Saturday, November 16, 2013

SSC Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Exam Syllabus

Paper-I 

Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post. Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably. Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard.
General Intelligence: It would include questions of non-verbal type. The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.
English Language : Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.
Numerical Aptitude: This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.
General Awareness: Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

Paper-II: 

The Paper will be set in English and Hindi to test basic language skills commensurate with the educational qualification prescribed for the post. Candidates will be required to write one short essay/letter in English and Hindi each. Candidates can opt to write the essay/letter in any Indian language listed in 8th Schedule of the Constitution in lieu of Hindi.

Senior Technical Assistant jobs in Staff Selection Commission

Educational Requirements: Degree in Science/Engineering with Associateship in Sugar Technology awarded by National Sugar Institute, Kanpur

Qualifications: Post Graduate Diploma in Sugar Technology from a recognized University/Institution or equivalent.

Experience Requirements: Practical Experience in a sugar factory as a manufacturing chemist or Research/Practical experience in a research institution of a Government organization.

Age Limit: 30 Years

Pay Scale: Rs. 9300-34800 with G.P. 4200/-

How to ApplyApplications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated .2013. The application form is available on the Regional Office website www.ssc-cr.org The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice. The application, complete in all respects, should reach the Regional Director (As per address given below) by 06.12.2013. In the case of candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti District and Pangi Sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad their closing date for receipt of application would be 13.12 .2013. Application shall be rejected if received late and/or not complete in all respects as provided in the rules.

Last Date: 06th December 2013

For more Details, please visit: http://www.ssc-cr.org/noticeboard/ADVERTISEMENT%20NO.%20CR-32013.pdf

Friday, November 15, 2013

SSC MMulti Tasking Staff 2014 Notification

SSC Multi Tasking Staff Notification & Application Form 2014: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is going to invite online application for the recruitment of Multi Tasking Staff (MTS).interested and eligible candidates may apply online before 6th December 2013.every year more then lacks of candidates appeared in SSC examination now candidates apply for this post.candidates can apply for this post through official website from 9th November 2013 to 6th December 2013. 
Name of Examination: Multi Tasking Staff
Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 18 to 25 years as on date 01-01-2014
Educational Qualification: Candidates should have done 10th class from any recognized board
Application Fee: Unreserved candidates need to pay Rs. 10/- and reserved candidates not need to any fee
Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20,200 + GP Rs. 1800/-
SSC MTS Notification Date: 9th November 2013
Last Date for submission of online application: 6th December 2013
SSC MTS 2014 Examination Date: 16th February and 23rd February 2014
SSC MTS 2013 Admit Card: 1st week of February
How to Apply Online: Candidates go to official website that is ssc.nic.in and clickon SSC MTS Apply Online 2014 and fill their application fee and uploaded their signature and photograph now payment their application fee after the payment candidates take a print out of it for further uses in future.
Official website: http://www.ssc.nic.in/
Apply Online: http://ssc-cr.org/

Staff Selection Commission (Western Region) Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts:

1. Milk Recorder: 01 Post
Qualification: 
Matriculation or equivalent. Preference shall be given to candidates having good handwriting.

2. Storekeeper Grade-III: 03 Posts
Qualification
: Secondary School Certificate or equivalent.

3. Technician Group C: 03 Posts
Qualification
: B.Sc. (Biology/ Microbiology).

4. Scientific Assistant-I: 15 Posts
Qualification
: B.Sc. (Agricultural).

5. Junior Chemist: 07 Posts
Qualifications: 
i). Masters degree in Chemistry or Dairy Chemistry or Oil Technology or Food Technology. Or ii). Bachelor of Science degree with Chemistry as one of the subjects or Bachelor of Science (Hons.) in Chemistry or equivalent and with two years experience in analytical work.

6. Jr. Technical Assistant: 01 Post
Qualification
: Certificate in Forest Rangers course from any recognised institute/ Graduate in Science/ Computer Science.

7. Botanical Assistant: 03 Posts
Qualifications: 
i). M.Sc. degree in Botany Or first class B.Sc. (Hons.) with Botany Or second class B.Sc. with Botany with 3 years experience. ii). Aptitude for Systematic Botany as evidenced by having taken special papers in the subject having research or field experience.

