STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION- DELHI GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Delhi Exam Questions


1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 198986. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

Junior Translators (CSOLs)/ Junior Hindi Translators Examination Pattern

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:
The examination will consist of two parts, viz.
PART-I - Written Examination, carrying 400 marks; and
PART-II - Personality Test (Interview), carrying 100 Marks.
PART-I:
Written Examination: The Written Examination will be held on 28.11.2010 and will consist of two papers. The
maximum marks allotted to each paper and the duration of each paper will be as under:-

 

NOTE-I : Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. Paper-II
shall be evaluated in respect of only those candidates, who attain a minimum
qualifying standard in Paper-I as may be fixed at the discretion of the Commission.
NOTE-II: Candidates are not permitted to use Mobile Phones, Calculators or any other
electronic / electrical device for answering any paper (Test Booklets).
Candidates must not, therefore, bring Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other
electronic / electrical device inside the Examination premises. Possession of these
items , whether in use or not, will be considered as “use of unfair means” in the
Examination and appropriate action will be taken by the Commission against such
candidates, as per extant policy of the Commission.
NOTE-III: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I.
Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
NOTE-IV: Canvassing in any form will disqualify the candidates.
PART-II:
PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW: 100 Marks
NOTE-I: Only those candidates who secure in the written examination the minimum qualifying marks as may
be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview. The
interview will be held at the Commission's Regional /Sub-Regional Offices or at any other place as
decided by the Commission.
NOTE-II: SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid TA as per Govt. Orders. However, no TA is
payable to any candidate for appearing in the written examination.
SYLLABUS
Paper-I:
a) General Hindi : 100 marks (Objective type)
b) General English : 100 marks (Objective type)
The questions will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of the language, correct use of
words,phrases and idioms and ability to write language correctly, precisely and effectively.
Paper-II:
Translation and Essay: 200 Marks (Conventional Type)
The paper will contain two passages for translation-one passage for translation from Hindi to English
and one passage for translation from English to Hindi, and an Essay each in Hindi and English to test
the candidates’ translation skills and their ability to write as well as comprehend the two languages
correctly, precisely and effectively

Junior Translators (CSOLs)/ Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)Examination, 2010

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Junior Translators (CSOLs)/ Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)Examination,  2010

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will hold on Sunday, the 28/11/2010 an open compettitive examination for recruitment to the post of Junior Translators (CSOLS)/ Junior Hindi Translators in various Offices/ Departments under Depaerment of of Official Language all over country.

• Junior Translators (CSOLs) (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted):  Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-
• Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)  (Group ‘C’ Non-Technical) : Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-
• Age Limit : 30 years as on 27/09/2010. Relaxation as per Govt. rules.
• 
  
  
  
  Fee : Rs. 100/- in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps available at Post Office. No fee for SC/ST/PH/Ex-Servicemen and Women candidates.

Closing Date : The last date for receipt of application in the commission will be 27/09/2010. For those candidates who are living in remote areas, the last date will be 04/10/2010.

Cantre of Examination and Address to which Applications should be sent : The applications should be addressed to the Regional Office of the SSC  for a particular test center/state where candidate wants to apply as stated in the detailed advertisement. 

1. Regional Director (NR), SSC, 5th Floor, Block No.12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Raod, New Delhi-110504
2. Regional Director (SR), SSC, E.V.K. Sampath Building, College Raod, Chennai-600006
3. Regional Director (ER), SSC, 1st MSO Building, 8th Floor, Nizam Palace, 234/4, AJC Bose Road, Kolkata-700020
4. Regional Director (WR), SSC, Army & Navy Building, 1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishtha Bhawan, Old CGO Complex, 101, M.K. Road, Mumbai-400020
5. Regional Director (CR), SSC, 8-AB, Beli Raod, Allahabad-211002
6. Regional Director (NER), SSC, Rukmini Nagar, P.O. Assam, Sachivalaya, Guwahati-781006
7. Regional Director (KKR), SSC, 1st Floor, 2nd Block, 'E' Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore-560034
8. Dy. Director (MPR), SSC, 'Nishant Villa', F.Jalvihar Colony, Raipur-492001
9. Dy. Director (NWR), SSC, Block No.3, Ground Floor, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017

For further details like scheme of examination, syllabus, application form etc., visit SSC website at  http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/JHTNotice2010.pdf and application format is available at http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/JHTApplicationForm.pdf

