SSC Declared Result of Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Paper I) for Civil discipline

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) declared result of candidates qualified in paper-I (Junior Engineer Examination 2012) for evaluation of paper-II on 2 May 2012. A total of 5025 candidates were selected for evaluation of paper-II for recruitment of 429 vacant posts of Junior Engineer (Civil).
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) on 8 April 2012 in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.

SSC Declared Result of Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Paper I) for Electrical & Mechanical

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) declared result of candidates qualified in paper-I (Junior Engineer Examination 2012) for evaluation of paper-II on 2 May 2012. A total of 1986 candidates were selected for evaluation of paper-II for recruitment of 313 vacant posts of Junior Engineer (Electrical & Mechanical).
To know the results CLICK HERE
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) had conducted a Combined All India Open Examination on 8 April 2012 for recruitment of Junior Engineer (Civil) in Central Public Works Department (CPWD) and Department of Posts, Quantity Surveying & Contract) in Military Engineering Service (MES), in Central Water Commission (CWC) and Farakka Barrage.
The minimum qualification to take Junior Engineer Examination 2012 (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) was degree or Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from an institution recognized by Government of India or equivalent qualification.

SSC – Constable (GD) Exam held on 22-April-2012 (SET – KI 2012 ) General Awareness Solved Paper

1.	Mohenjo-daro is situated in the district of A) Larkana B) Montgomery C) Sind D) Udhampur
2.	Tansen, afamous musician , was in court of A) Babar B) humayun C) Akbar D) Jahangir
3.	Wage fund theory was propounded by A) J.B.Say B) J.S. Mill C) J.R. Hicks D) J.M. Keynes
4.	The expenses on advertising is called A) Implicit cost B) Surplus cost C) Fixed cost D) Selling cost
5.	Price mechanism is a feature of A) Capitalist economy B) Barter economy C) Mixed economy D) Socialist economy
6.	The Ministers in the Union Government hold office during the pleasure of the A) Lok Sabha B) Parliament C) President D) Prime Minister
7.	The governor of an Indian State is appointed by the A) President of India B) Prime Minister of India C) Chief Justice of High Court D) Chief Minister of the state
8.	A micron is equal to A) 0.1 mm B) 0.01 mm C) 0.001 mm D) 0.0001 mm
9.	Itai- Itai disease is due to poisoning caused by A) Mercury B) Arsenic C) Cadmium D) Asbestos
10.	Blue-green algae are included in the group A) Eubacteria B) Cyanobacteria C) Protozoa D) Fungi
11.	Who introduced the Doctrine of Lapse ? A) Lord Harding B) Robert Clive C) William Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie
12.	Bailing , mustering and shearing are some activities connected with A) Rearing of Lama B) Cotton cultivation C) Sheep rearing D) Poultry farming
13.	Rubber plantations are found in A) Temperate forests B) Mountain regions C) Polar regions D) Equatorial regions
14.	Tides in the sea are caused by A) effect of Sun B) effect of Moon C) combined effect of Moon and Sun D) gravitational force of Earth and Sun
15.	Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use A) convex lens B) concave lens C) plano-convex lens D) plano- concave lens
16.	A light year is a unit of A) Time B) Distance C) Speed of Light D) Intensity of Light
17.	A "Bit" refers to A) Binary informatics B) Bilingual information C) Binary terminator D) Binary digit
18.	Iron is extracted from A) Cinnabar B) Haematite C) Bauxite D) Dolomite
19.	Which of the following imparts a blue colour to glass ? A) Cobalt oxide B) Copper oxide C) Iron oxide D) Nickel oxide
20.	The Magsaysay Award for social service was instituted by A) the Government of India B) The UNO C) The ILO D) Philippines Government
21.	Cauvery water sharing is a disputer between A) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh B) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka D) Karnataka and Maharashtra
22.	With which sport do you associate the name of Rod Laver ? A) Field Hockey B) Football C) Water-Polo D) Lawn Tennis
23.	Tundras are A) Deciduous forests B) Tropical rain forests C) Cold deserts D) Hot deserts
24.	In how many denominations is Indian paper currency printed at present ? A) 9 B) 8 C) 7 D) 6
25.	The Indian representing an international organization who shared the Nobel Peace Prize with AL Gore of U.S. was A) Rajendra Pachauri B) Viswanathan Subramaniam C) R.N. Tagore C) Mother Teresa
Ans.	1.C 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.B	11.D 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.B 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.D	21.C 22.D 23.C 24.C 25.A