8. Jr. Fishing Gear Technologist: 01 Post
Qualifications: 
i). Master of Fisheries Science or Master of Science in Zoology or Marine Biology or Industrial Fisheries. ii). Two years experience in supervision of making, mending, etc of different types of fishing gears in a Government Department or undertaking or in a recognised private company or firm or institute.

9. Assistant Epigraphist (Arabic and Persian Inscriptions): 03 Posts
Qualifications: 
i). Masters degree in Persian or Arabic with Medieval Indian History as a subjects at the Bachelors degree level or equivalent. Or ii). Masters degree in History with Medieval Indian History as a subjects and Arabic or Persian as one of the subjects at the Bachelor degree level or equivalent.

10. Draughtsman Grade-I: 03 Posts
Qualifications: 
i). Higher Secondary (10+2) or equivalent. ii). Three years Diploma in Electrical/ Mechanical Engineering or equivalent.

11. Film Division: 03 Posts
Qualifications: 
i). Higher Secondary or equivalent. ii). Six years experience in editing of films. Or i). Degree/ Diploma in Film Editing or equivalent qualification and ii). Two years experience in editing of films (including apprenticeship period, if any).

12. Sr. Technical Assistant (Hydrogeology): 01 Post
Qualifications: 
Master degree in Geology or Hydrogeology or Applied Geology or equivalent.

13. Information Assistant: 01 Post
Qualifications: 
i). Degree. ii). Knowledge of Computer Application supported by diploma or degree in Computer Application from a Govt. Institute or Institute recognised by the Govt. iii). General knowledge of and familiarity with places of tourist interest in India. iv). Knowledge of various phases of Indian History and architecture, ancient and modern.

14. Senior Technical Assistant (Chemical): 01 Post
Qualifications: 
i). Masters degree in Chemistry or Agricultural Chemistry or Soil Science or equivalent. ii). Two years experience in Ground Water Analysis and Ground Water Chemistry.

Examination Fee: Rs.50/-. All female applicants, SC, ST, physically handicapped and ex-servicemen applicants are exempted from paying examination fees subject to fulfillment of conditions stated at Para-12 of this Notice.

How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission (WR), 1st Floor, Pratishtha Bhavan, 101, MK Road, Mumbai-400020.

Last Date: 20/12/2013

For more details, please visit: http://www.sscnwr.org/notice_down_file/wr1-2013eng.pdf

SSC CENTRAL REGION RECRUITMENT OF VARIOUS POSTS


Application in the prescribed format are invited  for the following posts in various Central Government Departments / Organisations :
  1. Senior Technical Assistant (Hydrogeology) : 01 post in Central Ground Water Board, Faridabad : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4600/-
  2. Senior Technical Assistant (Geology) : 01 post in M/o Culture, O/o National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property, Lucknow 
  3. Senior Technical Assistant (Physics) : 01 post in M/o Culture, O/o National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property, Lucknow 
  4. Senior Technical Assistant (Monuments and Wall Paintings) : 01 post in M/o Culture, O/o National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property, Lucknow 
  5. Laboratory Attendant : 01 post in M/o Agriculture, O/o The National Seed Research & Training Centre, Varanasi
  6. Horticulture Assistant : 01 post in O/o Directorate General Archaeological Survey of India, Horticulture Grade, Agra 
  7. Senior Technical Assistant (Sugar Technology) : 01 post in National Sugar Institute, Kanpur (UP)

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send by Speed Post only on or before 06/12/2013 toRegional Director (CR), Staff Selection Commission, 21-23, Lowther Road, Allahabad - 211002.

For further details and application form, please visit http://www.ssc-cr.org/index.php

Monday, September 30, 2013

SSC Combined All India Open Examination for Stenographer (Grade ‘C’&‘D’) Posts

Staff Selection Commission hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ and Grade ‘D’.
Stenographer (Grade ‘C’&‘D’):
Qualifications: 12th Standard or equivalent from a recognised board or university.

Scheme of Examination: The examination will be consist of a written examination and skill test in stenography.