SSC 10+2 Level Exam

SSC  10+2 Level Exam Reasoning Model test paper

1.         If HARD is coded as    1357 and SOFT is
coded as 2468, what do the figures 21448 stand for?
(A) SHOP
(B) SCHOOL
(C) SHOOT
(D) SHOOL
Ans: C
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)215
(B) 143
(C)247
(D) 91
Ans : A
3. If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, how would you encode the word HATE?
(A) FGBCVUFG
(B) FGBCUVCD
(C) IJBGVUFG
(D) IJBCUVFG
Ans: D
4. In a row of thirty five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : D
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D)  Diamond
Ans : D
6. If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLB-KMLCW, how would you encode ‘MOST-
SECRET’?
Write the first and last letters only.
(A) R,K
(B) O,V
(C) K,R
(D) V,U
Ans: B
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE using each letter only once in each word?
(A)Three
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : A
8. If TOUR is coded as 1234 CLEAR is coded as 56784 and SPARE is coded as 90847, how you encode the word SCULPTURE?
(A) 953601347
(B) 935601437
(C) 567903417
(D) None of these
Ans: A
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : D
10. If A is coded 2, B is coded as 4  and C is coded 6,
what does the following number stand for?
12 10 10 8
(A) PEEP
(B) FEED
(C) DOOR
(D) DEAF
Ans: b
11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
Ans : D
12. If Sister is coded as 535301, Uncle is coded as 84670 and Boy is coded as 129, how will you encode the word ‘SON’?
(A) 923
(B) 524
(C) 342
(D) 872
Ans: b
13. Jn a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
(A)da
(B) ta
(C)na
(D)da or ta
Ans : D
14. If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as X8KOY and PULL is coded as BEMM then how would you encode the word PLEASURE?
(A) XYKBMOFK
(B) BMKOXEYK
(C) KOXFYKBM
(D) BKMOXEKY
Ans: B
Directions—(Q. 15-17) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below—
832 719 654 967 481
15.If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 15
Ans : A
16. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
(A) 144
(B) 133
(C) 385
(D) 182
Ans : A
17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
(A) 8
(B)11
(C) 15
(D)12
Directions—(Q. 18-24) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I ,II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III Some mirrors are balloons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
19. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
Ans : B
20. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : C
21. Statements:
All doors are windows. No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : B
22. Statements:
All rivers are wails.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are frees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(B) None of these
Ans : D
23. Statements:
Some letters are glasses. Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
III. Some buses are glasses.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
24. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
III. Some bricks are pens.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow
Ans : A
25. If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, what does the coded word RTNPMO stand for?
(A) SON
(B) CUT
(C) PEN
(D) DOG
Ans: A
26. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO. How is
STREAMS written in that code?
(A) SUTDBNT
(B) TUSDTNB
(C) SUTFTNB
(D) None of these
Ans : D
27. If the word GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as AXYZ then how would
you encode the word SPARROW?
(A) TRCTTOY
(B) ROMXYZY
(C) ROMXXYZ
(D) VSDUURZ
Ans: c
28. If 8514 stands for HEAD, 3945 stands for RIDE and 057 stands for BEG then what
does stand for GRADE?
(A) 13754
(B) 41357
(C) 14735
(D) 73145
Ans: d
29. If INDUS is coded as 03865 and TENNIS is coded as 243305 then STUDENT will be coded as:
(A) 5268432
(B) 5642832
(C) 5628342
(D) 5648324
Ans: a
30. ‘DEAN’ is related to ‘NDAE’ and ‘ROAD’ is related to ‘DRAO’ in the same way as ‘SOME’ is related to
(A)ESMO
(B) BOMS
(C)EMOS
(D) MSEO
Ans : A
31. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as
8571 and DRAW is code das 1708 then how
would you encode the word COWARD?
(A) 358017
(B) 358071
(C) 358077
(D) 507381
Ans: B
32. Among P, Q, T, A and B each having a different height, T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) None of these
Ans : D
33. Mohan correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is before twentieth January but after sixteenth January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after eighteenth January but before twenty-third January. On which date in January is definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Eighteenth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
34. If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be
the first and last letters of the coded word of
FATHER?
(A)GH
(B) G T
(C) D E
(D) P Q
Ans: b
Directions—(Q. 35—431) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R 5 H 6 E
* N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 & v # Y I
35. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty- first from the left end of the above arrangement?
(A)R
(B)1
(C)5
(DNone of these
Ans : D
36. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the right end?
(A)W
(B)6
(C)*
(D)R
Ans : D
37. How many such consonants are there in the above e arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
Ans : C
38. In which of the following com binations the first element is in between the second and the third elements in the above arrange
ment? -
(A)2%F
(B) 9©7
(C)5H6
(D) *EN
Ans : D
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)562
(B) WPU
(C)©9D
(D) &#T
(E)U3$
Ans : B
40. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
41. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
42. If LINE CLEAR is coded as OKQGFN HCU, what will be the first and last letters of the word for which the letters ZKUGS CUVXTH stand for?
(A) W E
(B) Z F
(C)YG
(D) Z H
Ans: A
43. In a certain code TRAIN is written as ‘39*7%’ and MEAL is written as ‘4$*@
How is ITEM written in that code?
(A)7$34
(B) 73$4
(C)79$4
(D) 73*4
Ans : B
44. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new set of letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement?
(A) M
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) K
Ans : B
45. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right of 3 after the rearrange ent?
(A)9
(B)7
(C)8
(D)2
Ans : A
46. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(A) R
(B) W
(C) R or W
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : C
47. lf ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, ‘P’, denotes ‘x’,‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and
‘V’ denotes‘-‘then14W16R4V3P5=?
(A) 15
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans : D
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A VY
(B) EB
(C) TQ
(D) IF
Ans : A
49. In a row of thirty children, M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Thirteenth
(C) Fourteenth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 169
(B) 441
(C) 361
(D) 529
Ans : B

