SECTION OFFICER (AUDIT) EXAM
Directions: In Question Nos. 1 to 10, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error mark (D) as your answer.
1. A moment delay/would have proved costly/ in the situation./No error.
2. Ram disappointed his mother/ as he did not/ write to her very often./No error.
3. After you will return/ from Chennai/ I will come and see you./ No error.
4. Scenes from the film / had to be censured/ before it was released./ No error.
5. When my sister was ill/ I went to the hospital/ on alternative days./ No error.
6 The beautiful/ surrounding of the place/ enchanted me./ No error.
7. No Porter being available/ he carried/ all his luggages himself./ No error.
8 He will not be able/ to cope up with/ the pressure of work./ No error.
9. Lasers are/ indispensable tools/ for the delicate eyes surgery./ No error.
10. I take great pleasure/ to welcome you/ to this institution./ No error.
Directions: In Question Nos. 11 to 15, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given.
11. Indignation
(A) hatred
(B) anger
(C) disapproval
(D) contempt
12. Acronym
(A) A word with two or more meanings
(B) A word of new coinage
(C) A word formed by the initial letters of words
(D) A word of picturesque effect
13. Meticulous
(A) interfere
(B) courage
(C) agreement
(D) careful
14. Rescind
(A) change
(B) revoke
(C) repeat
(D) reconsider
15. Antipathy
(A) dishonesty
(B) disturbance
(C) demonstration (D) dislike
Directions: In Question Nos. 16 to 20, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
16. APPARENT
(A) Illegible
(B) Hidden
(C) Mysterious
(D) Remote
17. ALIEN
(A) Native
(B) Domiciled
(C) Natural
(D) Resident
18. FUTILE
(A) upright
(B) costly
(C) eminent
(D) worthy
19. AUDACIOUS
(A) meek
(B) cowardly
(C) mild
(D) gentle
20. ARROGANT
(A) simple
(B) timid
(C) civilized
(D) modest
Directions: In Question Nos. 21 to 30, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word.
21. The food that an average Indian eats has been found to be deficient _____ vitamins and proteins.
(A) of
(B) from
(C) with
(D) in
22. The patient is _____ of stomachache.
(A) suffering
(B) experiencing
(C) complaining
(D) afflicting
23. A good teacher should _____ responses from the students.
(A) elicit
(B) provoke
(C) command
(D) infer
24. Had he taken his degree five years ago he _____ got a promotion by now.
(A) might
(B) would have
(C) will be
(D) was
25. There will be a rush for seats when the train
(A) will arrive
(B) arrived
(C) is arriving
(D) arrives
26. He drove the car very fast _____
(A) Did he?
(B) Does he?
(C) Didn’t he?
(D) Was he?
27. He _____ wants to succeed in life must be prepared to work hard.
(A) whoever
(B) whom
(C) who
(D) whose
28. It is time you _____ home.
(A) go
(B) went
(C) come
(D) reach
29. _____ a walk in the morning will improve your health.
(A) Going to
(B) Go to
(C) Go for
(D) Going for
30. Government must _____ the rise in prices.
(A) cheque
(B) check
(C) cease
(D) seize
Directions: In Question Nos. 31 to 40, four alternatives are given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined or given idiom/phrase.
31. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the on-coming truck could run into it.
(A) serious accident
(B) close collision
(C) narrow escape
(D) deep dent
32. Fits and starts
(A) slowly
(B) not regularly
(C) continuously
(D) quickly
33. When the Inspector entered the class some of the students shook in their shoes.
(A) stamped the ground with their shoes
(B) showed signs of anger
(C) trembled with fear
(D) stood up to salute
34. In high spirits
(A) full of hope and enthusiasm
(B) under tremendous stress
(C) under the influence of liquor
(D) mentally deranged
35. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices.