Written Examination:
  • Part I: Subject: General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 questions), Maximum Marks: 50
  • Part II: Subject: General Awareness (50 questions), Maximum Marks: 50
  • Part III: Subject: English Language and Comprehension (100 questions), Maximum Marks: 100
  • Total Duration / Timing for General candidates: 2 Hours
  • Total Duration / Timing for Visually Handicapped candidates: 2 Hours 40mins.
Age Limit (As on 01/08/2013): 10-27 years

Fee: Rs. 100/-. Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to SC, ST, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online or offline.
  • Online: Candidates can apply online only
  • Offline: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the Commission as indicated in the notifications.
Important Dates:
  • Last date for Part-I registration on 24/10/2013
  • Last date for Part-II registration 26/10/2013
  • Date of examination 29/12/2013
For more details Click here

Saturday, September 28, 2013

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Exam 2012 For Data Entry Operators and Lower Division Clerks General Awareness Solved Paper

1. Division of labour is a concept advocated by–
(A) Keynes (B) Marshall
(C) Smith (D) Baumol
Ans : (C)

2. Which one of the following is not a direct determinant of demand?
(A) Savings (B) Income 
(C) Price of the commodity (D) Taste
Ans : (A)

3. Which one of the following is a characteristic of oligopolistic industries?
(A) Product differentiation (B) Homogeneous goods
(C) Price rigidity (D) Price discrimination
Ans : (C)

4. When a leather industry discharges its waste in the river causing water pollution the cost incurred on health hazards is called–
(A) Implicit cost (B) Social cost
(C) Private cost (D) Opportunity cost
Ans : (B)

5. Who said that “Parliamentary democracy means one individual and one vote”?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy was based on Gandhian Philosophy ?
(A) Organisation of Village Panchayats (B) Equal wage for equal labour
(C) Protection of labourers (D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following ensures grass-root democracy in India?
(A) Panchayati Raj (B) Inter-State Council
(C) President (D) CAG
Ans : (A)

8. Which article empowers Parliament to formulate law on State list subjects?
(A) 115 (B) 183
(C) 221 (D) 249
Ans : (D)

9. Which part of the Constitution is associated with the provisions of citzenship ?
(A) II (B) III
(C) IV (D) V
Ans : (A)

10. Democratic Decentralisation refers to–
(A) Federal Government (B) Parliamentary Government
(C) Democratic Government (D) Local Government
Ans : (D)

11. Which one among the following was the Harappan trading station ?
(A) Kalibangan (B) Lothal
(C) Surkotda (D) Ropar
Ans : (B)

12. Which one of the following recorded the transformation of King Ashoka after the Kalinga War ?
(A) Rock Edict II (B) Rock Edict IV
(C) Rock Edict VI (D) Rock Edict XIII
Ans : (D)

13. Where was the early capital of Harshavardhana ?
(A) Prayag (B) Kannauj
(C) Thaneswar (D) Mathura
Ans : (C)

14. What portion of actual produce was fixed as the State’s demand under the Zabti System ?
(A) One-fourth (B) One-third
(C) One-half (D) One-fifth
Ans : (B)

15. Which among the following ended the French power in India ?
(A) Battle of Buxar (B) Third Carnatic War
(C) Battle of Plassey (D) Battle of Wandhiwash
Ans : (B)

16. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through–
(A) India (B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh (D) Myanmar
Ans : (B)

17. Among the following problems of developing countries, which one is not correct?
(A) Low level of technological development.
(B) Lack of diversification of economy.
(C) High proportion of old age population.
(D) Weak industrial base.
Ans : (C)

18. Which of the following rivers flows from South to North ?
(A) Krishna (B) Kaveri
(C) Son (D) Godavari
Ans : (C)

19. Hurricanes are also called ……….in Australia.
(A) Baguio (B) Willy Willy
(C) Taifu (D) Typhoon
Ans : (B)

20. The State having largest area under waste land is–
(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (D)

21. Which one is a bioferiliser ?
(A) Urea (B) Azospirillum
(C) Compost (D) Superphosphate
Ans : (B)

22. ACTH hormone is secreted from–
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Adrenal medulla
(C) Pituitary gland (D) Pineal body
Ans : (C)

23. Pepsin secreting, cells of gastric glands are–
(A) Oxyntic cells (B) Parietal cells
(C) Chief cells (D) Goblet cells
Ans : (C)

24. Which of the following is a chromoprotein?
(A) Mucin (B) Haemoglobin
(C) Peptones (D) Vitelline
Ans : (B)

25. Sieve plate is a part of–
(A) Cambium (B) Xylem
(C) Cortex (D) Pholem
Ans : (D)

26. System of growing plants through water culture methods is known as–
(A) Hydrotropism (B) Hydrophobia
(C) Hydroponics (D) Hydrophytes
Ans : (C)