SSC Stenographer Grade-c and Grade-D Recruitment

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)

Stenographer Grade-C and Grade-D Examination-2012

Staff Selection Commission will hold on 29/07/2012, an examination for recruitment to the following posts:

• Stenographer Grade-c and Grade-D, Qualification : 12th pass, Age : 18-27 years as on 01/08/2012, Relaxation in age as per rules.,Pay Scale :  PB-2 Rs.9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4600 for Grade-C and PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs.2400/- for Grade-D

Fee: Rs. 100/-. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Women and Ex-Serviceman. Fee will be paid only in the form of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS)" These stamps are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. If you are applying Online, payment can be through Net Banking with SBI.  OR The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee only through State Bank of India either in the form of challan or net-banking.

Closing Date: Last date for filling of the application is 25/05/2012 (5PM)  (01/06/2012 for the candidates of far-flung areas)

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Regional / Sub Office of the SSC depending upon the choice of the exam centre by the candidates.

Candidates can apply Online at SSC Website http://ssconline.nic.in OR http://www.sscregistration.sifyitest.com   up to 23/05/2012 for Part-I and up to 25/05/2012 only.


For further details, please view http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Steno_C_D_Exam2012.pdf  and application format is available at  http://ssc.nic.in/notice/examnotice/Steno%20C&D%202012%20appl.pdf   OR Online at http://ssconline.nic.in

SSC Recruitment of Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012

Staff Selection Commission invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment to the post of Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted). The commission will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for the recruitment.
Name of the Post for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination (Group ‘B' Non Gazetted): 134 vacancies
Important Dates for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012

• Opening date for online registration: 28 April 2012
• Closing date for Part I registration: 23 May 2012 upto 5 pm
• Closing date for Part II registration: 25 May 2012 upto 5 pm
• Date of Exam: 22 July 2012

Eligibility Criteria for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012

• Educational Qualification
• a) Degree of a recognized University or equivalent
• b) Diploma in Journalism from a recognized University or equivalent

•c)      Direct recruitment to posts in Junior Grade of IIS, Group'B' shall be made language wise. The candidates must have studied the concerned Indian language upto the Secondary school

• Desirable Qualification: Three years experience of Journalistic, Publicity or Public relations work in a Government Department or any Newspaper/ News agency.
• Age Limit (as on 1 August 2012): Maximum 30 years

Selection Procedure for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012
The examination will consist of a written examination (300 marks) and interview (100 marks).
Written Examination: The papers will be of 150 marks each of 90 minutes duration. The paper-I will consist of 150 questions of objective multiple choice.  Paper-II will be descriptive type carrying maximum marks of 150.

Papers	Subject	Maximum Marks	Total Duration/ Timing for General candidates
Paper I Objective Type (OMR Answer Sheets will be provided for this Paper)	General  Intelligence & Reasoning (50 questions)	50	One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (10.00 am to 12.00 pm)
	General English (50 questions)	50
	General Awareness (50 questions)	50
Paper II (Descriptive)		150	One hour and thirty minutes 10 am to 11.30 am. 2 Hours for VH Candidates (1.30 pm to 3 pm)

