Wednesday, March 2, 2011
SSC CONSTABLE (GD) MODEL SOLVED PAPER
1. Nandini stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km (B) 8 km
(C) 16 km (D) 10 km
2. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma (B) Kajal
(C) Ankita (D) None of these
3. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK : ?
(A) NUTL (B) NTTJ
(C) NTTL (D) LTRS
4. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown (B) Room
(C) Pen (D) Chair
5. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain? (A) 24 (B) 23
(C) 22 (D) 25
6. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 :15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30 (B) 6 : 00
(C) 6 : 15 (D) 4 : 20
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24 (B) 57
(C) 58 (D) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be:
(A) 8, 9, 8 (B) 9, 8, 8
(C) 10, 1, 6 (D) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626 (B) 112144
(C) 447355 (D) 869756
10. Introducing a man, a woman says, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Uncle (B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle
11. Air is to atmosphere as water is to
(A) biosphere (B) stratosphere
(C) ecosphere (D) hydrosphere
12. Choose the number from the given answers to replace the question mark?
240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 480 (B) 240
(C) 180 (D) 420
13. Foot is to hand as leg is to
(A) Elbow (B) Toe
(C) Finger (D) Arm
14. Daughter is to father as niece is to
(A) Nephew (B) Cousin
(C) Uncle (D) Mother
15. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29 (B) 28
(C) 30 (D) 27
16. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780 (B) 8354
(C) 4892 (D) 3478
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) March (B) January
(C) July (D) June
18. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest ?
(A) M (B) R
(C) M or R (D) Q
19. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Varma said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Varma related to the lady?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle
(C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother
20. Surendra introduces "Raju as the son of the only brother of his father's wife". How is Raju related to Surendra?
(A) Cousin (B) Son
(C) Uncle (D) Brother
21. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fist in a certain language, what is the colour of the sky called in that language ? (A) Blue (B) Fish
(C) Rain (D) Pink
22. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576 (B) 895
(C) 783 (D) 394
23. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 11 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 2
24. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 1 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 27
25. Complete the series ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
General Knowledge and General Awareness
26. Which government income is included in revenue budget ?
(A) Tax-revenue (B) Non-tax-revenue
(C) Both of above (D) None of the above
27. The tomb of Babur is at
(A) Kabul (B) Lahore
(C) Multan (D) Larkhana
28. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
29. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
30. Devaluation of currency leads to
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
31. Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as
(A) Dry deciduous
(B) Dry evergreen
(C) Tropical moist deciduous
(D) Tropical moist evergreen
32. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(D) Government bonds
33. Which one of the following pairs of seas does the Suez Canal connect?
(A) Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean
(B) Mediterranean Sea- Black Sea
(C) Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea
(D) Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean
34. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
(A) the speaker
(B) the president
(C) chairman of Rajyasabha
(D) none of these
35. Odissi is the dance style of:
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andra Pradesh
36. Who invented the telephone:
(C) Alexander Graham Bell
(D) Thomas Edison
37. In S.H.G. (Self Help Group) most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
(A) Members (B) Government
(C) Bank (D) NGO
38. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
(A) Poland (B) Denmark
(C) Finland (D) Norway
39. The Kiel Canal links the ?
(A) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
(B) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(D) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
40. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at
(A) Jaipur (B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur (D) Hyderabad
41. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
42. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ?
(A) 1972 (B) 1973
(C) 1974 (D) 1975
43. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Rajaraja Chola
(B) Mahendra Varman
(C) Narsimha Varman
(D) Narsimha Chola
44. Which of the following is not a bone in the
(A) Sternum (B) Humerus
(C) Pericardium (D) Tibia
45. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(A) two (B) three
(C) five (D) eight
46. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with
(A) Basket Ball (B) Football
(C) Cricket (D) Hockey
47. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya (D) Tamilnadu
48. Government is going to merge Annapurna Scheme with
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) National Old Age Pension Scheme
(C) National Food for Work Programme
(D) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
49. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952 (B) 1940
(C) 1942 (D) 1999
50. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 percent (B) 3 to 4 percent
(C) 4 to 5 percent (D) 5 to 6 percent
51. A group of boys contributed as many rupees each for their trip as they were in number. The total collection came to Rs. 841. How many boys were there in the group?
