 

1. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on—
(A) 15th January, 1947
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 15th August, 1950
(D) 15th October, 1947
Ans : (B)

2. Despotism is possible in a—
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans : (A)

3. Marx belonged to—
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)

4. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans : (D)

5. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with—
(A) Administrative Reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State relations
Ans : (D)


6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)

7. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the—
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans : (D)

8. The terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ were coined by—
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)

9. During period of inflation, tax rates should—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans : (A)

10. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India ?
(A) Agriculture sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Transport sector
(D) Banking sector
Ans : (D)

11. “Economics is what it ought to be.”—This statement refers to—
(A) Normative economics
(B) Positive economics
(C) Monetary economics
(D) Fiscal economics
Ans : (A)

12. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called—
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ surplus
(D) Consumers’ surplus
Ans : (C)

13. Silver halides are used in photographic plates because they are—
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans : (B)

14. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is—
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans : (D)

15. Curie point is the temperature at which—
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans : (D)

16. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy is—
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans : (A)

17. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator—
(A) Is less than that at the poles
(B) Is greater than that at the poles
(C) Is equal to that at the poles
(D) Does not depend on the earth’s centripetal acceleration
Ans : (A)

18. Which of the following is not a nucleon ?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans : (C)

19. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)

20. Angle of friction and angle of repose are—
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other
(C) Proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

21. Processor’s speed of a computer is measured in—
(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) Baud
(D) Hertz
Ans : (D)

22. ‘C’ language is a—
(A) Low level language
(B) High level language
(C) Machine level language
(D) Assembly level language
Ans : (B)

23. What happens to a person who receives the wrong type of blood ?
(A) All the arteries constrict
(B) All the arteries dialates
(C) The RBCs agglutinate
(D) The spleen and lymphnodes deteriorate
Ans : (C)

24. NIS stands for—
(A) National Infectious diseases Seminar
(B) National Irrigation Schedule
(C) National Immunisation Schedule
(D) National Information Sector
Ans : (C)

25. If all bullets could not be removed from gun shot injury of a man, it may cause poisoning by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Arsenic
Ans : (B)

26. Ringworm is a ……… disease.
(A) Bacterial
(B) Protozoan
(C) Viral
(D) Fungal
Ans : (D)

27. Pituitary gland is situated in—
(A) The base of the heart
(B) The base of the brain
(C) The neck
(D) The abdomen
Ans : (B)

28. Who discovered cement ?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans : (C)

29. According to RBI’s Report on the trend and progress of banking, the Non-performing Assets (NPA’s) in India for 2008-09 for Indian Banks in 2008 have stood at—
(A) 2•3 per cent
(B) 2•6 per cent
(C) 3•5 per cent
(D) 5•2 per cent
Ans : (B)

30. Windows 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has ……… Indian languages fonts.
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans : (B)

31. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with—
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans : (B)

32. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force—
(A) For three months
(B) For six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004 ?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans : (B)

34. The first nonstop airconditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between—
(A) Sealdah—New Delhi
(B) Mumbai—Howrah
(C) Bangalore—Howrah
(D) Chennai—New Delhi
Ans : (A)

35. Which among the following agencies released the report, Economic Outlook for 2009-10 ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM’s Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (B)

36. India and U.S. have decided to finalize agreements related to which of the following ?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual Property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

37. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)

39. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as—
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans : (B)

40. Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by—
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans : (A)

41. Who coined the word ‘Geography’ ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is called the ‘ecological hot spot of India’ ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans : (A)

43. The art and science of map making is called—
(A) Remote Sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans : (B)

44. The age of the Earth can be determined by—
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity method
(D) Fossilization method
Ans : (B)

45. The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism was—
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (B)

46. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the people; for the people’ was made by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans : (C)

47. The Lodi dynasty was founded by—
(A) Ibrahim Lodi
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans : (C)

48. Harshavardhana was defeated by—
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin II
(C) Narasimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans : (B)

49. Who among the following was an illiterate ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans : (C)

50. Which Governor General is associated with Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentinck
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

English Comprehension  

(Exam Held on 16-5-2010) 

 

Directions—(Q.1–5) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given bold word and indicate your correct response.

1. Jettison
(A) Accept
(B) Reward
(C) Preserve
(D) Consent
Ans : (C)

2. Ameliorate
(A) Improve
(B) Depend
(C) Soften
(D) Worsen
Ans : (D)

3. Grotesque
(A) Natural
(B) Odd
(C) Whimsical
(D) Sinful
Ans : (A)

4. Devious
(A) Straight
(B) Obvious
(C) Simple
(D) Superficial
Ans : (C)

5. Evanescent
(A) Imminent
(B) Permanent
(C) Pervasive
(D) Immanent
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 6–10) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word and indicate your correct alternative.