SSC SAS EXAM PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER ( 26-06-2010)

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S.S.C. Tax Assistant Examination, 2008

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Examination, 2008(Held on 14-12-2008)General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.

1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible

12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need

13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion

14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless

15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent

16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide

17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor

18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand

19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent

20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite

22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste

23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination

24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity

25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose

26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity

27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient

28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly

29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative

30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise

32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious

33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate

34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway

35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport

36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary

37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation

38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither

39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible

40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos

42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly

43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with

44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest

45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for

46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected

47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think

48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate

49. At last the rioters fell back.(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back

50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.

51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism

52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature

53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent

54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable

55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier

Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us

57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop

58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?

59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him

60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt

Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement

62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement

63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement

64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement

65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement

Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—

66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP

67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR

68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS

69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR

70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS

Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.

71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off

72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many

73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with

74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have

75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was

76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over

77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done

78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged

79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with

80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it

Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage I(Question Nos. 81 to 85)

Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.

81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents

82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun

83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man

84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books

85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above

Passage II(Question Nos. 86 to 90)

From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.

In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.

86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus

87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed

88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate

89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period

90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety

Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

Passage

The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.

91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried

92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead

93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass

94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet

95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food

96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come

97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from

98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans

99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait

100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but

Answers with Hints1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)

