SSC CISF CONSTABLE (GD) 2011 SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS
(Exam Held On: 05-06-2011)


1. The element used for making so­lar cells is
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Calcium
(4) Silicon

2. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi from Octo­ber 3 to October 14, Deepika Kumari won gold medal in the
(1) Women's Free Style Wrestling (67 kg)
(2) Women's Archery (Individual Recurve)
(3) Women's 25mPistol
(4) Women's Weightlifting (58 kg)

3. The National Tree of India is
(1) Neem
(2) Peepal
(3) Banyan
(4) Mango

4. The dance Kathakali is associat­ed with the State of
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Kerala
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Orissa

5. Who of the following is not a re­cipient of 'Bharat Ratna'?
(1) MoraIji Desai
(2) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

6. Srinagar is located on the bank of the river
(1) Indus
(2) Jhelum
(3) Chenab
(4) Ravi

7. Who discovered Solar System?
(1) Newton
(2) John Hadley
(3) Copernicus
(4) Galileo

8. Chief of the Indian Navy has the rank of
(1) General of Indian Navy
(2) Chief of Indian Navy
(3) Naval Chief
(4) Admiral

9. What causes common cold?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoa

10. Meningitis is a disease which af­fects the
(1) Kidneys
(2) Liver
(3) Heart
(4) Brain

11. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(1) U.S.A. .
(2) Canada
(3) Germany
(4) Australia

12. "Not to destroy the Government property" is a
(1) Positive duty
(2) Legal duty
(3) Civil duty
(4) Negative duty

13. Who proposed the Preamble be­forethe drafting committee of the Constitution?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) B.N. Rao
(4) Mahatma Gandhi

14. Which of the following is not the "Tri Ratna" of Jainism ?
(1) Right faith
(2) Right knowledge
(3) Right view
(4) Right conduct

15. The sea which existed in the place of the Himalayas was
(1) Red Sea
(2) Arabian Sea
(3) Tethys Sea
(4) Dead Sea

16. India has the monopoly in the In­ternational market in the supply of
1) Iron
(2) Mica
(3) Bauxite
(4) Copper

17. Who is the director of the film 'Lagaan'?
(1) B.R. Chopra
(2) Govind Nehlani
(3) Ashutosh Gowarikar
(4) Ani! Sharma

18. Number of teeth which are re­placed in man are
(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 32
(4) 16

19. Who among the following was the pioneer of Yoga ?
(1) Patanjali
(2) Vagbhata
(3) Atreya
(4) Vrudukanta

20. As we go from Equator to North pole the value of 'g', the accelera­tion due to gravity
(1) remains the same
(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) None of the above

21. Shaving mirror is
(1) Convex
(2) Concave
(3) Plane
(4) Parabolic

22. When was the First Gerneral Elec­tion to the Lok Sabha held?
(1) 1950 - 51
(2) 1951 - 52
(3) 1952 - 53
(4) 1956 - 57

23. Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones?
(1) White cement
(2) White lead
(3) Zinc oxide
(4) Plaster of Paris

24. Teachers Day is observed every year on
(1) 5th September
(2) 15th September
(3) 20th September
(4) 25th September

25. Which one of the following is a water borne disease?
(1) Diabetes
(2) Cholera
(3) Small Pox
(4) Malaria

Answers:
1. 4, 2. 2, 3. 3  4. 2 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 4 11. 4 12. 3 13. 1 14. 3 15. 3 16. 2 17. 3 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3 21. 2 22. 2 23. 4 24.1 25. 2

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination-2011

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC) sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi - 110003

Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination-2011 for Data Entry Operators and Lower Division Clerks (LDC)

Staff Selection Commission invites online and offline applications for the following posts through a Combined Higher Secondary Level  Examination 2011 :

• Data Entry Operators Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27,  Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
• Lower Division Clerk (LDC), Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900
• Some other posts like Store Clerk will be filled by this recruitment

Selection by :  Selection is on the basis of a single tier examination on 04/12/2011  (Multiple Choice Objective Type) and skill test in data entry/typing on computer at prescribed speed (which will be qualifying in nature). Skill test in Data Entry/Typing is to be administered on Computer only.
 
Fee: Rs. 100/-. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women and Ex-Serviceman. Fee will be paid only in the form of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS)" These stamps are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. Fee can also be paid through State Bank of India either by Challan or on-line payment.


How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Regional / Sub Office of the SSc depending upon the choice of the exam centre by the candidates on or before 16/09/2011 (last date is 23/09/2011 for the candidates from far-flung areas) OR Apply Online at SSC website http://ssconline.nic.in/ from 20/08/2011 to 14/09/2011.