27. A transformer is used to–
(A) increase A.C. voltage.
(B) increase D.C. voltage.
(C) convert electrical energy to heat energy.
(D) convert A.C. energy to D.C. energy.
Ans : (A)

28. Light year is a unit of–
(A) time (B) distance
(C) light (D) intensity of light
Ans : (B)

29. Radio telescopes are better than optical telescopes because–
(A) They can detect faint galaxies which cannot be done by optical telescopes.
(B) They can work even in cloudy conditions.
(C) They can work during the day and night.
(D) All of the above.
Ans : (D)

30. ………. programs are used to create numeric-based documents such as budgets.
(A) Word Processing (B) Presentation
(C) Spread sheet (D) Graphics
Ans : (C)

31. The process of eliminating logical errors is known as–
(A) testing (B) debugging
(C) maintenance (D) evaluation
Ans : (B)

32. ………. is unwanted e-mail or junk mail.
(A) Bomb (B) Phat Bot
(C) Spain (D) Worm
Ans : (C)

33. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(A) Bakelite (B) Cellulose
(C) PVC (D) Nylon
Ans : (B)

34. ‘Saponification’ is a process by which–
(A) soap is prepared. (B) plastic is prepared.
(C) sulpur is extracted. (D) protein is identified.
Ans : (A)

35. Heat of a reaction does not depend on–
(A) temperature of the reaction.
(B) the path by which final product is obtained.
(C) physical states of the reactants and products.
(D) whether the reaction is carried out at constant pressure or at constant volume.
Ans : (B)

36. The presence of ‘Entamoeba histolytica’ in drinking water is an indication of–
(A) bacterial outbreak (B) polluted water
(C) clean water (D) decay of organic matter
Ans : (A)

37. Disadvantage of using DDT as pesticide is–
(A) it becomes ineffective after sometime. (B) not easily degraded in nature.
(C) less effective than others. (D) its high cost.
Ans : (B)

38. Green house gases are–
(A) CO2, CH4, NO and CFC (B) CO2, CH4, SO2 and NO 
 (C) SO2, NO, H2S and CO (D) CO2, NH3, H2S and N2
Ans : (A)

39. Highly polluting industries come under the category of–
(A) Orange (B) Red
(C) Yellow (D) Black
Ans : (B)

40. Temperature inversion is–
(A) Positive lapse rate (B) Negative lapse rate
(C) Neutral condition (D) None of the these
Ans : (B)

41. “My Unforgettable Memories” is the autobiography of–
(A) Mayawati (B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Mamata Bannerjee (D) Suu Kyi
Ans : (C)

42. Which country was the latest entrant to G-8 ?
(A) France (B) Italy
(C) Russia (D) Japan
Ans : (C)

43. Which is the capital of South Sudan ?
(A) Suva (B) Juba
(C) Khartoum (D) Taichung
Ans : (B)

44. In which one of the following States, there had been only one woman Chief Minister?
(A) Delhi (B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

45. Which one of the following statements about Ms. Mayawati, Ex. C.M. of U.P. is correct?
(A) She is now a member of the U.P. State Legislative Council.
(B) She is the leader of opposition in U.P. State Assembly.
(C) She is an elected member of the Rajya Sabha.
(D) She is a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha.
Ans : (C)

46. Who among the following sports personalities was the first to receive Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award? 
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Viswanathan Anand
(C) Geet Sethi (D) Sunil Gavaskar
Ans : (B)

47. Karagam is a folk dance of–
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka (D) Kerala
Ans : (B)

48. Who is the Union Minister for Information and Broadcasting ?
(A) Kumari Selja (B) Anand Sharma
(C) Manish Tewari (D) C. P. Joshi
Ans : (C)

49. Dronacharya Awards are given to–
(A) Outstanding teachers (B) Outstanding athletes
(C) Best performers in archery (D) Outstanding coaches in the sport field
Ans : (D)

50. Who among the following Union Ministers in the UPA-II Government resigned for reasons not connected with charges of corruption ?
(A) A. Raja (B) Dayanidhi Maran
(C) Dinesh Trivedi (D) Virbhadra Singh
Ans : (C)

Sunday, September 22, 2013

SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade-III Exam 2012 General Awareness Solved Paper