(A) dishonest means
(B) illegal means
(C) intelligent decisions
(D) quick decisions
36. He is not in the good books of his boss.
(A) a lover of good books
(B) in favour with
(C) not of the same opinion as
(D) as good as
37. The officer is fed up with the complaints made against the clerk.
(A) annoyed
(B) disgusted
(C) pleased
(D) satisfied
38. A white elephant,
(A) a rare species of elephants
(B) an expensive gift
(C) a costly but useless possession
(D) a worthless thing
39. Ins and outs
(A) entry and exit points
(B) full details
(C) tactical moves
(D) complexity of character
40. All his ventures went to the winds.
(A) dissipated
(B) spread all over
(C) got speed of the winds
(D) became well-known
Directions: In Question Nos. 41 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
41. Government by a ruler who has unlimited power.
(A) Despotism
(B) Autocracy
(C) Monarchy
(D) Anarchy
42. An occasion of great importance
(A) exemplary
(B) momentous
(C) herculean
(D) grandiose
43. A person who is always hopeful and look: upon the brighter side of things
(A) florist
(B) artist
(C) theist
(D) optimist
44. Place of burial
(A) cave
(B) church
(C) synagogue
(D) cemetry
45. To have a very high opinion of oneself
(A) exaggeration
(B) adulation
(C) abundance
(D) conceited
46. One who believes in giving equal opportunity to women in all fields
(A) Fanatic
(B) Misogynist
(C) Philanderer
(D) Feminist
47. Inability to sleep
(A) hysteria
(B) insomnia
(C) aphasia
(D) amnesia
48. One who is given to pleasures of the flesh.
(A) terrestrian
(B) epicurean
(C) celestial
(D) pedestrian
49. A tank where fish or water plants are kept
(A) Aquarium
(B) Sanatorium
(C) Nursery
(D) Aviary
50. A person who never takes alcoholic drinks
(A) teetotaller
(B) alcoholic
(C) addict
(D) bagpiper
Directions: In Question Nos. 51 to 55, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt.
51.
(A) poignant
(B) relevent
(C) prevalent
(D) malignant
52.
(A) seize
(B) achieve
(C) wierd
(D) leisure
53.
(A) repent
(B) serpent
(C) flagrent
(D) reverent
54. (A) dining
(B) shining
(C) determining
(D) begining
55.
(A) vendetta ‘
(B) verisimilitude
(C) vicarious
(D) vociferrate
Directions: In Question Nos. 56 to 65, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.
56. He was weary of failure, Didn’t he?
(A) Isn’t he?
(B) Wasn’t he?
(C) Doesn’t he?
(D) No improvement
57. What you have been doing since the work shop last month?
(A) have you done
(B) you have done
(C) have you been doing
(D) No improvement
58. Keats says the idea very well in his poems.
(A) speaks
(B) describes
(C) expresses
(D) No improvement
59. The enemy soldiers went back hastily.
(A) returned
(B) retreated
(C) retrenched
(D) No improvement
60. No sooner had the teacher entered the room and the boys rushed to their seats.
(A) when
(B) than
(C) but
(D) No improvement
61. We have already disposed our old house.
(A) disposed off
(B) disposed out
(C) disposed of
(D) No improvement
62. We can buy anything in this shop, Can we?
(A) Isn’t it?
(B) Can’t we?
(C) Don’t we?
(D) No improvement
63. If I had followed your advice, I would not regret today.
(A) will not regret
(B) had not regretted
(C) would not have regretted
(D) No improvement
64. Somebody must be made to answer for the securities scam.
(A) to
(B) after
(C) upon
(D) No improvement
65. Corruption is the most serious problem in India.
(A) the more serious
(B) the seriouser
(C) serious
(D) No improvement
Directions: In Question Nos. 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