SSC Section Officers (Commercial Audit) Exam., 2009

SSC Section Officers (Commercial Audit) Exam., 2009 

English Solved paper

(Held On 14–6–2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by choosing the appropriate alternative.
1. That which would burn easily.
(A) Incendiary
(B) Incantatory
(C) Inflammable
(D) Incandescent
Ans : (C)
2. Place of gathering for public discussion.
(A) Platform
(B) Dias
(C) Stage
(D) Forum
Ans : (D)
3. An addition to the end of a letter.
(A) Post script
(B) Prelude
(C) Post natal
(D) Post mortem
Ans : (A)
4. Young cow that has not yet had a calf.
(A) Cowlet
(B) Colt
(C) Ewe
(D) Heifer
Ans : (D)
5. A mournful song (or poem) for the dead.
(A) Ballad
(B) Dirge
(C) Ode
(D) Lyric
Ans : (B)
6. The dead skin cast off by a snake.
(A) Bough
(B) Slough
(C) Peeling
(D) Borough
Ans : (B)
7. Science dealing with bird life.
(A) Zymology
(B) Ornithology
(C) Etymology
(D) Philology
Ans : (B)
8. One who is from 60 to 69 years old.
(A) Sexton
(B) Sexologist
(C) Sexagenarian
(D) Sextuplet
Ans : (C)
9. Someone who keeps bees.
(A) Apiarist
(B) Horticulturist
(C) Ornithologist
(D) Pathologist
Ans : (A)
10. Speaking one’s thoughts aloud to oneself.
(A) Apostrophise
(B) Memorise
(C) Soliloquize
(D) Solemnise
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and indicate your correct response.
11. (A) Unaccompanied
(B) Unaccustomed
(C) Unadopted
(D) Unaloyed
Ans : (D)
12. (A) Boutique
(B) Physique
(C) Opaque
(D) Obleeque
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Admitting
(B) Budgetting
(C) Preferring
(D) Travelling
Ans : (B)
14. (A) Torpedoes
(B) Mosquitoes
(C) Pianoes
(D) Tomatoes
Ans : (C)
15. (A) Malignity
(B) Malodorus
(C) Malfeasance
(D) Malevolent
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct alternative.
16. When the boy was put into a boarding school, he quickly fell into line without his usual tantrums and indisciplined behaviour.
(A) stood in a line
(B) turned straight
(C) failed to behave properly
(D) became orderly
Ans : (D)
17. By his virtuous life, he has made amends for his past actions.
(A) repented for
(B) compensated for
(C) forgotten about
(D) suffered for
Ans : (A)
18. He read for the bar.
(A) studied to become a barrister
(B) studied to become a barman
(C) studied to become a judge
(D) studied to become a courtier
Ans : (A)
19. In the field of social service, the Parsis bear the palm.
(A) are the leaders
(B) are the donors
(C) are pre-eminent
(D) are reformers
Ans : (C)
20. He is always trying to curry favour with his boss and does not even maintain his selfrespect.
(A) get obligation from
(B) pick up quarrel with
(C) flatter
(D) take undue advantage from
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21–30) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and indicate your correct response.
21. How are you going to have your car painted?
I am going to have it red painted.
(A) paint it red
(B) have it painted red
(C) paint red
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
22. He is one who gives money or helps others who has been instrumental in the upliftment of many poverty stricken people.
(A) a philosopher
(B) a philatelist
(C) a philanthropist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
23. The job wasn’t interesting, but on the contrary it was wellpaid.
(A) on the whole
(B) on the other side
(C) on the other hand
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
24. When those whom he had injured accused him of being a charlatan, he retorted curtly that he had never been a quack.
(A) libertine
(B) sycophant
(C) plagiarist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)
25. The postman comes twice a day, don’t he ?
(A) doesn’t he
(B) does he
(C) do he
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
26. My boy-friend won me at tennis.
(A) succeeded me
(B) outran me
(C) beat me
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
27. It was mere affection that stopped him from beating his son.
(A) great
(B) much
(C) filial
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
28. The British superiority all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.
(A) domicile
(B) residence
(C) dominion
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
29. Did you finish the work yet ?
(A) Had you finished
(B) Haven’t you finished
(C) Would you finish
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
30. I’ll tell you as soon as I’ll know.
(A) I would know
(B) I can know
(C) I know
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and indicate your correct alterntive.
31. This train carries goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(A) This train is carried by goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(B) The goods carry this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(C) Goods are carried by this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(D) The train carried the goods from Delhi to Bombay.
Ans : (C)
32. The news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections surprised him.
(A) He was surprised by the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(B) He was surprised with the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(C) He was surprised as a result of the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(D) He was surprised at the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
Ans : (D)
33. Finish the work in time.
(A) Let the work be finished in time.
(B) Let the work be finished in time by us.
(C) Let the work be finished by him in time.
(D) Let me finish the work in time.
Ans : (A)
34. God helps those who help themselves.
(A) Those who help themselves must be helped by God.
(B) Those who help themselves are helped by God.
(C) Let those who help themselves are helped by God.
(D) Let those who help themselves be helped by God.
Ans : (B)
35. Can you recite this poem ?
(A) This poem can be recited by you.
(B) You are requested to recite this poem.
(C) Would this poem be recited by you ?
(D) Can this poem be recited by you ?
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions first and the last parts of the sentence passage are following questions, numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/ passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/ passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and indicate your correct alternative.
36. 1. For thousands of millions of years the Moon has been going round the Earth.
P. However, some of them will still be going round the Earth thousands of years from now.
Q. These artificial satellites are very much smaller than the Moon.
R. Today, however, the Earth has many other satellites, all made by man.
S. During this time, the Moon has been the only satellite of the Earth.
6. Artificial satellites do not fall because they are going too fast to do so.
(A) P R S Q
(B) Q S R P
(C) S R P Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (D)
37. 1. Sir Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay were the first to reach the peak of Mount Everest in 1953.
P. While a Nepalese and a Japanese climber have done it three times, the Italian climber Reinhold Messner