For further details, please view http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/Combined%20_DEO_%20LDC_Exam.pdf and application format is available at http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/HSLE%202011APP%20FORM%20c%20.pdf

Scheme Of Tier-II Written Examination

Tier-II of the Combined Graduate Level Examination-2011 will be of Objective Type Multiple Choice and will be conducted over a period of two days during a weekend tentatively on 3 September 2011 & 4 September 2011. It will consist of three different papers/subjects and depending upon the category of posts applied for, the candidates will be required to appear either in two or in three papers, as the case may be.

Date of Exam(Tentative)	Paper No.	Subject/ Paper	Max. Marks	Number of Questions	Duration & Timings for General candidates	Duration & Timings for VH candidates
04.09.2011	I	Arithmetical Ability	200	100	2 Hours 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon	2 Hours and 40 Min. 10.00 AM to 12.40 PM
04.09.2011	II	English Language & Comprehension	200	200	2 Hours 2.00 PM to 4.00 PM	2 Hours and 40 Min. 2.00 PM to 4.40 PM
03.09.2011	III	Statistics	200	200	2 Hours 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon	2 Hours and 40 Min. 10.00 AM to 12.40 PM

NOTE-I: Paper-I & II are compulsory for all the categories of posts. Paper- III is compulsory only for those candidates who apply to be considered for the posts of Statistical Investigators Gr II & Compiler.

NOTE- II: OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission to candidates for recording their answers to Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions. Candidates are advised to read the following instructions very carefully, in their own interest.

• Part A of OMR Answer Sheet to be filled in Ball Point Pen only.
• Part B of OMR Answer Sheet should be filled in HB pencil only, as per instructions given in OMR Answer Sheet.
• Candidate should write and code his/ her name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Name of the Examination as mentioned in Admission Certificate, Date of birth, and Test Form Number fully and correctly in the relevant places in OMR Answer sheet. Answer sheet not bearing candidates Name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, and signature will not be evaluated and Zero marks will be awarded to them. The Commission prime-facie considers absence of such details/ coding as attempt to commit malpractice in the examination or to impersonate. Candidates are advised to follow these instructions meticulously and also duly and fully coded in the appropriate places.

NOTE- III: Tier- I examination will be used to screen the candidates for appearing in Tier-II examination for various papers which will be specifically required for different groups of posts. However, marks of such screened candidates in Tier-I will be taken into account for final ranking of candidates for selecting them for the interview/ skill test and also final selection.

Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam Results 2011

The Staff Selection Commission has declared its Combined Graduate Level Exam Tier-I and Tier-II Exam Results 2011.SSC has declared the results online at the official website of SSC (www.ssc.nic.in).SSC has made a separate page for its results.The page address is (www.ssc.nic.in/results/home.html).This page will contain all the latest and Old results of SSC.

SSC made arrangements for the facilitation of Students to know their Results by downloading the (*.pdf) file that contains the list of all successful candidates.We have made this page for SSC Results 2011.Whenever SSC will declare any of its results in 2011,we will always published the notification containing the results of SSC

You can downland the pdf files directly from the links below containing the SSC CGL Tier-I and Tier-II Results 2011

Download SSC CGL Tier-I Results 2011

• http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif  (Cut Off Marks)

• http://ssc.nic.in/press-release/T1Q-SIC.pdf (Results)

Download SSC CGL Tier-II Results 2011

• http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif

• http://ssc.nic.in/results/images/pdf.gif

SSC REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

REASONING

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is
related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the
other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following
would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is
12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is
10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is
‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a
code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801,
then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue,
blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a
certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He
again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In
which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a
lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly
towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is
taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as
Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less
marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is
second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or
daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the
girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has
neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit
and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a
weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who
was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the
application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application
and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I
learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10
: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition
and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they
interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is
Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are
immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are
there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked
17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls
are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related
to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is
related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

SSC Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011

SSC inviting online applications for Stenographers (Grade-C & Grade-D) Examination, 2011

Qualification: Passed 12th standard or equivalent from a recognized board or university.
Age Limit: 18 to 27 years as on 1.8.2011.
Selection: Written Examination (Objective) / Skill Test in Stenography.
Application Fee: Rs.100
Date of Written Examination: 16th October, 2011, (Sunday).
Candidates are required to Apply Online through SSC Online website: www.ssconline.nic.in between 16.7.2011 to 10.8.2011.
Candidates may also send their applications through Offline mode along with all required certificates to the respective address before 12.8.2011.
Last Date of Online Applications: 10th August, 2011
Last Date of Offline Applications: 12th August, 2011

Click Here for More Details

SSC KKR RECRUITMENT

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

KARNATAKA-KERALA REGION

(ADVERTISEMENT NO.KKR-02/2011)

Category No.1/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Surveillance Assistants in Narcotics Control Bureau, Ministry of Home Affairs.