1. The value of a commodity expressed in terms of money is known as– 
(A) Price (B) Utility 
(C) Value (D) Wealth 
Ans : (A)

2. The Planning Commission of India was established in the year– 
(A) 1947 (B) 1949 
(C) 1950 (D) 1952 
Ans : (C)

3. Green Revolution was started in– 
(A) 1960 (B) 1970 
(C) 1980 (D) 1990 
Ans : (A)

4. The term of the Finance Commission is– 
(A) Ten years (B) Five years 
(C) Six years (D) Three years 
Ans : (B)

5. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in– 
(A) 1948 (B) 1947 
(C) 1949 (D) 1950 
Ans : (C)

6. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Vallabhbhai Patel 
Ans : (B)

7. Which one of the following methods is used to ascertain the public opinion on important legislation?
(A) Initiative (B) Recall 
(C) Referendum (D) None of the above 
Ans : (C)

8. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by– 
(A) 24th Amendment (B) 39th Amendment 
(C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment 
Ans : (C)

9. The final authority to interpret our Constitution is the– 
(A) President (B) Parliament 
(C) Prime Minister (D) Supreme Court 
Ans : (D)

10. Compared with Society, the scope of State activity is– 
(A) Wider (B) Narrow 
(C) Just equal (D) No comparison between the two 
Ans : (A)

11. Seleucus Nicator was defeated by– 
(A) Asoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya 
(C) Bindusara (D) Brihadratha 
Ans : (B)

12. The striking feature of the Indus Valley Civilisation was– 
(A) Urban Civilisation (B) Agrarian Civilisation 
(C) Mesolithic Civilisation (D) Paleolithic Civilisation 
Ans : (A)

13. The Governor-General who abolished the practice of Sati was– 
(A) Dalhousie (B) Ripon
(C) William Bentinck (D) Curzon
Ans : (C)

14. The famous Bhakti Saint who belonged to the royal family of Mewar was– 
(A) Chaitanya (B) Andal 
(C) Meerabai (D) Ramabai
Ans : (C)

15. After Alexander's death the Eastern part of his empire came under– 
(A) Seleucus Nicator (B) Menander 
(C) Rudradaman (D) Kanishka 
Ans : (A)

16. The Thar Express goes to– 
(A) Afghanistan (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Pakistan (D) Myanmar 
Ans : (C)

17. The product used for manufacturing of Industrial alcohol is– 
(A) Khandasari (B) Bagasse 
(C) Molasses (D) Paper-pulp 
Ans : (C)

18. Guwahati is situated on the bank of the river– 
(A) Teesta (B) Brahmaputra 
(C) Hooghly (D) Sone 
Ans : (B)

19. Kanchenjunga is situated in– 
(A) Nepal (B) Sikkim 
(C) West Bengal (D) Himachal Pradesh 
Ans : (B)

20. With which set of following countries has Arunachal Pradesh common border? 
(A) Bhutan, Bangladesh & China (B) Myanmar, Bangladesh & China 
(C) Bhutan, China & Myanmar (D) Bhutan, Bangladesh & Myanmar 
Ans : (C)

21. The green colour of the leaves is due to the presence of– 
(A) Proteins (B) Lipids 
(C) Chlorophyll (D) Carbohydrates 
Ans : (C)

22. The edible part of an onion is– 
(A) Modified root (B) Aerial flower 
(C) Aerial stem (D) Fleshy leaves 
Ans : (D)

23. To which group of blood a universal recipient belongs ? 
(A) A group (B) B group 
(C) O group (D) AB group 
Ans : (D)

24. The normal body temperature of human beings is– 
(A) 96. 4ºF (B) 97.4ºF 
(C) 98. 4ºF (D) 99.4ºF 
Ans : (C)

25. Columba livia is the scientific name of– 
(A) Pigeon (B) Snake 
(C) Rabbit (D) Shark 
Ans : (A)

26. Bones are pneumatic in– 
(A) Fishes (B) Amphibians 
(C) Reptiles(D) Birds 
Ans : (D)

27. Name the process of production of energy in the Sun– 
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Radioactivity 
(C) Nuclear fusion (D) Ionization 
Ans : (C)

28. A spherical ball made of steel when dropped in mercury container will– 
(A) sink in mercury (B) will be on the surface of mercury 
(C) will be partly immersed in mercury (D) will dissolve in mercury 
Ans : (C)