66. The cat is running after the rat.
(A) The rat was being run after by the cat
(B) The rat is being run after by the cat
(C) The rat is run after by the cat
(D) The cat is being run after by the rat
67. English is spoken all over the world.
(A) All over the world English speaks
(B) English speaks all over the world
(C) The whole world speaks English
(D) People speak English all over the world
68. The boys elected Mohan captain.
(A) The boys were elected captain by Mohan
(B) Mohan is elected captain by the boys
(C) Mohan was elected captain by the boys
(D) Mohan and the boys elected the captain
69. They threw away the Rubbish.
(A) The Rubbish will be thrown away
(B) The Rubbish was being thrown away
(C) The Rubbish was thrown away
(D) The Rubbish thrown away
70. Let him see the picture.
(A) Let the picture be seen by him
(B) The picture is seen by him
(C) Let him the picture be seen
(D) The picture is seen by him
Directions: In Question Nos. 71 to 80, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four Parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations s correct. Then find the correct answer.
71.
1. There was a lamp hanging on the wall
P. Then he picked a lot of jewels off the trees in the garden
Q. He put the lamp inside his shirt
R. He put them in his pockets
S. Aladdin climbed a ladder and took down the lamp
6. Then he put more jewels inside his shirt on top of the lamp.
(A) PRQS
(B) RSPQ
(C) SQPR
(D) QSRP
72.
1. Gopal and Sheela felt very bored one evening
P. Gopal wanted to stay on for the next show
Q. So they decided to go to the cinema
R. They reached the theatre in time for the interval
S. On the way there was a traffic jam
6. But Sheela wanted to return home
(A) PSQR
(B) SQPR
(C) QSRP
(D) SQRP
73.
1. Ferdinand rose up to receive the messenger
P. At the end of his account he was moved to tears
Q. He fell on his knees and thanked him
R. He made him sit on a level with himself
S. He listened to the circumstantial account of his voyage
6. It was a great conquest the Almighty gave to a sovereign.
(A) RPSQ
(B) RSPQ
(C) QPRS
(D) PKSQ
74.
1. In order to judge the inside of others, study your own
P. and though one has one prevailing passion
Q. for, men, in general are very much alike
R. yet their operations are very much the same
S. and another has another
6. and whatever engages or disgusts, pleases or offends you in others, will engage, disgust, please or offend others in you.
(A) QPSR
(B) PQRS
(C) RQPS
(D) PRQS
75.
1. Paucity of funds
P. universities cannot make
Q. essentials like books
R. sufficient expenditure on
S. ordains that the
6. journals and equipment.
(A) QPRS
(B) SPRQ
(C) PQRS
(D) QSRP
76.
1. The symptoms of
P. and certain other changes
Q. what is popularly called
R. serious forgetfulness, confusion
S “serility” include
6. in personality behaviour.
(A) QSRP
(B) PQRS
(C) SRQP
(D) QPSR
77.
1. When they heard the bell P. out of his clothes
Q. as quickly
R. every boy scrambled
S. and got into bed
6. as possible.
(A) QRPS
(B) PSQR
(C) RQSP
(D) RPS.Q
78.
1. Thirty years from now
P. and industry will be scarce
Q. almost half of the people
R. that water for drinking, farming
S. then living may find
6. according to a study by Dr. S. Posten.
(A) SPQR
(B) SRPQ
(C) QSRP
(D) QSPR
79.
1. A good cry can be a
P. bring relief from anxiety
Q. prevent a headache or
R. and it might even
S. healthy way to
6. other physical consequence
(A) SRQP
(B) SRPQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) SPQR
80.
1. Long, long, time ago
P. who lived with his three wives
Q. in a country called Kosala
R. there ruled a noble king
S. and four sons
6. beautiful, graceful and well versed in all shastras.
(A) PQRS
(B) SPQR
(C) RQPS
(D) QRSP
Directions: In the following passage (Question Nos. 81 to 90), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Cloze Passage
Scientists have developed an electronic circuit that 81 the wiring of the human brain in some ways – an achievement that 82 revolu-tionalise computer science and 83 understanding of how nature’s most powerful 84 works. The 85 built on a 86 chip the size of a finger nail, is 87 from the thinking machines of science-fiction. For one thing it cannot 88 , the way the 89 can. But researchers say it could 90 in better speech and object recognition by computers.