6. Debacle
(A) Decline
(B) Downfall
(C) Discomfiture
(D) Degeneration
Ans : (B)

7. Ostracise
(A) Banish
(B) Belittle
(C) Beguile
(D) Besiege
Ans : (A)

8. Prophylactic
(A) Antagonistic
(B) Toxic
(C) Preventive
(D) Purgative
Ans : (C)

9. Coddle
(A) Huddle
(B) Satisfy
(C) Protect
(D) Cheat
Ans : (C)

10. Flimsy
(A) Funny
(B) Irrational
(C) Weak
(D) Partisan
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In these questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed your answer is (D).

11. To get into the building I’ll disguise as a reporter—
(A) disguise to be
(B) disguise as one
(C) disguise myself
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

12. He denied that he had not forged my signature—
(A) would not forge
(B) had forged
(C) did not forge
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)

13. If I had played well, I would have won the match—
(A) I played well
(B) I play well
(C) I am playing well
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)

14. Since the records are missing, the possibility of paying more than one compensation for the same piece of land cannot be ruled aside—
(A) out
(B) off
(C) away
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)

15. A callous system generates nothing but a misanthrope—
(A) develops
(B) induces
(C) produces
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate alternative.

16. One who hides away on a ship to obtain a free passage—
(A) Compositor
(B) Stoker
(C) Stowaway
(D) Shipwright
Ans : (C)

17. Clues available at a scene—
(A) Circumstantial
(B) Derivative
(C) Inferential
(D) Suggestive
Ans : (A)

18. An unexpeced piece of good fortune—
(A) Windfall
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Benevolence
(D) Turnstile
Ans : (A)

19. An emolument over and above fixed income or salary—
(A) Honorarium
(B) Sinecure
(C) Perquisite
(D) Prerogative
Ans : (C)

20. The animals of a particular region—
(A) Flora
(B) Museum
(C) Zoo
(D) Fauna
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer.

21. (A) Parapharnelia
(B) Parsimonious
(C) Peccadilo
(D) Peadiatrics
Ans : (B)

22. (A) Measureable
(B) Manageable
(C) Marriagable
(D) Manoevrable
Ans : (B)

23. (A) Tussel
(B) Tunnle
(C) Tumble
(D) Trable
Ans : (C)

24. (A) Populus
(B) Pompuous
(C) Prelious
(D) Presumptuous
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Impromptue
(B) Illustrious
(C) Illusery
(D) Impetous
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In the following questions, the Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate the appropriate alternative.

26. 1. The most vulnerable section of the society are the students.
P. Revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.
Q. Agitations may be non-violent methods of protest.
R. They cannot resist the charm of persuasion.
S. They are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.
6. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they put all proper working
out of gear.
(A) PRSQ
(B) RSQP
(C) SRPQ
(D) RPQS
Ans : (A)

27. 1. Venice is a strange city.
P. There are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of Venice.
Q. There are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.
R. These small islands are close to one another.
S. It is not one island but a hundred islands.
6. This is because Venice has no streets.
(A) SRPQ
(B) PSRQ
(C) RQPS
(D) QSRP
Ans : (D)

28. 1. One of the most terrible battles of the American Civil War was fought in July 1863, at Gettysburg.
P. The chief speech on that occasion was given by Edward Everett, a celebrated orator.
Q. Lincoln was asked to make a few remarks.
R. In November of that year a portion of the battlefield was dedicated as a final restingplace for men of both armies who died there.
S. Everett’s speech lasted 2 hours; Lincoln’s for 2 minutes; it was over almost before the crowd realized that it had begun.
6. But the Gettysburg speech, is now one of the world’s immortal pieces of literature.
(A) SQRP
(B) RPQS
(C) PQRS
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)

29. 1. The teacher training agency in England hopes to make teaching one of the top three professions.
P. They have also demanded that the campaign should be matched by improved pay scales, work load and morale so as to avoid recruitment problems with an aim to raise the image of the teaching profession.
Q. A series of advertisements are now being screened showing famous people speaking about teachers they remember and admire.
R. An amount of $ 100 million has been set aside to combat the shortage of applicants for teacher training.
S. Teacher Unions have welcomed this campaign.
6. It is high time for the Indian Government also to think on similar lines and take steps to lift up the sinking morale of the teaching profession.
(A) QRPS
(B) RPSQ
(C) RQSP
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)

30. 1. Some say that failure is like toxic waste.
P. I see failure more as a fertilizer.
Q. Thinking about it pollutes and undermines the attitudes needed for success.
R. The seeds of success must be planted afresh.
S. It can be used to enrich the soil of your mind.
6. Turning failure into a fertilizer is accomplished by using your errors as steps in learning.
(A) SRQP
(B) PQSR
(C) SPQR
(D) QPSR
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct answer.

31. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening—
(A) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(B) The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
(C) The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(D) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
Ans : (C)

32. Surely the lost child must have been found by now—
(A) Surely must have found the lost child by now
(B) Surely some one must have found the lost child by now
(C) Surely now must have found the lost child
(D) Now must have found the lost child surely
Ans : (B)

33. We serve hot meals till 10.30, guests can order coffee and sandwiches upto 11•30—
(A) Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11•30
(B) Hot meals are being served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11•30
(C) Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 11•30
(D) Hot meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11•30
Ans : (C)

34. Lie facedown; stretch your arms in front—
(A) You are facedown, arms are to be outstretched
(B) You should be lying facedown, with arms outstretched
(C) You should be lying face down; lest arms stretch out
(D) Let face be down; let arms be stretched out
Ans : (B)

35. The Greeks expected to win the international trophy—
(A) It was expected that the Greeks would win the international trophy
(B) The international trophy was expected to be won by the Greeks
(C) It was expected that the Greeks will win the international trophy
(D) It was expected by the Greeks that they would win the international trophy
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.

Passage

In May 1966, the World Health Organisation was authorised to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organisation of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.

The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each smallpox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the

victim had lived was vaccinated.

Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.

36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage ?
(A) The World Health Organisation
(B) The Eradication of Smallpox
(C) Smallpox Vaccinations
(D) Infectious Diseases
Ans : (B)

37. What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox ?
(A) To decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide
(B) To eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years
(C) To provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide
(D) To initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time
Ans : (B)

38. According to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of small pox ?
(A) Vaccination of the entire village
(B) Treatment of individual victims
(C) Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
(D) Extensive reporting of outbreaks
Ans : (C)

39. Which statement doesn’t refer to smallpox ?
(A) Previous projects had failed
(B) People are no longer vaccinated for it
(C) The World Health Organisation mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease
(D) It was a serious threat
Ans : (B)

40. It can be inferred that—
(A) no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
(B) malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
(C) smallpox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
(D) smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to letter (D).

41. Judge in him (A) / previaled upon the father (B) / and he sentenced his son to death. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

42. Nine tenths (A) / of the pillar (B) / have rotted away. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

43. One major reason (A) / for the popularity of television is (B) / that most people like to stay at home. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)

44. Our efforts are aimed (A) / to bring about (B) / a reconciliation. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

45. Three conditions critical (A) / for growing plants are soil, temperature, chemical balance or (B) / amount of moisture. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it.

46. The court …… cognisance of the criminal’s words.
(A) took
(B) made
(C) gave
(D) allowed
Ans : (A)

47. …… wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
(A) Whichever
(B) Whoever
(C) Whatever
(D) Wherever
Ans : (B)

48. As he got older his belief in these principles did not ……
(A) wither
(B) shake
(C) waver
(D) dither
Ans : (B)

49. Everyone in this world is accountable to God ……… his actions.
(A) about
(B) for
(C) to
(D) over
Ans : (B)

50. Your father used to be the principal of this college ……
(A) did he
(B) does he
(C) didn’t he
(D) doesn’t he
Ans : (C)

SSC CPO RECRUITMENT

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has invited applications form Male/Female Indian citizens by All India Examination for recruitment of various posts of Sub Inspectors (SI) in central Police Organizations (CPOs), Assistant Sub Inspectors (ASI) in Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) & Intelligence Officers in Narcotics Control Bureau of India (NCB) more details as followed :

• Sub Inspectors (SI) in Central Police Organizations : 1104 posts (397-GEN, 239-OBC, 245-SC, 223-ST) Age : 20 to 25 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 9300-34800/- + Grade Pay Rs. 4200/- (CRPF : 133 posts, BSF : 136 posts, CISF : 352 posts, ITBP : 333 posts, SSB : 150 posts)
• Assistant Sub Inspectors (ASI) in Central Industrial Security Force : 678 posts (101-GEN, 49-OBC, 182-SC, 346-ST, 68-EX.SM), Age : 20 to 25 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 5200 -20200/- + Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-
• Intelligence Officers (IO) in Narcotics Control Bureau : 100 posts, Age : 20 to 27 years as on 24/06/2011, Pay Scale PB-2 : Rs. 9300-34800/- + Grade Pay Rs. 4600/-