29. The sounds having a frequency of 20 Hertz to 20,000 Hertz are known as– 
(A) Audible sounds (B) Ultrasonics 
(C) Infrasonics (D) Megasonics 
Ans : (A)

30. Eclipses occur due to which optical phenomena? 
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction 
(C) Rectilinear propagation (D) Diffraction 
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following produces highest amount of energy upon oxidation? 
(A) Protein (B) Fat 
(C) Glucose (D) An alkane 
Ans : (C)

32. Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because it is– 
(A) feebly ionized (B) not volatile 
(C) a very good solvent 
(D) a non-polar solvent 
Ans : (A)

33. Where is National Chemical Laboratory (NCL) located? 
(A) Chandigarh (B) Bhavnagar 
(C) Pune (D) Panaji 
Ans : (C)

34. The metals commonly used for electroplating are– 
(A) Gold, Sodium & Chromium (B) Chromium, Copper & Nickel 
(C) Nickel, Lead & Chromium (D) Gold, Sodium & Potassium 
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following in automobile exhaust can cause cancer? 
(A) Oxides of nitrogen (B) Carbon monoxide 
(C) Lead (D) Polyclinic hydrocarbons 
Ans : (B)

36. Bleaching powder is used in drinking water as a/an– 
(A) disinfectant (B) antibiotic 
(C) antiseptic (D) coagulant 
Ans : (A)

37. Gamma rays have greatest similarity with– 
(A) α-rays (B) β-rays 
(C) X-rays (D) U.V.-rays 
Ans : (C)

38. In the absence of ozone layer, which rays will enter into atmosphere? 
(A) Infrared (B) Visible 
(C) Ultraviolet (D) X-xays 
Ans : (C)

39. Where are programs and data to be used by the computer available? 
(A) Processing Unit (B) Output 
(C) Storage (D) Input 
Ans : (C)

40. In HTML, and tags display the enclosed text in– 
(A) black colour (B) background 
(C) bold (D) bright 
Ans : (C)

41. Who invented chloroform as anaesthetic ? 
(A) James Simpson (B) Edward Jenner 
(C) Alexander Fleming (D) Christian Barnard 
Ans : (A)

42. The Nobel Prize for Chemistry for the year 2011 has been awarded to– 
(A) Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt & Adam G. Riess 
(B) Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann & Ralph M. Steinman 
(C) Christopher A. Sims & Thomas J. Sargent 
(D) Dan Schechtman 
Ans : (D)

43. Sebastian Vettel won the Formula 1 Indian Grand Prix held at Greater Noida on October 30, 2011. This was also his ……….. win of the season.
(A) 10th (B) 11th 
(C) 12th (D) 13th 
Ans : (B)

44. Of which of the following States of India is Kuchipudi a dance-drama? 
(A) Odisha (B) Andhra Pradesh 
(C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu 
Ans : (B)

45. With which of the following was Satyajit Ray associated ? 
(A) Classical dance (B) Journalism 
(C) Classical music (D) Direction of films 
Ans : (D)

46. Census data released on July 15, 2011 reflects that 13.48 percent urban population lives in– 
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar 
(C) Maharashtra (D) Rajasthan 
Ans : (C)

47. National Social Assistance Programme is aimed at providing– 
(A) financial support to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (B) old age pension to very poor 
(C) insurance for the poor (D) All of the above 
Ans : (D)

48. As per studies, the Tummalapalle mine in Andhra Pradesh could have Uranium reserve of– 
(A) 1 lakh tonnes (B) 1.5 lakh tonnes 
(C) 2 lakh tonnes (D) 2.5 lakh tonnes 
Ans : (B)

49. Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival? 
(A) Makar Sakranti (B) Yugadi 
(C) Onam (D) Rongali Bihu 
Ans : (D)

50. The least populated State in India is– 
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Sikkim 
(C) Mizoram (D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)

Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam (Tier-I) 2012 General Awareness Solved Paper

1. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of– 
(A) stock of goods and services (B) all final goods and services produced in a year 
(C) goods produced for the market only (D) goods produced for the market and for self consumption 
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve? 
(A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly 
(C) Oligopoly (D) Monopolistic competition 
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following pairs is not correct? 
(A) I Plan – (1951 – 1956) 
(B) III Plan – (1966 – 1971) 
(C) Xl Plan – (2007 – 2012) 
(D) VI Plan – (1980 – 1985) 
Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following institutions deals with credit to Agriculture and Rural Development ? 
(A) IDBI (B) NABARD 
(C) SIDBI (D) ICICI 
Ans : (B)