81.
(A) imitates
(B) mimics
(C) limits
(D) expands
82.
(A) shall
(B) ought
(C) could
(D) have
83.
(A) exceed
(B) improve
(C) impair
(D) develop
84.
(A) processor
(B) electronic system
(C) circuit
(D) brain
85.
(A) computer
(B) monitor
(C) system
(D) circuit
86.
(A) silicon
(B) minute
(C) big
(D) brown
87.
(A) for
(B) above
(C) beyond
(D) far
88.
(A) equate
(B) teach
(C) learn
(D) recognise
89.
(A) computer
(B) processor
(C) chip
(D) brain
90.
(A) yield
(B) give
(C) respond
(D) result
Directions: In Question Nos. 91 to 100, you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE – I
For any activity, discipline is the key word. It should begin with the self, then be extended to the family, neighbours, environment, workplace, society and the nation at large. It is from society that inspiration is drawn. Systems and institutions should provide the inspiration to society through performance which in turn will provide leaders, capable of rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation. The nationalists’ spirit then becomes infectious.
91. What is the key word for Activity according to the passage?
(A) Active Discipline
(B) Key Discipline
(C) Self Discipline
(D) Discipline
92. According to the passage Discipline should begin
(A) with the self
(B) with the self, family and neighbours
(C) with the self, family, neighbours and environment
(D) with the self, family, workplace, society
93. According to the passage, where do we draw inspiration from?
(A) Society
(B) Society and nation
(C) Environment
(D) Nothing in particular
94. According to the passage, a good leader should be capable of
(A) rebuilding a nation the way he/she likes
(B) rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation
(C) building a national consensus
(D) rebuilding and structuring a nation
95. What is the meaning of the word “infectious” in the passage?
(A) dangerous
(B) spreading to everyone
(C) spreading to everyone by germs
(D) give disease
PASSAGE -II
A 23-year-old British woman was yesterday sentenced to six months in jail for leaving her two-year-old daughter home alone eight-hours-a-day, five days a week for a year while she went to work. The young mother from the central town of Warwick initially hired a babysitter, when she landed a job in a travel agency but eventually reached the point when she could no longer afford the facility, prosecutors said. The woman then started leaving the child home by herself, providing it with food and toys and removing all potentially dangerous objects from its reach. At first the mother came home at lunch time but had to stop because her daughter threw tantrums every time she left to go back to work.
The mother, who was not identified, told the court, “If I had money I would not have done it. It was a case of that or not keeping my job and living on benefit”.
The judge, Mr. Harrison Hall, however said “Having had a child, the absolute priority is to look after it. There must be an alternative to leaving a child alone all day, a thing you would not do even to a dog”.