Reservations & Age Relaxations available & as per rules (See Advertisement)
Educational Qualification : Graduation in any discipline from any recognized University OR equivalent in the minimum educational qualification.
Application Fee : Rs. 100/- (No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women & Ex-Serviceman) will be paid i) OFFLINE : Through "Central Recruitment Fee Stamp” (CRFS) available at the counter of all Post Offices of the country. ii) ONLINE : Candidates who are applying Online should pay in State Bank of India branches of through payment Challan Form Or Net-Banking which can be printed from online (available at SSC website).
How to Apply : Apply ONLINE OR OFFLINE i) OFFLINE : Applications in the prescribed format along with all necessary documents and complete in all respects should reach to the Related SSC Offices on or before 24/06/2011 (01/07/2011 for Far Flung Area) ii) ONLINE : Apply Online at SSC Website www.ssconline.nic.in

Closing Date : Last date for filling of the OFFLINE & ONLINE application is 24/06/2011 (5PM)
Exam Date : 28/08/2011 (Sunday)

For SSC ASI/SI Recruitment Exam 2011 Complete details like Reservations, Age Relaxations, Qualifications, Physical Standards, Selection Process etc. Please View : http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Final_Notice_CPO,2011.pdf
Or Log on : http://ssc.nic.in OR Kindly see Employment News dated 28/05/2011 Page No 17.

SSC EASTERN REGION RECRUITMENT

SSC (Eastern Region) has released a recruitment notification for the recruitment of various vacancies for qualified applicants in Group ‘B’ and Group ‘C’. Who are interested applicants may apply these posts through offline on or before 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011) up to 5.00 PM.

Total no. of posts: 36 posts

Name of the posts:
1. Library Clerk (Laboratory): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs.5200–20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900 /-, (PB-1)
2. Scientific Assistant: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200–20200/-, Grade Pay `2800 /-, (PB-1)
3. Assistant Examiner of Trade Marks & Geographical Indications: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 – 34800/-, Grade Pay `4200/-, (PB-2)
4. Scientific Assistant (Chemical): 08 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
5. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Civil): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
6. Scientific Assistant (Physical-Rubber-Plastic-Textile): 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
7. Scientific Assistant (Electrical): 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600/-, (PB-2)
8. Scientific Assistant (Mechanical): 04 posts
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
9. Scientific Assistant-I: 02 posts
Pay scale: Rs 5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.2800/-, (PB-1)
10. Library & Information Assistant (Reprography): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300–34800/-, Grade Pay Rs.4200 /-, (PB-2)
11. Fieldman: 05 posts
Pay scale: Rs.5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.1900/-, (PB-1)
12. Scientific Assistant (non-destructive): 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 9300 –34800/-, Grade Pay `4600 /-, (PB-2)
13. Storekeeper: 01 post
Pay scale: Rs 5200-20200 + GP `1900 (PB-1).

Age limit: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of age limit.

Educational qualification: Applicants see the advertisement for more details of educational qualification and experience.

Application fee: The applicants should pay the fee in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS) only, for Rs 50/- (No fee for SC-ST-PH-EXSM-Women candidates) these stamps are available at the counter of all post offices of the country, the recruitment fee stamps may be affixed on the application form in the space given in the application form.

Selection process: The selection to the posts will be made on the basis of interview/personality test/skill test/screaming test/proficiency test.

How to apply: The eligible applicants may send their application in prescribed format, given in the advertisement, one recent passport size photograph should be pasted on the application form another copy of the photograph should be attached the application form, along with attested photo copies of all necessary certificates and Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (CRFS), to the following address, Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (ER), 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Nizam Palace, Ist MSO Building, 8th Floor, Kolkata-700020, on or before 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.

Last date for receipt of application: 20/06/2011, (For remote areas 27/06/2011), up to 5.00 PM.

For more complete details about age limit, educational qualification, pay scale, no. of posts, experience, application fee, how to apply, application format, selection procedure, last date for receipt of application and other details of www.sscer.org is available at given below link…

www.sscer.org Advt & Application Format

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier II Exam English Paper 2010

1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people
(c) To hurt some body’s feelings
(d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- ‘
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(d) Institution where one receives education

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.
Obviously. thus power which the Press in an ’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual (b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy (d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19 - 26 Fill in the blanks

19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to

22. My friend is really very good–cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over

23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in

24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at

25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these

29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these

31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist

34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible

37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography

39. Government by officials
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish


Answer:
1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a