5. As per the results of the 2011 Population Census, which of the following groups occupies the three top places in respect of literacy ? 
(A) Kerala, Goa, West Bengal (B) Chandigarh, Goa, Kerala 
(C) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram (D) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura 
Ans : (C)

6. District Judges in a State are appointed by the– 
(A) Advocate-General of the State (B) Council of Ministers of the State 
(C) Governor (D) Chief Justice of High Court 
Ans : (C)

7. Who will head the Jury of the Awards Committees of Padma Ratna and other highest honorary awards ?
(A) President of India (B) Vice-President of if India
(C) Home Minister (D) Prime Minister of India 
Ans : (B)

8. Most important responsibility of a Welfare State is– 
(A) to preserve private property (B) to promote religion of the people 
(C) to check exploitation (D) to check encroachments on Fundamental Rights
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following statements are correct? 
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and Bhutan. 
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal. 
3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar. 
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2 
(C) 2, 3 (D) 1, 3 
Ans : (A)

10. Arrange the following Presidents in chronological order as to who came first and who came later– 
1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 2. Zakir Hussain 
3. Justice Hidayatullah 4. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam 
(A) 3, 2, 1, 4 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1 
Ans : (B)

11. Which one of the following events are chronologically correct ? 
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan 
(B) The Cabinet Mission Plan – Civil Disobedience Movement – Quit India Movement 
(C) Quit India Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement – Cabinet Mission Plan 
(D) Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan – Quit India Movement 
Ans : (A)

12. Who founded the Vikramasila University ? 
(A) Dhruva (B) Devapala 
(C) Dharmapala (D) Mahipala 
Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following was not known during the Rigvedic period ? 
(A) Joint family system (B) Agriculture 
(C) Varna system (caste) (D) Marriage system 
Ans : (C)

14. Match the following– 
Dynasty 
a. Pallavas b. Chalukyas
c. Rashtrakutas d. Hoysalas 
Founder 
1. Dantidurg 2. Vishnuvardhan 
3. Simhavishnu 4. Pulakesin I 
a b c d 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 3 4 1 2 
(C) 1 4 2 3 
(D) 4 3 2 1 
Ans : (B)

15. Abul Fazl wrote– 
(A) Babur-Nama (B) Humayun-Nama 
(C) Akbar-Nama (D) Alamgir-Nama 
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is called the ‘Crossroads of the Pacific’ ? 
(A) Tonga (B) Fiji 
(C) Hawaii (D) Ellice 
Ans : (B)

17. Which one of the following is an act of man that disturbs the ecological balance? 
(A) Vanamahotsav (B) Afforestation 
(C) Lumbering (D) Social forestry 
Ans : (C)

18. Which one is not correctly matched? 
(A) Longcoy – Russia (B) Rhine – Germany 
(C) Glasgow – Great Britain (D) Pittsburg – USA 
Ans : (A)

19. How many States in India are coastal ? 
(A) 7 (B) 8 
(C) 9 (D) 10 
Ans : (C)

20. International boundary between India and Pakistan is demarcated by– 
(A) McMahon Line (B) Durand Line 
(C) Radcliffe Line (D) Maginot Line 
Ans : (C)

21. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plant kingdom ? 
(A) Algae (B) Fungi 
(C) Bryophyta (D) Pteridophyta 
Ans : (C)

22. Find the odd one out– 
(A) Hookworm (B) Guinea worm 
(C) Tapeworm (D) Ringworm 
Ans : (D)

23. National Institute of Nutrition is a research institute located in the State of– 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh 
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh 
Ans : (A)

24. A tree’s age can be found by– 
(A) measuring its height (B) counting the number of annual rings 
(C) counting the number of branches (D) no means 
Ans : (B)

25. The left aortic arch is observed in– 
(A) Amphibians (B) Mammals 
(C) Reptiles (D) Aves 
Ans : (B)

26. Tendon connects– 
(A) Bone to bone (B) Muscle to bone 
(C) Bone to muscle (D) Muscle to muscle 
Ans : (B)

27. Mercury is generally used in thermometers because it has a– 
(A) high fluidity (B) high density 
(C) high conductivity (D) high specific heat 
Ans : (C)