(A) 21 (B) 29
(C) 31 (D) 41
52. If 'x' men can do a piece of work in 8 days and x+4 men can do the same work in 6 days. Then x is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 24
53. In a triangle, two sides of 12 cm and 5 cm are at right angles. If the triangle is revolved along the 12cm side, the curved surface of the cone so formed will be (A) 156 cm2 (B) 78 cm2
(C) 65 cm2 (D) 130 cm2
54. Two men together start a journey in the same direction. They travel 9 and 15 kilometer/ day respectively daily. After traveling for 6 days the man traveling 9 km/day doubles his speed and both of them finish the distance, in the same time. Find the number of days taken by them to reach the destination.
(A) 36 (B) 21
(C) 18 (D) 12
55. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 265 marks and is declared fail by 55 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(A) 800 (B) 750
(C) 650 (D) 850
56. A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar
enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(A) Rs. 16 per kg (B) Rs. 8 per kg
(C) Rs. 4 per kg (D) Rs. 2 per kg
57. 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(A) 700 (B) 650
(C) 600 (D) 550
58. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is:
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 9
59. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is
(A) 24/5 % (B) 4 %
(C) 3 % (D) 10/3 %
60. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is:
(A) 9% (B) 10%
(C) 18% (D) 900/ 109 %
61. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 % (B) 5%
(C) 1/12 % (D) 5/24 %
62. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is:
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 200
63. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210C to 380C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50C (B) 270C
(C) 300C (D) 320C
64. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 156. what is the value of thrice the larget even number ? (A) 124 (B) 128
(C) 126 (D) 134
65. Train fare between nagpar and Nasik for one child. I f adul’s train fare is Rs.102 how much amount will be paid by 3 adults and 4 children together for travelling the same distance ?
(A) Rs:432 (B) Rs:532
(C) Rs:612 (D) Rs:440
66. 1148 28 1408 32 = ?
(A) 1800 (B) 1804
(C) 1814 (D) 1822
(A) 51 (B) 59
(C) 53 (D) 49
68. 3.2% of 500 2.4% of ? = 288
(A) 650 (B) 700
(C) 600 (D) 750
69. In a mixture of 60 liters the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1: 2, then the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 60
70. of of of 490 = ?
(A) 115 (B) 105
(C) 108 (D) 116
71. 13.5 16.4 7.2 = ?
(A) 1554.38 (B) 1526.28
(C) 1594.08 (D) 1582.18
72. 25% of 424 – ?% of 454 = 37.9
(A) 26 (B) 19
(C) 21 (D) 15
73. A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is ?
(A) 15 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 20
74. Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?
(A) Rs. 300 (B) Rs. 350
(C) Rs. 375 (D) Rs. 475
75. A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
(A) Rs. 950 (B) Rs. 980
(C) Rs. 1010 (D) Rs. 1040
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer.
76. In an effort (A) / to make peace (B) / Priya spoke separately (C) / to both the person. (D)
77. They had a narrow escape (A) / when skating as (B) / roaring avalanche (C) / just missed them. (D)
78. The movie star should not have (A) / allowed the press (B) / at the scene had he (C) / known about the fuss. (D)
Directions : Choose the most appropriate word from the given options to fill up the blank in the sentence.
79. When he reached the doctors house he ....... out already.
(A) Went (B) gone
(C) has gone (D) had gone
80. The Government agreed to pay compensation ......... damaged crops, land and catle.
(A) to (B) through
(C) for (D) of
Directions : Choose the Antyonym of the following :
(A) Moderate (B) Accuse
(C) Watchful (D) Acquire
(A) Disentangle (B) Improper
(C) Devoid (D) Renovate
Directions : Choose the Synonym of the following :
(A) Epidemic (B) Whirling
(C) Occasional (D) Stagnant
(A) Flattering (B) Sickening
(C) Exciting (D) Sleep-producing
Directions : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.
85. (A) hurried (B) hundered (2)
(C) hindrance (D) hatred
86. (A) dance (B) damsal (4)
(C) dismal (D) dismisal
87. (A) honour (B) honourable (3)
(C) honourary (D) honorarium
Directions : In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
While it may suit adult students very well it is very doubtful whether correspondence education would be qdequate for undergraduates of the usual college age group of sixteen to twenty. Young people in their teems need the discipline and the supervision of a regular college course with all that it involves in the observance of an integrated schedule of work and play the personal association with teachers, and the psychological stimulus provided by competition with other students. There are obvious exceptions of course, such as the physically handicapped, who cannot get full value from a normal college education, but on the whole this distinction between young students and mature scholars is valid enough. It is therefore evident that the correspondence system of education. with provide access to higher. studies to people who would otherwise be danced it, but it will do little to ease the pressure on existing colleges.