has done it twice.
Q. Some 164 men and women mountaineers from 21 nations have made the ascent.
R. The mountain still continues to enthral.
S. Since then, there has been a succession of climbs.
6. Those wanting to climb Everest must file an application, with the Nepal Tourism Ministry.
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) S Q P R
(D) S P R Q
Ans : (C)
38. 1. There is a lot of luck in drilling for oil.
P. The samples of soil are examined for traces of oil.
Q. The drill may just miss the oil although it is near.
R. Sometimes, it may strike oil at a fairly high level.
S. When the drill goes down it brings up soil.
6. If they are disappointed at one place, the drillers go to another.
(A) Q P R S
(B) Q R S P
(C) P S R Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (C)
39. 1. India is a very old country with a great past.
P. Since August 1947, she had been in a position to pursue her own foreign policy.
Q. But it is a new country also, with new urges and new desires.
R. But even so, she could not forget the lesson of her great leader.
S. She was limited by the realities of the situation which she could not ignore or overcome.
6. She tried to adapt theory to reality.
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P S R
(C) S R P Q
(D) R S P Q
Ans : (B)
40. 1. Of all the living creatures on the earth, insects are the most plentiful.
P. In some countries, they are farmers greatest enemy.
Q. Locusts are perhaps the most dangerous of all, for they will eat almost any green plant and leave cultivated lands bare.
R. Some varieties are very useful to man, like bees from which we get honey and wax, and silkworms which supply us with silk.
S. Other varieties, however, are extremely harmful and do a great amount of damage, especially to crops.
6. Common flies, cockroaches, termites, mosquitoes and lice are some other insects harmful to man.
(A) P S R Q
(B) S R P Q
(C) R S Q P
(D) Q S R P
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to the letter (D).
41. Honesty always has and (A) / will always be (B) / a great virtue. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
42. It was irony (A) / that while he was trying to help his neighbours (B) / his own house was burnt to the ground. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
43. If we can work (A) / slow and steady (B) / we can finish by noon. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
44. Besides his children (A) / there were present (B) / his nephews and nieces. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
45. How do you manage to speak (A) / to her with (B) / so great patience. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
46. He not only cheated (A) / his friends, (B) / but also his parents. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
47. By this time next year (A) / Ramesh will take (B) / his university degree. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
48. I slept (A) / rather late (B) / last night. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
49. If I saved some money every month (A) / I would be able to buy a vehicle of my choice (B) / in no time. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
50. When I read his book (A) / I implied from it (B) / that he never understood women. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–55) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
51. IMPAIR
(A) Weaken
(B) Couple
(C) Double
(D) Repair
Ans : (A)
52. MOROSE
(A) Genial
(B) Gentle
(C) Gloomy
(D) Idle
Ans : (C)
53. INUNDATION
(A) Drought
(B) Imposition
(C) Flood
(D) Snowfall
Ans : (C)
54. PRISTINE
(A) Novel
(B) Strange
(C) Contemporary
(D) Original
Ans : (D)
55. EFFIGY
(A) Proxy
(B) Duplicate
(C) Dummy
(D) Replica
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one OPPOSITE in meaning to the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
56. AMELIORATE
(A) Decay
(B) Decline
(C) Worsen
(D) Destroy
Ans : (C)
57. VINDICTIVE
(A) Careless
(B) Forgiving
(C) Heedless
(D) Refined
Ans : (B)
58. CAMARADERIE
(A) Curiosity
(B) Ferocity
(C) Impetuosity
(D) Animosity
Ans : (D)
59. DEVOUR
(A) Vomit
(B) Reject
(C) Emit
(D) Eject
Ans : (A)
60. FALLIBLE
(A) Virtuous
(B) Honest
(C) Perfect
(D) Humble
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) In these questions, in the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 61 to 70. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct alternative.
The inevitable effect of mechanical production is uniformity, and although uniformity may lead to monotony, it need not lack beauty. In fact, modern improvement in popular …(61)… is mainly the result of better design …(62)… standardised, goods; and the average …(63)… is buying better design goods, because those goods are …(64)…, because the problem of taste has been …(65)… for him. Good taste is not always …(66)… and most people manage to get …(67)… without it. It is fortunate therefore, that so many of the …(68)… of life are now chosen for us by …(69)…. Even among luxuries, the margin for …(70)… taste is constantly being reduced.
61. (A) craft
(B) technology
(C) ideas
(D) taste
Ans : (D)
62. (A) on
(B) of
(C) in
(D) for
Ans : (B)
63. (A) shopper
(B) client
(C) man
(D) businessman
Ans : (A)
64. (A) gaudy
(B) accessible
(C) reliable
(D) durable
Ans : (A)
65. (A) tackled
(B) simplified
(C) resolved
(D) solved
Ans : (C)
66. (A) genuine
(B) laboured
(C) impulsive
(D) inborn
Ans : (D)
67. (A) ahead
(B) along
(C) through
(D) around
Ans : (C)
68. (A) amenities
(B) comforts
(C) luxuries
(D) necessities
Ans : (A)
69. (A) connoisseurs
(B) artists
(C) experts
(D) scientists
Ans : (A)
70. (A) local
(B) particular
(C) impersonal
(D) personal
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
Comprehension Passage
No one can seriously pretend to remain unaffected by advertisements. it is impossible to turn a blind eye to the solicitous overtures to buy this or that article that fill our streets, newspapers and magazines. Even in the sanctity of our living rooms, advertisers are waiting to pounce on their helpless victims as they tune into their favourite radio or television programmes. In time, no matter how hard we resist, clever little tunes and
catch-phrases seep into our subconscious minds and stay there. Though they seem so varied, all these advertisements have one thing in common; they make strong appeals to our emotions.
71. The word ‘sanctity’ means—
(A) sacredness
(B) privacy
(C) privilege
(D) security
Ans : (B)
72. Which one of the following lines best expresses the meaning of the first sentence in the passage ?
(A) All men are influenced by advertisements
(B) Most men are influenced by advertisements
(C) Some men are not influenced by advertisements
(D) Advertisements cannot influence everybody
Ans : (A)
73. To turn a blind eye — its opposite meaning is to—
(A) perceive
(B) view
(C) visualise
(D) sight
Ans : (A)
74. The ‘helpless victims’ are the—
(A) public
(B) spectators
(C) audience
(D) sellers
Ans : (A)
75. Advertisements are successful when we respond to them—
(A) Intellectually
(B) Blindly
(C) Helplessly
(D) Emotionally
Ans : (D)