28. To an observer on the lunar surface, during daytime, the sky will appear to be– 
(A) Light yellow (B) Blue 
(C) Orange (D) Black 
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following quantities is the measure of ‘inertia’ ? 
(A) Velocity (B) Acceleration 
(C) Mass (D) Weight 
Ans : (C)

30. The intensity of a wave– 
1. follows inverse square law. 
2. is proportional to its amplitude. 
3. is proportional to the square of the amplitude. 
(A) 1 and 2 are true (B) 2 and 3 are true 
(C) Only 2 is true (D) 1 and 3 are true 
Ans : (D)

31. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time ? 
(A) Super duplex (B) Simplex 
(C) Half duplex (D) Full duplex 
Ans : (D)

32. What does the acronym ISDN stand for? 
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network (B) Integrated Services Digital Network 
(C) Intelligent Services Digital Network (D) Integrated Services Data Network 
Ans : (B)

33. Darkening property of photo- 
chromatic glass is due to the presence of 
(A) silver bromide (B) silver oxide 
(C) silver nitrate (D) silver chloride 
Ans : (D)

34. Supersonic aircrafts discharge the following substance into the stratosphere: 
(A) NOx (B) SOx 
(C) CO2 (D) H2
Ans : (B)

35. Chemical nature of laughing gas is– 
(A) Nitric oxide (B) Hydrogen chloride 
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Sulphur dioxide 
Ans : (C)

36. The difference between isotopes of an element is due to the presence of a different number of– 
(A) protons (B) neutrons 
(C) electrons (D) photons 
Ans : (B)

37. The increasing abundance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects except– 
(A) Global warming (B) Depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere 
(C) Oxygen fertilisation effect (D) Carbon dioxide fertilisation effect
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution? 
(A) Diesel (B) Kerosene 
(C) Hydrogen (D) Coal 
Ans : (C)

39. Minamata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution in water by– 
(A) Lead (B) Mercury 
(C) Fluoride (D) DDT 
Ans : (B)

40. Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of– 
(A) 0.2 ppm (B) 0.3 ppm 
(C) 3.0 ppm (D) 9.0 ppm 
Ans : (D)

41. The first President to sail in a submarine in India was– 
(A) K. R. Narayanan (B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 
(C) V.V. Giri (D) N. Sanjeeva Reddy 
Ans : (B)

42. Cooking vessels have wooden or bakelite handles because– 
(A) wood and bakelite are bad conductors of heat (B) the handle must be strong 
(C) the handle should be attractive (D) None of the above 
Ans : (A)

43. “Deshbandhu” is the title of– 
(A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) C. R. Das 
(C) B. C. Pal (D) Rabindranath Tagore 
Ans : (B)

44. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect? 
(A) Jeev Milkha Singh – Golf 
(B) Irfan Pathan – Cricket 
(C) Abhinav Bindra – Rifle shooting 
(D) Sania Mirza – Badminton 
Ans : (D)

45. In which of the following States, is the child-sex ratio the lowest as per the 2011 Census ? 
(A) Haryana (B) Punjab 
(C) Chhattisgarh (D) Bihar 
Ans : (A)

46. Kaziranga ational Park is situated in– 
(A) Odisha (B) Gujarat 
(C) Rajasthan (D) Assam 
Ans : (D)

47. Who is the author of the book ‘If Cricket is Religion, Sachin is God’ ? 
(A) Vijai Santhanam (B) Shyam Balasubramaniam 
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sunder Lal Bahuguna? 
(A) He is an eminent environmentalist 
(B) He was awarded Padma Bhushan in 2009 
(C) He started the ‘Chipko Movement’ to create awareness of deforestation 
(D) He was elected to Lok Sabha from Uttarkashi in Uttarakhand 
Ans : (D)

49. The three countries, in serial order, who won the highest number of Gold medals in the Beijing Olympics Games were– 
(A) China, USA, Russia (B) China, USA, Germany 
(C) China, Germany, Australia (D) China, Germany, USA 
Ans : (A)

50. The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is– 
(A) Sister Desouza (B) Sister Madorana 
(C) Sister Alphonsa (D) Sister Nirmala
Ans : (C)