88. Correspondence courses are most suitable for :
(C) Those who are between sixteen and twenty
(D) none of the above
89. Correspondence courses are designed in such a way as to :
(A) enforce better discipline in schools and colleges.
(B) Stimulate the students for competition.
(C) gain a personal association with teachers through correspondence.
(D) enable those who could not as adults attend colleges to obtain education if they so desire.
90. The difference between the young students and mature scholars is :
(A) that the former are more disciplined than the latter.
(B) that the latter need lesser personal attention than the former.
(C) that the former are more competitive than the latter.
(D) that the latter are psychologically better equipped than the former.
91. A regular college course for youngsters is desirable because :
(A) they cannot carry on with their studies independently.
(B) that ensures a neatly arranged programme of academic work that is proper for their age.
(C) they always need the assistance of teachers to study properly.
(D) otherwise, they will be physically and mentally handicapped.
92. The correspondence system of education is expected to :
(A) reduce the quantum of rush to the colleges existing at present.
(B) bring about no change in the pattern of admissions to colleges.
(C) creat more opportunities for the weaker sections to obtain higher education
(D) increase the number of educated unemployed in the country.
Directions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It called for help from the jackal to get out of the well. But the jackal ran away smiling and with the pride of having …(93)… the poor goat. On the way he met a cat. Most sarcastically he told the cat, “Oh ! You lot is really pitiable. For food you have to …(94)… on left-overs. You have to go to the backside of houses, hotels or garbage dumps for your food. I catch fouls, kill and eat them.” When he was …(95)… like this some hunting dogs came that way. The cat was clever. It jumped up on a tree. But the jackal had …(97)… to go. Even though it tried to run, the hunting dogs …(97)… it and killed it. All his slyness, could not save him, from his doom.
93. (A) won (B) gained
(C) ditch (D) cheated
94. (A) depend (B) hunt
(C) wait (D) bent
95. (A) whispering (B) moaning
(C) boasting (D) crying
96. (A) everywhere (B) nowhere
(C) not (D) place
97. (A) avoided (B) catch
(C) powered (D) overpowered
Directions: From the four words, identify the one which can be substituted for the senteces in questions.
98. Life history of a person written by another
(A) Autobiography (B) Biography
(C) Bibliography (D) Memoir
99. A post without remuneration
(A) Voluntary (B) Sinecure
(C) Honorary (D) Involuntary
100.One who cannot die
(A) Stable (B) Immortal
(C) Perpetual (D) Perennial
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C
15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. C 55. A 56. C 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. C 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. C 83. C 84. D 85. B 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. D 90. B
91. B 92. B 93. D 94. A 95. C 96. B 97. D 98. B 99. C 100. B
Various Competitive Examinations
Staff Selection Commission conducts the following competitive examinations every year.
1) For candidates having qualification of only Matriculation, they are eligible to apply for the Combined Matric Level Examination. In the same examination, those who are having Stenography speed of 80 WPM can apply for Stenographer also. Combined Matric Level Examination for posts of LDCs and Stenographers is conducted in 3 stages. The preliminary examination is of objective type is conducted to shortlist candidates for next examination i.e. Main Examination and the candidates who qualify in the main examination are to appear in a typewriting test/stenographer test for final selection.
There are various examinations for graduates such as, Tax Assistant, Combined Graduate Level, Sub-Inspectors in CPOs, Section Officer(Audit). However, the graduates in Commerce, in addition to the above, can also apply for Section Officer(Commercial) examination. The graduates in Economics/Statistics/ Maths. can apply for Statistical Investigator also in addition to all the above examination except Section Officer(Commercial). The Engineering graduates are in addition to above, are eligible to appear the Junior Engineer exam. conducted by the Commission. For the candidates having degree in Hindi, are eligible apply for Junior Hindi Translators also.
The details of various examinations are as follows :
2) Combined Graduate Examination for posts of Inspector in Income Tax/Central Excise/Department of Post, Sub-Inspector in CBI, Assistant, Divisional Accountant, Auditor, Junior Accountant, UDC etc.