Vacancy:  22 – UR, 10 – OBC, 05 – SC and 03 - ST (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2400/- (General Central Services Group ‘C’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 27 years (Relaxable up to 40 years to Central Government civilian employees in accordance with instructions or orders issued by the Central Government)

EQ: Three years Diploma or Degree in Electronics or Communication or Telecommunication Engineering or Computer Science or Information Technology from a recognized Institute or University

Category No.2/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Technical Assistant in Directorate of Cashew nut and Cocoa Development, Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-UR & 01 - OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2800/- (Group ‘C’, Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government. Relaxable up to 40 years for Departmental candidates)

EQ: Graduate in Agriculture/Economics/Mathematics OR Statistics with three years experience of noting and drafting in Technical matters preferably relating to Cashew nut.

Category No.3/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Instructor (Seamanship & Navigation) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government.)

EQ: (i) Bachelor’s degree from recognized university or Institute.

(ii) Certificate of Competency as Skipper Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department      

              and

(iii) One year experience on board a fishing vessel

     

OR.

(i)    Bachelors Degree in Fishery Science(Nautical Science) from a recognized University or institute and

(ii)  Two years experience in field of fisheries on board a fishing vessel or in fisheries development activities.

Category No.4/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Bosun (Certified) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01- UR (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for OBC/SC/ST candidates. Relaxable up to 40 years for Government civilian employees who are in the same line or allied cadres and who have rendered not less than three years continous service in the same department)

EQ: (i) 12th Standard pass or equivalent.

(ii) Possession of a Certificate of Competency as Mate Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department.
MODE OF SELECTION: Candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shorlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, or through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Candidates, thus, selected may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion.

The Commission holds the discretion to fix different qualifying standards for different categories in the proficiency test wherever applicable. Candidates qualified on the basis of merit of proficiency test if any held, would be required to appear at the Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks (marks of Proficiency Test wherever applicable and Interview/skill test as the case may be) finally awarded to each candidate taking into account the number of vacancies advertised and in that order so many candidates as are found suitable by the Commission would be recommended.

Provided further that SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.

The reserved vacancies will be  filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs and OBCs which will thus comprise SC, ST and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standards.

HOW TO APPLY:  Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 25.6.2011 ­­­The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.

Note(1) : Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in the advertisement  are liable to be rejected summarily.

Note (2): The Commission may consider conducting the screening test or Proficiency test wherever applicable for all the post(s) on the same date or different date(s) at its discretion. 

SSC CGL TIER-I EXAM 19-06-2011 EVENING SHIFT KEY

FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM TIER-I CONDUCTED ON 19-06-2011 EVENING SHIFT SOLUTIONS  CLICK HERE

SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting)

For SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting) Paper CLICK HERE

SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (Evening Shift) Paper

General Awareness  
(Exam Held On: 19-06-2011)

1. The common tree species in Nilgiri Hills is:
(A)Sal
(B)Pine
(C)Eucalyptus
(D)Teak
Answer: The correct answer would be Eucalyptus. However, the Nilgiri Hills are famous for tea gardens, eucalyptus trees as well as Pine and Cyprus trees too.

2. Which of the following statements on Railway Budget 2011-12 is correct?
(A)There would be a 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by AC
and NONAC classes
(B)There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains
(C)There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance
and freights
(D)There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance travel
Answer: D is correct

3. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily due to strong Earthquake-cum-
Tsunami that hit Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage at:
(A)Fukushima
(B)Tokyo
(C)Kyoto
(D)None of them
Answer: Fukushima

4. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen was ?
(A)Rajiv Gandhi
(B)Inder Kumar Gujaral
(C)Mammohan Singh
(D)None of them
Answer: In June 2005, Manmohan Singh became the first Indian prime minister to visit Indian troops camped in igloos on the Siachen glacier.

5. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?
(A)The Red Devil
(B)Witness the night
(C)Tonight this Savage Rite
(D)Earth and Ashes
Answer: Witness the Night.