96. The young mother had to work in the office
(A) 40 hours a week
(B) 8 hours a week
(C) 48 hours a week
(D) all the seven days a week
97. The word ‘Facility’ in sentence refers to
(A) her job in the travel agency
(B) living in a well furnished apartment
(C) getting adequate salary
(D) employing someone to look after the child
98- The mother stopped coming home for lunch because
(A) her house was far away from the office
(B) she was not able to control her angry baby
(C) she had to work extra hours to earn more
(D) she was not interested in looking after the baby
99. The sentence “If I had money, I would not have done it” means
(A) I had money and so I did not leave the baby alone
(B) I had money and so I left the baby alone
(C) I had no money and so I left the baby alone
(D) I had no money and so I did not leave the baby alone
100. Which one of the following statements about the judge Mr. Harrison Hall is correct?
(A) He can tolerate cruelty to children but not to animals
(B) He can tolerate cruelty to animals but not to children
(C) He can tolerate cruelty both to children and animals
(D) He can tolerate cruelty neither to children nor to animals
PAPER I: PART-B GENERAL AWARENESS
101. Devaluation of currency leads to
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
102. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds
103. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and . Distribution system followed by Indian Government?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of buffer stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution
104. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
105. The Centre for Agricultural Marketing is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad
106. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
107. The currency of Thailand is
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen
108. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget
109. In Indian agriculture the period from July to October-November is called
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season
110. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares
111. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establish ment of a
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions
112. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
113. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President
114. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of
(A) centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories’ problems
(D) Tribal areas
115. The Judges of the High Court hold office
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire
116. The United Nations officially came into existence on
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945
117. The English Crown is an example of
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive
118. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
119. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are
120. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called
(A) casting vote
(B) sound vote
(C) direct vote
(D) indirect vote
121. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
122. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati?
(A) Plato’s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle’s Politics
(D) Aristotle’s Nicomachicm Ethics
123. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
124. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
125. Indian Penal Code came into operation in
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862
126. The First Viceroy & Governor-General of British India was
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
127. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year
(A) 1905
(B) 1906
(C) 1907
(D) 1910
128. Bhulabhai Desai’s most memorable achieve ment was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
129. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the
(A) Cheras
(B) Parthians
(C) Pandyas
(D) Cholas
130. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Joa de Castro
(C) Francisco de Almedia
(D) Nuno da Cunha
131. When was the All India Women’s Con ference founded?
(A) 1924
(B) 1925
(C) 1926
(D) 1927
132. The Kuka movement started in mid- Nineteenth century in
(A) Western Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bengal
(D) MadhyaBharat
133. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle?
(A) Annie Beasant
(B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Chittaranjan Das
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
134. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Cabinet Mission
(D) WavelPlan
135. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934?
(A) Jawahailal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P. C. Joshi
(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad
136. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of
(A) Pucca bricks
(B) Stone
(C) Wood
(D) All of the above
137. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join?
(A) Delhi – Amritsar
(B) Delhi – Mumbai
(C) Delhi – Kolkata
(D) Delhi – Ahmedabad
138. Watermelons grow best in
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Laterite soil
139. In which state is the Maikala range situated?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhatisgarh
140. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is
(A) 35° N
(B) 36° N
(C) 37° N
(D) 39° N
141. River erosion is at its greatest where the river’s
(A) depth is more
(B) breadth is more
(C) flow is fast
(D) gradient is more
142. Nallamala hills are located in the state of
(A) Orissa
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
143. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
144. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located?
(A) Coral Sea
(B) Solomon Sea
(C) Bismarck Sea
(D) Arafura Sea
145. Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
146. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by
(A) 5th June
(B) 15th June
(C) 1st July
(D) 15th July
147. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established?
(A) Bhadravati
(B) Bhilai
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Burnpur
148. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Columbus – 1492
(B) Vasco de Gama – 1498
(C) Magellan – 1520
(D) Balboa – 1530
149. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Orange
(D) Yellow
150. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of
(A) Reproduction
(B) Research
(C) Therapeutics
(D) Genetics
151. Pick out the viral disease among the following
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Meningitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Nephritis