Note: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I of written examination. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
Interview: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview.  The interview will be held at places as may be decided by the Commission.
How to Apply for SSC Junior Grade of Indian Information Service Examination 2012: Applications must be submitted ON LINE only in the format available on SSC website http://ssc.nic.in/SSC.html A candidate must select only one of the centres given below for the examination and must submit his/ her online application. Entire work relating to this recruitment will be handled on behalf of the Commission by the Kerala- Karnataka (KKR) Regional Office situated at Bangalore. Therefore, all correspondence relating to the examination clearly mentioning the Registration id should be addressed to:-
The Regional Director (KKR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor,'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan,
Koramangala, Bangalore,
Karnataka-560034
Helpline Numbers of the Regional Office are: 09483862010 and 09483862020
Examination Centres

1	Delhi - 2201
2	Chennai - 8201
3	Kolkata - 4410
4	Mumbai - 7204
5	Allahabad - 3003
6	Guwahati (Dispur) - 5105
7	Bangalore - 9001
8	Raipur - 6204
9	Chandigarh - 1601

Apply Online

Application Fee: No application fee will be charged from Women candidates, SC, ST, Physically handicapped and Ex-servicemen and fee for General Category candidate is Rs 100.
The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee only through State Bank of India challan or using on-line payment facility of State Bank of India.

Challan Print

For more details, please CLICK HERE

SSC Southern Region 2012 Recruitment to Various Posts in Group C & Group B

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Southern Region invites applications from interested and eligible candidates for recruitment to the posts mentioned below in various offices for the year 2012
Name of the Posts and Number of Vacancies

• Technical Officer-I in the Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage: 4 vacancies
• Scientific Assistant-I in Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage: 4 vacancies
• Sales Assistant in Publications Division, Ministry of Information & Broadcasting: 3 vacancies
• Senior Computor in Central Water Commission, Godavari Circle, Andhra Pradesh: 1 vacancy
• Junior Chemist in the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Department of Agriculture & Co-operation, Min. of Agriculture: 5 vacancies
• Junior Technical Assistant in the Office of the Regional Director, Southern Region, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Chennai: 2 vacancies
• Botanical Assistant in Botanical Survey of India, Southern Region, Coimbatore: 5 vacancies

Important Dates for Recruitment in SSC Southern Region

• Closing Date for Sending Applications: 21 May 2012 till 5 pm

Eligibility Criteria for Recruitment in SSC Southern Region
Educational Qualification

• Technical Officer-I: Intermediate with Science in Zoology/ Botany/ Agriculture or 10+ 2 class pass with Science from a recognised University/ Board or its equivalent
• Scientific Assistant-I: BSc (Agriculture) from a recognised University
• Sales Assistant: Intermediate or possessing an equivalent qualification from recognised University/ Board
• Senior Computor: Bachelor's Degree from a recognised University with Statistics or Mathematics or Physics or Geo-Physics or Geology or meterology or Hydro-meterology as one of the subjects or equivalent qualification
• Junior Chemist: Master's degree in Chemistry or Dairy Chemistry or Oil Technology or Food Technology OR Bachelor of Science degree with Chemistry as one of the subjects or Bachelor of Science (Hons.) in Chemistry from a recognised University or equivalent and with 2 years experience in analytical work
• Junior Technical Assistant: Degree in Commerce or Economics or degree in Law from a recognised University
• Botanical Assistant: MSc degree in Botany/ First Class BSc (Hons.) with Botany/ Second Class BSC with Botany with 3 years of experience

Age Limit (as on 21 May 2012)

• Technical Officer-I/ Scientific Assistant-I: Minimum 18 years; Maximum 25 years
• Sales Assistant/ Botanical Assistant: Minimum 18 years; Maximum 30 years
• Senior Computor: Minimum 18 years; Maximum 27 years
• Junior Chemist/ Junior Technical Assistant: Maximum 30 years

Pay Scale for the designated Posts

• Technical Officer-I: Rs 5200- 20200 + 2000 Grade Pay
• Scientific Assistant-I/ Sales Assistant/ Senior Computor/ Junior Chemist: Rs 5200- 20200 + 2800 Grade Pay
• Junior Technical Assistant/ Botanical Assistant: Rs 9300- 34800 + 4200 Grade Pay