6. Which of the following folk / tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
(A)Yakshagana
(B)Jatra
(C)Veedhi
(D)Jhora
Answer: Yakshagana

7. Who of the following received the Sangeet Natak Academi's Ustad Bismillah Khan
Puraskar for 2009 in theatre?
(A)Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B)Ragini chander sarkar
(C)Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
(D)K Nellai Maniknandan
Answer: Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha

8. Which of the following country did not win any of the FIFA cup in 2002, 2006 and 2010?
(A)Brazil
(B)Argentina
(C)Spain
(D)South Africa
Answer: South Africa

9. Who invented vaccination for small pox?
(A)Sir Frederick Grant Banting
(B)Sir Alexander Fleming
(C)Edward Jenner
(D)Loius Pasteur
Answer: Edward Jenner

10. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British parliament?
(A)Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(B)W C Banerjee
(C)Dadabhai Naoroji
(D)None of the above
Answer: First India MP was Dadabhai Naoroji

11. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
(A)FDI
(B)Portfolio Investment
(C)NRI Investment
(D)Foreign Indirect Investment
Answer: Investment in securities, funds, by FII is Foreign Indirect Investment

12. BT Seed is associated with which among the following?
(A)Rice
(B)Wheat
(C)Cotton
(D)Oil Seeds
Answer: Cotton

13. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ?
(A)Geneva
(B)Paris
(C)Vienna
(D)Washington
Answer: Vienna

14. In the Budget estimates of 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 Crore has been made
to bring in second green revolution in East in the rice based cropping system of ____?
(A)Assam and West Bengal
(B)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand
(C)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
(D)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand , Eastern Uttar Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh
Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Chattisgarh.

15. In the Budget 2011-12, presented by the Finance Minister on 28.2.2011, the
income tax limit for senior citizens has been increased to ?
(A)Rs. 2.50 Lakh
(B)Rs. 2.60 Lakh
(C)Rs. 2.80 Lakh
(D)Rs. 3.00 Lakh
Answer: Rs. 2.50 Lakh. Above 80, its 5 Lakh

16. If the Anglo Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok
Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by:
(A)Prime Minister
(B)President
(C)Speaker
(D)President in consultation with Parliament
Answer: President

17. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of___?
(A)25 Years
(B)35 Years
(C)30 Years
(D)18 Years
Answer: 35 Years

18. Who said: "Good citizen makes a good state and bad citizen makes a bad state"?
(A)Plato
(B)Aristotle
(C)Rousseau
(D)Laski
Answer: Aristotle is the correct answer of this question.

19. Member of parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from
sessions for
(A)45 days
(B)60 days
(C)90 days
(D)365 days
Answer: 60 Days. Article 101(4) If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant:

20. In Indian , Residuary Powers are vested in ___?
(A)Union Government
(B)State Government
(C)Both Union and State Government
(D)Local Government
Answer: Union Government

21. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightment?
(A)Sarnath
(B)Bodhgaya
(C)Kapilvastu
(D)Rajgriha
Answer: Bodhgaya

22. Coronation of Shivaji took place in which year?
(A)1627
(B)1674
(C)1680
(D)1670
Answer: 6 June 1674

23. The system of Dyarchy was introduced in ___?
(A)1909
(B)1919
(C)1935
(D)1945
Answer: 1919, Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of Dyarchy to govern the provinces of British India.

24. The editor of Young India and Harijan was ____?
(A)Nehru
(B)Ambedkar
(C)Mahatma Gandhi
(D)Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

25. Who of the following attended all the three round table conferences?
(A)B R Ambedkar
(B)M M Malviya
(C)Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B R Ambedkar. Dr. Ambedkar was nominated as representative of the depressed classes and he is known to have attended all the three conferences. Congress and Gandhi boycotted first in 1930 but agreed to attend second in 1931.

26. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?
(A)Emu
(B)Ostrich
(C)Albatross
(D)Siberian Crane
Answer: Ostrich

27. Rihand Dam project provides irrigation to ____?
(A)Gujarat & Maharastra
(B)Odisha and West Bengal
(C)Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(D)Kerala and Karnataka
Answer: Rihand Dam was constructed on the Rihand River in the Sonbhadra district
of Uttar Pradesh in the year 1962. Correct Answer C

28. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) is
(A)Hyderabad
(B)Thumba
(C)Sri Harikota
(D)Hassan
Answer: Hassan , Now there is in Bhopal Too.

29. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?
(A)Sir hind Canal
(B)Yamuna Canal
(C)Indira Gandhi Canal
(D)East Kosi Canal
Answer: Indira Gandhi Canal

30. Which one of the following minerals is found in Monazite Sand?
(A)Potassium
(B)Uranium
(C)Thorium
(D)Sodium
Answer: Thorium

31. Which plant is called 'Herbal Indian Doctor" ?
(A)Amla
(B)Neem
(C)Tulsi
(D)Mango
Answer: Amla

32. In Coriander, useful parts are?
(A)Roots and leaves
(B)leaves and flowers
(C)leaves and dried fruits
(D)flowers and dried fruits
Answer: leaves and dried fruits

33. The pH of Human Blood is ___?
(A)7.2
(B)7.8
(C)6.6
(D)7.4
Answer: 7.4

34. Which among the following is the largest endocrine gland of country?
(A)Thyroid
(B)Parathyroid
(C)Adrenal
(D)Pituitary
Answer: Thyroid

35. Which amongst the following is the largest mammal?
(A)Elephant
(B)Whale
(C)Dinosaur
(D)Rhinoceros
Answer: Whale (Blue Whale).

36. Which part becomes modified as the tusk of elephant?
(A)Canine
(B)Premolar
(C)Second Incisor
(D)Molar
Answer: second upper incisors

37. Optical fibres are based upon the phenomenon of which of the following?
(A)Interference
(B)Dispersion
(C)Diffraction
(D)Total Internal Reflection
Answer: Total Internal Reflection

38. Now a days, Yellow lamps are frequently used as street lights. Which among the
following gases, is used in these lamps?
(A)Sodium
(B)Neon
(C)Hydrogen
(D)Nitrogen
Answer: Sodium

39. Mirage is an example of ____?
(A)Refraction of light
(B)Total Internal Reflection of Light
(C)Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light
(D)Dispersion of Light
Answer: Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light

40. The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue color of sky is?
(A)Interference
(B)Reflection
(C)Refraction
(D)Scattering
Answer: Scattering

41. In which of the following areas, spreadsheet software is more useful?
(A)Psychology
(B)Publishing
(C)Statistics
(D)Message sending
Answer: Statistics

42. A Groupware is a
(A)Hardware
(B)Software
(C)Network
(D)Firmware
Answer: Groupware is collaborative software . Correct option B

43. Lens is made up of ___?
(A)Pyrex Glass
(B)Flint Glass
(C)Ordinary Glass
(D)Cobalt Glass
Answer: Flint glass is used as optical glass because it has relatively high refractive
index and low Abbe number.

44. The element which is used for vulcanizing rubber is?
(A)Sulfur
(B)Bromine
(C)Silicon
(D)Phosphorus
Answer: Sulfur

45. Which of the following is responsible for extra strength of Pyrex glass?
(A)Potassium carbonate
(B)Lead Oxide
(C)Borax
(D)Ferric Oxide
Answer: Borax (makes , borosilicate Pyrex)

46. The Noble Gas used for the treatment of cancer is ___?
(A)Helium
(B)Argon
(C)Krypton
(D)Radon
Answer: Radon, in radiation therapy,

47. Vasundhara Summit was held in __?
(A)USA
(B)UK
(C)Brazil
(D)Australia
Answer: Brazil, Rio De Janeiro (The question is asking about Earth Summit 1992 )

48. Loktak is a ____?
(A)Valley
(B)Lake
(C)River
(D)Mountain Range
Answer: Lake, in Manipur

49. Which city receives the highest cosmic radiation amongst the following>
(A)Chennai
(B)Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D)Delhi
Answer: The correct answer of this question is New Delhi. This is because, intensity
of cosmic radiation is dependent on three things viz. latitude, longitude, and azimuth
angle. The cosmic-ray intensity at the Equator is lower than at the poles because
charged particles tend to move in the direction of field (geomagnetic) lines and not
across them. and thus, they are concentrated in the polar regions, causing auroras
occur at the poles. In the given options, Delhi is farthest from the equator (or nearest
to Pole) and thus will receive highest radiation.

SSC STENOGRAPHERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2010

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.

1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible

12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need

13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion

14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless

15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent

16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide

17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor

18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand

19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent

20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite

22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste

23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination

24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity

25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose

26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity

27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient

28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly

29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative

30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise

32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious

33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate

34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway

35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport

36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary

37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation

38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither

39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible

40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos

42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly

43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with

44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest

45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for

46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected

47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think

48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate

49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back

50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.

51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism

52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature

53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent

54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable

55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier

Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us

57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop

58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?

59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him

60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt

Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement

62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement

63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement

64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement

65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement

Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—

66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP

67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR

68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS

69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR

70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS

Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.

71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off

72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many

73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with

74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have

75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was

76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over

77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done

78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged

79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with

80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it

Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.

81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents

82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun

83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man

84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books

85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above

Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.

In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.

86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus

87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed

88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate

89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period

90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety

Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.

91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried

92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead

93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass

94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet

95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food

96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come

97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from

98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans

99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait

100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but

Answers:

1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)