This examination is also conducted in 3 stages i.e. preliminary, Main and Interview for mostly group ‘B’ non-gazetted posts. However, for posts of Auditors, UDC, Jr. Accountants, no interview is conducted and candidates are selected on the basis of their performance in the main examination.
3) Sub-Inspector in CPO (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP,SSB) Examination – Only one written examination is conducted for this examination, followed by a physical, medical test and interview. There is some relaxation in height for the candidates belonging to North-Eastern Region.
4) Section Officer(Audit) & Section Officer(Commercial) Examination – These examinations also consist of only one written examination followed by a interview. The posts of Section Officers are mainly exists in Accountant General offices located all over the country.
5) Junior Engineers Examination – It consist of only one written examination followed by an interview for posts of Junior Engineers in CPWD.
6) Tax Assistant Examination – This examination is conducted for selection of candidates for posts of Tax Assistant in Central Excise/Income Tax department. It consist of a written paper followed by a skill test in computer typing.
7) Junior Hindi Translator Examination – One written test followed by an interview is the selection criteria for this post.
8) Selection Posts – In addition to the above, some specialized posts like Chemist, Computer typist, Research Assistant, Hindi Translator etc. in central government offices located in north eastern region are conducted by SSC(NER), Guwahati. For those posts, generally no written test is conducted. The short-listed candidates are selected on the basis of an interview only. For getting shortlisted for any selection post, the candidate should enclose all experience certificates/extra curricular certificates though the same are not asked for.
Advertisement of examinations :
All the advertisements of competitive examinations even an advertisement for a single post are published in the Employment News. However, there was a complaint about non-availability of Employment News in some areas. In order to facilitate the candidates of North Eastern Region, Short notices of the advertisements are sent for publication in all leading local newspapers and also sent to all the local stations of All India Radio/Doordarshan for broadcast. Now-a-days, applications forms of various competitive examinations can also be downloaded from the website of the Staff Selection Commission-(http//www.ssc.nic.in).
Contents of the competitive examinations :
A simple graduate candidate can easily qualify in any SSC examination if he/she has the thorough knowledge of his own subject and keeps an eye on current affairs etc. Model questions of SSC examinations in the form of guide books are also available in the market. Also knowledge of present day happenings in the country as well as the world as available in the Newspapers are a must for cracking the examination.
How to apply :
Before filling up any application form of any examination, candidates should read the instructions given in the advertisement to avoid rejection of their application form. Since the data of all the candidates are entered and monitored in Computers, data once entered against a candidate, cannot be rectified or changed later on. Application Form can be typed/hand written but it should be same as published, signature should be put in all places wherever prescribed.
Evaluation of Answer Sheets :
Objective type questions that are required to be answered by tick marks/darkening are evaluated by Computer (Optical Mark Reader).Candidate should be careful in handling the OMR Answer Sheet. Making dirty the OMR sheet and any kind of fold may lead to non-evaluation of his answer sheet. Recently, a candidate who was selected for the post of Sub-Inspector in CISF against female quota was found to be male candidate later on. The candidate wrote the code no. 2 which means female instead of code no.1.Descriptive type questions are evaluated manually.
Interview of SSC are conducted in a candidates’ friendly atmosphere. To get through any interview, the candidate need not put any costly dress but should appear clean, smart and should be familiar about his own subject, native place, state of domicile, places of historical interest of the state etc. However, the interview board members are highly experienced/eminent personalities, confession in case of any doubtful/unconfirmed information will be appreciated by them instead of trying to mislead them.
Reservations of vacancies :
There are reservations of vacancies for SC/ST/OBC etc.as per government’s orders however; there is no reservation for any particular state. Vacancies are open to all and are filled up as per the merit of the candidates drawn on all India basis.
Common errors in submission of the application forms :-
During scrutiny of application forms, the following common errors are found committed by the candidates leading to cancellation of their candidature :-
a) Non pasting of photographs in proper place.
b) Not signing below the photograph and also in the declaration at the end.
c) Signing in capital letters instead of running hand.
d) Non affixing of CRFS.
e) Non cancellation of CRFS.
f) Non submission of requisite documents in support of Date of Birth, Caste/Tribe Certificate and Educational Qualification.
g) Non submission of application form before closing date.