Selection Procedure for Recruitment in SSC Southern Region
The candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shortlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, OR through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Selected candidates may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion
How to Apply for Recruitment in SSC Southern Region
The interested candidates may download the application format as prescribed on the website http://www.sscsr.gov.in/ and should send the duly filled application form to The Regional Director (SR), Staff Selection Commission, 2nd Floor, EVK Sampath Building, College Road, Chennai- 600 217 along with other requisite enclosures
Application Fee (non-refundable): Rs 50 (SC/ ST/ Female/ Ex-s candidates are exempted from payment of fee) in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps which are available in all Post Offices
Note:

• The post for Senior Computor in Central Water Commission, Godavari Circle, Andhra Pradesh needs no Application Fee
• Indicate clearly the Name of the Post, Advertisement No. & Category No. on the Envelope while sending the Application

For more details and Application Format CLICK HERE

SSC to conduct Re-Examination for the post of Sepoy in NCB on 13 May 2012

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will conduct re-examination for the post of Sepoy in Narcotics Control Bureau on 13 May 2012 in the forenoon session (from 10 am to 12 noon). The written test which was held on 11 March 2012 stands cancelled due to administrative reasons.
The recruitment for Sepoy post was notified separately by Eastern, Western, Southern, and North West Regional Offices of the Commission situated at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, and Chandigarh respectively.
Candidates who had actually appeared in the Written Test on 11 March 2012 will be issued new admission certificate for the said examination. In case the candidates do not receive the Admission Certificates by 6 May 2012 or are not able to download it from concerned website, are advised to contact the Regional Office concerned.

Staff Selection Commission Karnataka-Kerala Region Various Posts Recruitment

Staff Selection Commission Karnataka-Kerala Region invited Applications for Various Posts:

Technical Officer (Photolitho) : 9 Posts

Assistant Welfare Administrator  : 2 Posts

Technical Assistant : 1 Post

Data Entry Operator : 23 Posts

Laboratory Assistant: 1 Post

HOW TO APPLY: 
Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 28.4.2012. The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.

Closing date:
 Completed application forms should be received latest by 25.5.2012 (5.00 P.M.)


Address to which the applications to be sent:
The Regional Director (KKR), Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, „E‟ Wing, Kendriya Sadan,Koramangala, Bangalore – 560 034.

CLICK HERE TO SEE THE NOTIFICATION AND APPLICATION OF VARIOUS SELECTION POSTS ADVERTISED VIDE ADVT.NO. KKR-02/2012 BY STAFF SELCTION COMMISSION (kkR)

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level [(Tier-I) Second Shift] Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 16-5-2010) 

 1. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on—
(A) 15th January, 1947
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 15th August, 1950
(D) 15th October, 1947
Ans : (B)

2. Despotism is possible in a—
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans : (A)

3. Marx belonged to—
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)

4. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans : (D)

5. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with—
(A) Administrative Reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State relations
Ans : (D)

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)

7. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the—
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans : (D)

8. The terms ‘Micro Economics’ and ‘Macro Economics’ were coined by—
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)

9. During period of inflation, tax rates should—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans : (A)

10. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India ?
(A) Agriculture sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Transport sector
(D) Banking sector
Ans : (D)

11. “Economics is what it ought to be.”—This statement refers to—
(A) Normative economics
(B) Positive economics
(C) Monetary economics
(D) Fiscal economics
Ans : (A)

12. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called—
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ surplus
(D) Consumers’ surplus
Ans : (C)

13. Silver halides are used in photographic plates because they are—
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans : (B)

14. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is—
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans : (D)

15. Curie point is the temperature at which—
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans : (D)

16. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy is—
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans : (A)

17. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator—
(A) Is less than that at the poles
(B) Is greater than that at the poles
(C) Is equal to that at the poles
(D) Does not depend on the earth’s centripetal acceleration
Ans : (A)

18. Which of the following is not a nucleon ?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans : (C)

19. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)

20. Angle of friction and angle of repose are—
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other
(C) Proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

21. Processor’s speed of a computer is measured in—
(A) BPS
(B) MIPS
(C) Baud
(D) Hertz
Ans : (D)

22. ‘C’ language is a—
(A) Low level language
(B) High level language
(C) Machine level language
(D) Assembly level language
Ans : (B)

23. What happens to a person who receives the wrong type of blood ?
(A) All the arteries constrict
(B) All the arteries dialates
(C) The RBCs agglutinate
(D) The spleen and lymphnodes deteriorate
Ans : (C)

24. NIS stands for—
(A) National Infectious diseases Seminar
(B) National Irrigation Schedule
(C) National Immunisation Schedule
(D) National Information Sector
Ans : (C)

25. If all bullets could not be removed from gun shot injury of a man, it may cause poisoning by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Arsenic
Ans : (B)

26. Ringworm is a ……… disease.
(A) Bacterial
(B) Protozoan
(C) Viral
(D) Fungal
Ans : (D)

27. Pituitary gland is situated in—
(A) The base of the heart
(B) The base of the brain
(C) The neck
(D) The abdomen
Ans : (B)

28. Who discovered cement ?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans : (C)

29. According to RBI’s Report on the trend and progress of banking, the Non-performing Assets (NPA’s) in India for 2008-09 for Indian Banks in 2008 have stood at—
(A) 2•3 per cent
(B) 2•6 per cent
(C) 3•5 per cent
(D) 5•2 per cent
Ans : (B)

30. Windows 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has ……… Indian languages fonts.
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans : (B)

31. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with—
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans : (B)

32. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force—
(A) For three months
(B) For six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004 ?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans : (B)

34. The first nonstop airconditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between—
(A) Sealdah—New Delhi
(B) Mumbai—Howrah
(C) Bangalore—Howrah
(D) Chennai—New Delhi
Ans : (A)

35. Which among the following agencies released the report, Economic Outlook for 2009-10 ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM’s Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (B)

36. India and U.S. have decided to finalize agreements related to which of the following ?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual Property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

37. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)

39. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as—
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans : (B)

40. Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by—
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans : (A)

41. Who coined the word ‘Geography’ ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is called the ‘ecological hot spot of India’ ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans : (A)

43. The art and science of map making is called—
(A) Remote Sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans : (B)

44. The age of the Earth can be determined by—
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity method
(D) Fossilization method
Ans : (B)

45. The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism was—
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (B)

46. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the people; for the people’ was made by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans : (C)

47. The Lodi dynasty was founded by—
(A) Ibrahim Lodi
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans : (C)

48. Harshavardhana was defeated by—
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin II
(C) Narasimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans : (B)

49. Who among the following was an illiterate ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans : (C)

50. Which Governor General is associated with Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentinck
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier II Exam

(English Paper - 2010)

1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives
2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body’s feelings· (d) To trust others
3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter
4. Alma Mater-
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives education
5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody
6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody
7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others
8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal
10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power
11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons
12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses
13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all
14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government
15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.
16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern
17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high
18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19 – 26 Fill in the blanks

19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against
20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for
21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to
22. My friend is really very good–cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over
23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in
24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at
25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out
26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of
Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same
27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion
28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these
29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable
30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these
Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement.
32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable
33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist
34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless
35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.
36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible
37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary
38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography
39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy
40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish

Answer: 1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a

SSC Recruitment of Constable (GD) in ITBP Force, 2011

SSC Recruitment of Constable (GD) in ITBP Force, 2011 - Release of additional list of successful candidates

SSC DELHI GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)