Haryana S.S.C. Sub-Inspectors (Health Deptt.) Exam (Held on 2-3-2008)

                                                                 General Awareness

1. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the following games ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
Ans : (C)

2. The Dronacharya Award is associated with
(A) Eminent Surgeons
(B) Famous Artists
(C) Sport Coaches
(D) Expert Engineers
Ans : (C)

3. The author of Gitagovinda was
(A) Halayudha
(B) Jayadeva
(C) Kalhana
(D) Jona-Raja
Ans : (B)

4. Who wrote the book India Wins Freedom ?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Abdul Gaffar Khan
Ans : (A)

5. Baba Amte is famous as a
(A) Painter
(B) Singer
(C) Politician
(D) Social Worker
Ans : (D)

6. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ?
(A) Sushila Nayar
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sulochan Modi
Ans : (C)

7. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Zubin Mehta
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Ans : (D)

8. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharathanatyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ravi Shankar - Sitarist
(B) M.F. Hussain - Tabla
(C) R.K. Narayan - Novelist
(D) Kaifi Azmi - Poet
Ans : (B)

10. Who said, You give me blood, I will give you freedom?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bhagat Singh
Ans : (C)

11. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ?
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Peace
(D) Music
Ans : (D)

12. When is the International Womens Day observed ?
(A) March 8
(B) February 14
(C) May 10
(D) October 2
Ans : (A)

13. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ?
(A) Pepsi
(B) Coca Cola
(C) LG
(D) Samsung
Ans : (A)

14. The 2008 Olympics will be held in
(A) London
(B) Sydney
(C) Beijing
(D) Seoul
Ans : (C)

15. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with
(A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Quit India Movement
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Partition of India
Ans : (A)

16. The concept of Din-e-Elahi was founded by which king ?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Akbar
(C) Shershah Suri
(D) Shahjahan
Ans : (B)

17. The central point in Ashokas Dharma was
(A) Loyalty to kings
(B) Peace and non-violence
(C) Respect to elders
(D) Religious toleration
Ans : (D)

18. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practised his Satyagraha in India at
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Champaran
(D) Nauokhali
Ans : (C)

19. Do or Die was one of the most powerful slogans of Indias freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (A)

20. Who among the following formed a party named as Forward Block ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar Azad
(D) J.L. Nehru
Ans : (A)

21. Where are the Dilwara Temples located ?
(A) Shravana Belgola
(B) Parasnath Hills
(C) Indore
(D) Mt. Abu
Ans : (D)

22. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (B)

23. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ?
(A) Barsati
(B) Grama
(C) Zaid
(D) Khari
Ans : (C)

24. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godavari
Ans : (A)

25. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (D)