152. Dolly, the World’s First cloned animal was a
(A) sheep
(B) cow
(C) goat
(D) pig
153. The large amount of sugar present in human blood is
(A) sucrose
(B) glucose
(C) fructose
(D) lactose
154. Which one of the following is a viral disease in man?
(A) Mumps
(B) Plague
(C) Cholera
(D) Syphilis
155. The major constituent uf gobar gas, is
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Butane
(D) Isobutane
156. The expansion for AIDS is
(A) Active Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
157. Bee keeping is known as
(A) Sericulture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Aquaculture
(D) Agriculture
158. HYV refers to
(A) Hybrid yielding variety
(B) Human yellow virus
(C) High yielding variety
(D) Human yellow vaccine
159. Pick the odd one out based on crop season
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Cotton
160. The residue left after extracting juice from sugarbeet and sugarcane is called
(A) molasses
(B) bagasse
(C) whey
(D) biomass
161. The isotope of Uranium used in atomic reactors is
(A) U235
(B) U236
(C) U237
(D) U232
162. In the process of magnetisation of a bar
(A) The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised
(B) Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised
(C) Only the ends of the bar get magnetised
(D) Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get magnetised
163. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface Tension
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Gravitational force
164. Which is the coldest among the following?
(A) Mars
(B) Earth
(C) Pluto
(D) Mercury
165. The weakest of all fundamental forces is
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Electrostatic force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Nuclear force
166. Among the defects of eye, the shortsightedness is called
(A) coma
(B) hypermetropia
(C) myopia
(D) astigmatism
167. Which one of the following is not a radio active element?
(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Radium
(D) Cadmium
168. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the change of
(A) Temperature of air
(B) Pressure of air
(C) Moisture content in air
(D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound
169. The greenhouse effect is caused by the higher level of which gas in the atmosphere?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
170. Candle is a mixture of
(A) Paraffin wax and stearic acid
(B) Bees wax and stearic acid
(C) Higher fatty acids and stearic acid
(D) Bees wax and paraffin wax
171. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as
(A) rectified spirit
(B) denatured spirit
(C) methylated alcohol
(D) power alcohol
172. Brass is an alloy of copper and
(A) tin
(B) zinc
(C) iron
(D) nickel
173. Who discovered X-rays?
(A) Goldstein
(B) Thomson
(C) Rontgen
(D) Wien
174. The density of a gas is maximum at
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
(B) Low temperature, high pressure
(C) High temperature, low pressure
(D) High temperature, high pressure
175. The important ore of aluminium is
(A) bauxite
(B) cryolite
(C) fluorspar
(D) haematite
176. Aqua regia is a 1: 3 mixture, by volume, of
(A) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. hydrochloric acid
(B) Conc. hydrochloric acid and Conc. nitric acid
(C) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. sulphuric acid
(D) Conc. sulphuric acid and Conc. nitric acid
177. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by
(A) 26-0
(B) 24-1
(C) 22-0
(D) 20-0
178. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched?
(A) 1985
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1991
179. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is
(A) gravitational pull of the moon
(B) low pressure trough in the ocean
(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water
(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind
180. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
181. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex-ratio?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tamilnadu
182. Major fishing grounds are found in
(A) Northern Hemisphere
(B) Southern Hemisphere
(C) Eastern Hemisphere
(D) Western Hemisphere
183. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India?
(A) 1952
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1999
184. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat?
(A) Sonalika
(B) Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona
(D) Girija
185. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere?
(A) 2 to 3 per cent
(B) 3 to 4 per cent
(C) 4 to 5 per cent
(D) 5 to 6 per cent
186. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahendra Chaudhury
(C) Nirod C. Chaudhury
(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson
187. Who gave the concept of ‘Total Revolution’?
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Lenin
188. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in
(A) 1962
(B) 1971
(C) 1977
(D) 1980
189. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sardar Patel
190. Japan’s Parliament is known as
(A) Diet
(B) Dail
(C) Yuan
(D) Shora
191. The convention that “once a speaker always. a speaker” is followed in
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) India
192. The Headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at
(A) New York
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) Rome
193. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
194. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production: “The Ghost and The Darkness” is
(A) OmPuri
(B) Naseeruddin Shah
(C) Amitabh Bachchan , (D) Anil Kapoor
195. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
196. PSLV stands for
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle
(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier
(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle
197. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with
(A) Basketball
(B) Football
(C) Boxing
(D) Cricket
198. Who is the author of the novel ‘DEVDAS’?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Munshi Premchand
199. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of
(A) 10-3 m
(B) 10-6 m
(C) 10-9 m
(D) 10-12 m
200. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
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